Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MPH-ADAM > MPH COPY > Flashcards

MPH COPY Flashcards

Q

1
Q

The science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health and efficiency thru organized community effort

A

What is public health?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations and the applications of this study to the control of health problems

A

What is epidemiology?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Immunizations Vehicle safety Workplace safety Infectious Dz Control Decrease CAD/CVA Safe/healthy Food Healthier mothers/ babies Family planning Fluoridation of water Tobacco as hazard

A

What are the top 10 achievements of PH?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

heart disease and cancer

A

What mortality has increased from 1900 to 2010?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

accidents, nephropathies, pneumonia, influenza, senility

A

What mortality has decreased from 1900 to 2010?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

diphtheria, TB, GI infections

A

What mortality has been eradicated from 1900-2010?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maintain force health, OP performance, readiness

A

What is the goal of the military PM?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Trauma/sports injury, communicable disease, proactive health, safety

A

What does the military PM focus on?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PHA, PDHA, PDHRA

A

What are examples of proactive health in military setting?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Primary prevention

A

The process of prevention the onset of a disease before the process beings such as immunizations, prophylaxis, environmental, sanitation, PPM is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Secondary prevention

A

The process of prevention that leads to an early diagnosis of a disease to prevent serious problems such as STD screenings is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Teritary prevention

A

The process of prevention that reduced morbidity and mortality from an existing disease which include all treatments is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Recommendations for primary and secondary prevention based on evidence strength, benefits and harm balance, WITHOUT cost as an influence

A

What does the USPSTF provide?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Those WITHOUT signs or symptoms of a disease (primary and secondary)

A

Who does USPSTF recommendations apply too?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

not enough evidence, complete more research or redetermine from a different method

A

What is the difference between “no evidence of effectiveness” and “ineffective” in a USPSTF recommendation?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LDL >130-190, HDL < 40, diabetes, HTN, smoking (LDL >190 NOT considered)

A

Who is considered at increased risk for CVD via USPSTF?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Men who have sex with men, those with or living with HIV positive individuals

A

Who is at increased risk for syphilis via USPSTF?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A- benefit is substantial B- benefit is moderate C- benefit is small D- recommends against servic I- evidence is insufficient

A

What are the different grades USPSTF can give?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Indirect vector, mechanical

A

If a fly contaminates food bringing shigella what transmission is this? (also shigellosis, plague, malaria, dengue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Indirect, vehicle

A

Staph. poisoning from a single meal is what type of transmission? (also HCV, MRSA from food, water, fomites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Direct, droplet

A

The passage in pertussis, meningococcal, or mumps from a cough or sneeze onto a person is what type of transmission?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Indirect, airborne

A

The passage of TB or measles from coughing into the air is what type of transmission?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Direct, contact

A

The passes of impetigo, herpes, syphilis, or hookworm from hugging is what type of transmission?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Herd immunity

A

What is described as a percentage of the population (HIT) who is immune to a contagious disease, will protect those who are not immune by lack of disease?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Incidence rate

A

The new cases of a disease in a period of an at risk population (risk of getting a disease) is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Attack rate

A

The people who develop a disease over the total population with no time reference is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Secondary rate

A

When a susceptible person is exposed to a diseased individual and develops the disease this is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Isolation

A

The restriction of an ill person with a contagious disease during the communicable period to a hospital as a standard precaution to prevent its transmission is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Quarantine

A

The restriction of a well person who has been exposed to a contagious disease and may be in the incubation period that is rarely used is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Disease burden

A

The gap between current and ideal health status measured by the impact of the health problem and quantified by QUALY/DALY, hospital days, etc. is called?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Health, readiness, OPs, health cost, duty time lost

A

How is the importance of a condition that is a burden to the US military ranked to determine the priority of resources for primary, secondary,and tertiary prevention?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PM personnel

A

Who is responsible for the treatment, testing, and certification of major water sources?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Unit sanitation teams

A

Who is responsible for ensuring the water supplies, storage, and distribution points maintain required chlorine residues 2x/day and when filled?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Prohibiting when necessary, educating to lower the risks, vaccinations (Hep A, Typhoid), knowing threats, prophylaxis

A

How is the prevention of food and water-borne diseases completed?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

1-7 day hospitalization (P. Fal), Anopheles mosquito, Dusk/Dawn

A

What is the operational impact of Malaria? What are the risks for developing Malaria?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

NOT using the same prophylaxis drug for treatment, short-half life daily, long half-life weekly, NOT obtained OCONUS

A

What are the major considerations associated with the general chemoprophylaxis of Malaria?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Doxycycline, Mefloquine, Chloroquine

A

What suppressive chemoprophylaxis medications can be used to kill Malaria in the erythrocytic stage?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Primaquine

A

What medication should be used for presumptive anti relapse treatment for Malaria? (note: also used for P. vivid NOT blood stage P. fal, requires G6PD testing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tafenoquine (NOT for use w/ G6PD deficiency)

A

Which Malaria causal chemoprophylaxis prevents development in the liver, acts on blood stage parasites, and is active against dormant liver stage?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Malarone

A

Which Malaria causal chemoprophylaxis does NOT kill in the dormant liver stage?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dengue

A

Which vector borne disease is associated with the Aedes daytime mosquito in urban areas that when re-exposed causes major risk of hemorrhagic fever?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CDY-TDV (Dengvax)

A

Which vaccine is protective against previously exposed individuals but increases severity among children w/o previous exposure?

43
Q

Mites; female to egg (transovarial transmission- human host not required)

A

Scrub typhus endemic to farmers, 40-60, and July-November is caused by a mite (chigger) via Orientia tsutsugamushi accidentally transmitted into a human from a larva in the bite because their bacterial cycle is maintained by?

44
Q

Epidemic typhus

A

What disease is caused by infective lice (louse) that do NOT transmit infection to their progeny, infect via deification on a bite, lifespan of louse IS shortened with infection and is controlled via eradication of human infestation w/ Permethrin?

45
Q

Maurine (Endemic) typhus

A

What disease is caused by Rickettsia typhi from a rat flea that is permanently infected w/o a short lifespan, infect via deification, w/ prominent GI sx in children?

46
Q

doxycycline

A

What is the prophylaxis for typhus?

47
Q

avoid animals, vaccine at 0-7-21(or 28) days

A

What is the PRE-exposure prophylaxis for rabies?

48
Q

Thorough washing w/ soap/water/viricide (povidone-iodine), Rabies Immune globulin into the wound (NOT vaccinated, immediate) or Rabies vaccine into the deltoid (NEVER in gluteal area, 7-10d, given on 0-3-7-14d in nonvax or 0,3 prior vax)

A

What is the POST-exposure prophylaxis of rabies?

49
Q

incubation period

A

What is the interval between initial infection and first signs and symptoms (need to meet threshold)?

50
Q

latent period

A

What is the time from infection to infectious?

51
Q

When an infected individual can transmit an infection w/o showing signs/sx’s

A

What is a subclinical infection?

52
Q

Reduces reinfection in males and overall transmission in males Reduces personal risk of sequelae (PID, infertility)

A

What is the difference in rationale for screening in males and females for STI’s?

53
Q

M to F is 4x more efficient, 70% F asymptomatic w/ cervix infection, men symptomatic 7-10d, communicable in untreated cases, resistant strains, antibiotics can end communicability

A

Why is it important to screen women for gonorrhea?

54
Q

nucleic acid amplification testing-NAAT on urine (preferred for men- accuracy w/ PT collected specimen) or vaginal swabs (preferred for women)

A

What is the screening method for gonorrhea AND chlamydia?

55
Q

Most are asymptomatic, results in scarred tubes, ovaries, lining and increases infertility/ectopic pregnancy

A

Why is it important to screen for Chlamydia?

56
Q

6, 11

A

What are the “low risk” HPV types responsible for anogenital warts?

57
Q

16*, 18

A

What are the high risk HPV types responsible for cervical cancer?

58
Q

6, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58

A

What HPV types are included in the vaccine?

59
Q

11-12, can start at 9, 13-21 catch up 22-26 if MSM or IMCP

A

What is the vaccination schedule for Males for HPV?

60
Q

11-12, can start at 9, 13-26 catch up in no/incomplete vaccine <15 2 doses >15 3 doses (youth respond better)

A

What is the vaccination schedule for Females for HPV?

61
Q

cholera, viral HF, epidemic (louse) typhus

A

What are the disaster related outbreaks associated with human remains?

62
Q

inadequate water, poor sanitation, lack of healthcare

A

What sudden displacements factors seen in disasters tend to lead to outbreaks?

63
Q

Diarrhea (50%), acute respiratory infection, vector borne (malaria), measles

A

What are the four infectious sources of mortality in humanitarian emergencies associated with malnutrition?

64
Q

Cholera

A

What global pandemic disease is caused by toxigenic serogroup O139, requires NaCl and high inoculation count, and is associated with blood group O and retinol deficiency?

65
Q

Oral rehydration (200-310 mOsm/L, glucose, Na)

A

What is the mainstay of treatment for diarrheal diseases?

66
Q

Acute respiratory infections that lead to pneumonia

A

What is a major cause of morbidity and mortality usually seen in <5yo children in emergency settings?

67
Q

Measles

A

What causes mortality in <5yo children worldwide from respiratory droplets classified by an outbreak of three or more confirmed cases linked in time and space?

68
Q

Vitamin A

A

What is the treatment indicated for measles in all levels of causes due to a synergistic effect?

69
Q
  1. detect an outbreak (2+) 2. define cases 3. Generate hypothesis 4. Test hypothesis (call PM) 5. find contamination 6. control the outbreak 7. decide when over
A

What are the food borne investigation tasks?

70
Q

top 5 pathogens resulting in death

A

What is the link between non-typhoid salmonella, toxoplasma, listeria, norovirus and campylobacter?

71
Q

> 2 weeks before travel every 2 years 4caps 1 every other day for >1 week prior expo every 5 years

A

When should ViCPS for typhoidal salmonella be given? Oral vaccine?

72
Q

3-4 hrs up to 5-6

A

When is the pre/post workout meal window?

73
Q

1.2-1.6g of protein/kg/d (25-30g per meal)

A

What is the recommend protein for weight loss?

74
Q

manufacturer BEFORE market FDA AFTER market

A

Who is responsible for safety of supplements?

75
Q

submit AE through natural medicine watch shared with MTF/commanders and reported to FDA MedWatch

A

What is OTSG/MEDCOM policy memo 12-028?

76
Q

the composite of all ongoing or potential enemy actions and environmental conditions that will reduce combat effectiveness through wounding, injuring, causing disease or performance degradation

A

What is a medical threat?

77
Q

Risk

A

What drives Force Health Protection?

78
Q

Collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of information for strategic/military medical planning/operations to conserve friendly forces and foreign medical capabilities in military and civilian sectors

A

What is medical intelligence?

79
Q

Strategic- NCMI, Tactical-S2/G2/J2

A

What are the sources of medical intelligence?

80
Q

Approved/Authorized Prophylaxis Recommended Medical Treatment Protocol Medical Policy Medical Doctrine

A

NCMI provides Health/Hazard Assessments, Health Services Assessments, Trends & Forecasts, Indications/warnings, Facility Database. What does it NOT provide?

81
Q

NO countermeasures

A

What are the assumed risks included in the risk estimate?

82
Q

Realistic max rate + disease endemicity –> Potential attack in troops + severity –> Risk Operational Impact (high, inter., low)

A

What is the methodology for assessing disease risk?

83
Q

Hep B, DTaP, HiB (influenza), PCV (pneumococcal), rotavirus, polio

A

What are the recommended early vaccinations?

84
Q

Measles (MMR)

A

What is an important consideration for all OCONUS children 6-11 months (1 dose) and 2 doses after age 1 OR children >12 months w/ 2 doses after 28 days

85
Q

Travelers diarrhea

A

What is the most common traveling illness that can be shortened to 1-2 days with self treatment?

86
Q

Azithromycin

A

What is the antibiotic used for dysentery, febrile diarrhea, and empirically for SE Asia and India for resistant camplyo/ETEC?

87
Q

Rifaximin

A

What antibiotic is the best option but is NOT indicated for compylo/salmonella/shigella?

88
Q

Bismuth taken 4 times per days, not typically

A

IF (rarely) chemoprophylaxis is indicated for travel diarrhea what should be used?

89
Q

PO2 at >8000 ft, at 10000 ft PO2 is 70% of sea value

A

Why does headache, fatigue, loss if appetite, nausea, and insomnia our at increased altitude?

90
Q

Acetazolamide Prophylaxis: 125BID 24 hr before to 48hr after highest point Tx: 250mg BID AE: numbness, tingling, urination expected

A

What are the methods used to control altitude sickness?

91
Q

4 weeks

A

What is the spacing between 2 live vaccinations?

92
Q

Voluntary surveillance system Relies upon non-standardized descriptions of events Under-reporting is a major limitation “Over-reporting” may occur for non-causal associations

A

What are the limitations of VAERS?

93
Q

Hospitalization 24 hour loss of duty Auto-inoculation or contact vaccinia Event is on VAERS reportable events table Event is on the NVCIP vaccine injury table Contamination of a vaccine lot is suspected Adverse Event results a permanent Medical Exemption

A

What vaccine AE require mandatory reporting?

94
Q

OSHA 1970

A

What safety regulations apply to military and civilian?

95
Q

“use test” (PFT used for COPD/Asthma)

A

What is the gold standard for respiratory testing?

96
Q

> 85dB for 8 hrs, or 140 dB peak

A

When is a hearing conservation program indicated annually?

97
Q
  • Lead (inorganic). - Ethylene oxide. - Ionizing radiation. - Waste anesthetic gases. - Mercury (note: evaluation of workplace upon request)
A

What is known to cause spontaneous abortion?

98
Q

Check with supervisor to see if restriction is appropriate or defer the worker from the job

A

IF job description indicates exposure to a teratogenic, fetotoxic or reproductive toxic substance and IF worker indicates current attempts to conceive or Female worker currently pregnant or breastfeeding you should?

99
Q

number of new cases in a well mixed population

A

What does the basic reproduction number (R0) represent in herd immunity?

100
Q

contaminated water

A

What can leave an entire unit incapable of conducting successful operations?

101
Q

centrifugal rash (trunk to limbs)

A

The hallmark of epidemic typhus includes what that occurs several days after fever, severe headache, and malaise?

102
Q

latent period is shorter than incubation period

A

Why does subclinical disease occur?

103
Q

mild may use loperamide/ bismuth moderate may use loperamide may use antibiotic Severe may use loperamide w/ non-dysentery use AB severe dysentery use AB *Multiplex molecular diagnostic for chronic cases

A

How is travelers diarrhea treated?

MPH-ADAM (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions