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mpharm year 3 sem 1 > MP321 week 1 > Flashcards

MP321 week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

name the six services provided by community pharmacies under the NHS

A

-dispensing
- minor ailment/ pharmacy first
-medicines care review (aka chronic medication service)
-prescribing
-patient counselling
-polypharmacy reviews

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2
Q

name 5 signs and symptoms of infection

A

-redness/ change in skin colour (inflammation)
-pain
-heat
-swelling
-loss of function

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3
Q

clinical assessment for infection (7)

A

-temperature
-tachycardia
-tachypnoea
-white cell count (below 4, above 11)
-hypotension
-hyperglycaemia
-swollen lymph nodes

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4
Q

define tachycardia

A

raised heart rate (over 100bpm)

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5
Q

define tachypnoea

A

rapid breathing over 20 breaths per minute

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6
Q

define hyperglycaemia

A

high blood sugar

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7
Q

define hypotension

A

low blood pressure (less than 90/60)

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8
Q

clinical signs related to specific infections (7)

A

-increased sputum volume/ increased sputum purulence
-pus/ exudates
-rashes
-cough
-pain on urination
-nasal congestion
-sore throat

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9
Q

define SIRS

A

systemic inflammatory response syndrome

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10
Q

SIRS criteria (4)

A
  • temperature below 36 or above 38
    -pulse greater than 90 bpm
    -respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per min
    -white cell count less than 4 or greater than 11
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11
Q

sepsis

A

one SIRS criteria
documented infection

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12
Q

documented infection (7)

A
  • a host response to the presence of micro-organisms or tissue invasion by microorganisms
    -cellulitis
    -purulent sputum
    -x-ray changes in the lung
    -redness
    -swelling
    -heat
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13
Q

patient factors for infection

A

-age (extremes, very old and very young are more susceptible to infection)
-other conditions or illnesses
-nutritional status
-compromised immune system
-medications (some meds can mimic signs of infection)

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14
Q

exogenous source of infection

A

(outside the body)
via host or from environment- food, water, soil, coughing and sneezing

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15
Q

endogenous source of infection

A

normal flora from another part of the body- skin pathogens, gut pathogens

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16
Q

blood cultures

A
  • different sites
    -taken while patient is pyrexial (high temperature)
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17
Q

urine sample

A

should be taken mid stream

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18
Q

swab samples

A

-wounds
-eyes
-throat
-nose

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19
Q

what happens to samples at the lab

A

-agar plates
-stains (gram stain, Ziehl-Neelsen)
-confirmatory tests (oxidase/catalase)
-selective media
-viral cultures
-PCR
-ELISA tests

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20
Q

sensitivity testing

A

tests for sensitivity or resistance to a selection of potential treatments

-guides the continuing therapy for treating the patient
-national and local sensitivity/ resistance patterns
-guides the development of local formularies

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21
Q

modified early warning system (MEWS)

A

a scoring system to help determine if a patient has infection or not (used in hospital)

a score of 0 is good, no infection likely

if a score of 4 or more, the ward doctor is informed- this is concerning- infection serious

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22
Q

SEWS

A

MEWS but for surgical ward

score of 4 or more - contact doctor for review
score of 6 or more- urgent review

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23
Q

what is CURB-65

A

assessment of pneumonia
how likely the patient is to die of this pneumonia

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24
Q

monitoring infection

A

all diagnostic parameters are used for monitoring

frequency of monitoring depends on the severity of infection

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25
Q

ectoparasites- live where?

A

outside the body

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26
Q

large complex multicellular organism. parasites as they attach to the body and take a blood meal. rely on humans to get nutrients and survive and reproduce

A

ectoparasites

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27
Q

example of ectoparasite

A

-head lice (pedicures humanus capitis)
-scabies (sarcoptes scabei)
-body lice (pediculus corporals)
-pubic lice (phthirus pubis)
-dust mites (Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus)
-ticks
fleas

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28
Q

pedicures humanus capitis

A

head lice

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29
Q

head lice

A

-wingless insects, very common in school ages children
-transferred by hair to hair contact (they don’t jump)
-female cement pinhead-sized eggs to the hairs near the root- scalp keeps them warm
-hatch ~9 days (white ‘nit’ stage) but initially remain attached to hair, later begin feeding by biting scalp + drawing blood (causes inflammation)
- in another 9-10 days they are fully matured- females can lay more eggs

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30
Q

head lice treatment

A

0.2-0.3 comb
lotion

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31
Q

scarcoptes scabei

A

scabies

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32
Q

scabies

A
  • small mites which burrow into skin
    -contagious skin infestation
    -symptoms- result of allergic reaction
    -most common symptom- itchy pimple-like rash
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33
Q

scabies treatment

A

-ivermectin
-permithrin

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34
Q

ectoparasites can be vectors for infection eg

A

-mosquitoes (malaria, dengue, yellow fever, zika)
-ticks (Lyme disease, typhus, encephalitis)
-fleas (typhus)
-sandfly (leishmania - protozoal infection)
-tsetse fly (sleeping sickness)
-reduvid bug (chagas disease)
-simulum fly (onchocerciasis)

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35
Q

endoparasites- live where

A

inside the body

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36
Q

helminth worms

A

-many types of worms, only a few are parasitic in humans
- worms are heard to treat and cause great suffering (global)
-3 classes- roundworms (most common), tapeworms, trematodes (least common)
- tend to go under a sexual cycle- outside the human body
-they depend on the human body to provide nutrients

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37
Q

ascaris roundworm- live stages

A

-adult stage in the gut
-shed eggs into faeces
-fertilised outside body
-as it forms larvae it is re-ingested the hatches in the gut
-break into gut wall
-imbed and migrate through the bloodstream
-can move to lungs, where they are coughed up and re swallowed then go to gut and grow to full size

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38
Q

intestinal nematodes

A

often cause diarrhoea, rich and anaemia
usually acquired orally or through skin, transmitted but faeces

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39
Q

roundworms (nematode)

A

-Strongyloides (threadworm) can migrate to lungs
-Trichuris (whipworm)
-Ascaris (roundworm) migrates to liver, heart, lung and back to gut. Some patients carry 1000+ worms, females worms can lay 200,000 eggs daily
-Enterobius (pinworm)
-Necator and Ancylostoma (hookworms)
-Trichostrongylus: mild intestinal symptoms but very common

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40
Q

extra intestinal nematodes

A

-Trichinella (trichinosis) – present in infected meat, cysts in muscle.
-Dracunculus (guinea worm) can grow up to 1 metre long in the skin
-Larva migrans (disease eruption can occur in a variety of tissues when invaded by larvae of roundworms )

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41
Q

causes of transmission of roundworms

A

sharing water - bathing/ drinking

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42
Q

tapeworms- cestodes

A

flat segmented worms containing both male and female organs

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43
Q

tapeworms- Epinococcus granulosus:

A

Adult worms are found in gut of dogs.
There they produce eggs (excreted in faeces) which can remain viable for up to a year.
Found in dog fur, dog leads and on tongues of infected dogs
- Ingested eggs release larvae when in the gut, and larval (hydatid) cysts can then be found in liver and other tissues in humans and sheep. The cysts can be very large (litres of fluid) and contain many immature larvae, causing major problems when they burst.

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44
Q

Taenia solium (pork tapeworm)

A

Pigs become infected by swallowing eggs present in human faeces.
-Humans then ingest uncooked pork meat (or through not washing hands) and in the duodenum the ingested eggs release larvae.
-The larvae are carried in blood to muscle, CNS and the eye where they get encysted and cause pain and neurological problems such as epilepsy

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45
Q

cysticercosis

A

-tissue infection- caused by young form of pork tapeworm
-acquired by eating contaminated food or water
-transmitted through oral-faecal route
-eggs enter intestine and develop into larvae
-larvae enters bloodstream and invade tissues & develop into cysts
-1000 hospitalisations per year (USA)
-taenia solium tapeworm- lives in human tissues like brain and muscles
-larval castes found in uncooked pork

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46
Q

guinea worm

A

-among longest nematode infecting humans
-on target to be second infection disease of humans to be eradicated
-endemic in only 5 countries in Africa

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47
Q

filarial (extra intestinal) nematodes

A

-Thread like worms, 200- 300 microns long when adult and about one red blood cell wide transmitted by an insect vector (fly or mosquito) takes a blood meal.
-Usually have an insect stage in which the larvae develops
-Injected larvae migrate to specific tissues, e.g. skin, lungs lymphatics – matures to adults (forming skin nodules) and after a sexual stage produce microfilariae.
-The microfilariae migrate to particular tissues depending upon the species involved, giving rise to pathogenesis as they mature to microlarval stage.
-Wuchereria bancroft : microfilarial blockage of lymphatic ducts leading to elephantiasis. Affects over 120 million people throughout the tropics and subtropics
-Onchocerca volvulus: larval migration to the eye causing river blindness. 300 million at risk in Sub-Saharan Africa, parts of Arabia and S. America. 37 million cases annually, 300,000 cases of permanent blindness.
-These diseases are on the list of neglected diseases and more research is needed.
-so small can be injected by insects taking a blood meal
-as insects take a blood meal they inject anticoagulants and the parasite

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48
Q

Flukes (Multicellular Trematodes)

A

-Adult flukes mainly reside in blood (veins), gut or lungs.
-They have complex life cycles, but essentially, adult flukes produce eggs which become encysted when present in the liver or other tissues such as bladder, lung, CNS. Reaction to the presence of the eggs causes pathological changes in the infected tissues.

-In Schistosomiasis, Eggs are also released via faeces or urine into water, where the parasite is taken up by snails. The snail then releases a form of larva (cercaria) which can penetrate skin and thus infect persons coming into contact with infected water.

Examples:
Schistostoma mansoni:
-encysted eggs present in the liver can cause fatal cirrhosis.
-transmitted in water
-prevalent in agriculture and fishing communities
-infestation causes gut and urogenital issues
-immune response causes inflammation in infected tissues

Fasciola hepatica: (Sheep liver fluke – can also infect humans)

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49
Q

liver fluke (fasciola hepatica)

A

-penetrate through the colon wall and go to the liver via hepatic portal vein
-causes cirrhosis (liver damage) - jaundice among other complications

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50
Q

protozoal infections

A

-single cell organisms that infest inside the body
-can be extracellular/ intracellular
-very successful at evading Immune system
-
Single cell eukaryote -cellular organelles and membraned bound nucleus. More complex than bacteria which don’t have nuclear membrane

Sexual and asexual reproduction

Can be ingested or transmitted by blood transfusion, open wound in an aqueous environment or injected by ectoparasites in a blood meal

-Able to hide from the immune system (red blood cells like in malaria). Can change surface coat at a fast rate to evade the immune system. Therefore it is hard to develop vaccines, particularly against malaria

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51
Q

waterborne protozoal infections

A

-giardia lamblia
-entamoeba histolytica
-trichomonas

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52
Q

giardia lamblia

A

-causes diarrhoea and dysentery (diarrhoea with blood/mucous
-can be in reservoirs in UK
-usually spread from animal source
-causes GI upset

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53
Q

entamoeba histolytica

A

-causes amoebic dysentery
-can be asymptomatic but may cause severe bloody diarrhoea
-can gain entry to other tissues-abscesses in the brain

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54
Q

trichomonas

A

-infect urinogenital tract
-can cause vaginitis
-is a sexually transmitted disease
-only 30% of patients have symptoms of itching or burning with urnination

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55
Q

insect borne protozoal infections

A

-Trypanosoma
-Leishmania
-Toxoplasmosis
-Plasmodium

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56
Q

Trypanosoma

A

-transmitted by tsetse fly vector
-sleeping sickness
-extracellular in blood first, then CNS or heart depending on species
-brain infection causes neuronal damage and sleeping sickness

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57
Q

Leishmania

A

-transmitted by sand fly
-resides intracellularly in macrophages (evasion of immune system)
-causes skin sores
-may also cause lysis of WBC, more immunodeficient
-can be fatal

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58
Q

Toxoplasmosis

A

-very common
-cat faeces is major source
-some people tolerate well, lots have antibodies by
-may also cause foetal damage and schizophrenia

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59
Q

Plasmodium

A

-cause of malaria
-intracellular
-spread by mosquitos

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60
Q

malaria

A

-protozoal infection
-potentially fatal
-belongs to plasmodium group
-untreated- results in cyclic fever and chills, destruction of RBCs and sometimes blockage of cerebral blood vessels (can cause disability and death)
-1.5-3 million deaths annually

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61
Q

sporozoite (malaria)

A
  • the form that is injected from mosquito
    -thread like
    -reside in mosquito salivary gland
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62
Q

malaria life cycles

A

-rapidly move to liver and form a cyst, other go into liver cells and divide rapidly
-burst open from hepatocytes
-merozoites are enow ready to infect RBCs
-release secretory granules and processed haemoglobin- thesis cause fever
-merozoites can reinfect RBCs- thesis are then ingested in mosquito blood meal and cycle continues

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63
Q

viruses

A

-parasites
-non-living
-obligate intracellular parasites
-hijack cellular processed to produce virally encoded proteins and replicate genetic material
-possess own genetic info
-no metabolism
-infect all types of cellular organisms
-can be associated with increased risk of cancer
-cannot reproduce themselves (rely on host machinery)
-

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64
Q

RNA viruses

A

needs to be reverse transcribed into DNA for tar virus to reproduce in the cell

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65
Q

examples of human viruses as their transmission routes

A

Polio, Hepatitis A: faecal-oral route (human faeces used as fertiliser, poor hand washing. Shed in faeces, getting into food or drink to gain entry into the body)

Rabies: Bite of infected animal
Human Papilloma virus (warts): skin contact
Herpes 1&2, HPV, Hepatitis B, HIV : Sexual transmission
Ebola: All body fluids and tissues (many strains- a few associated with increased risk of cervical cancer)
Influenza, colds, measles, mumps, rubella: Respiratory
Yellow Fever, Dengue Fever, Chikungunya Virus: Insect vectors
COVID-19 (SARS-CoV-2): A Corona virus which can cause Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

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66
Q

viral structure

A

-diverse sizes, shapes and chemical composition
-nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat
-mainly rod shaped with helical nucleic acid or icosahedral with spherical nucleic acids
-Core-genetic material, can be DNA or RNA. If RNA it is a retrovirus because to needs to be reverse transcribed to DNA for replication
Most viruses are encapsulated- capsid
-Glycoprotein spikes- are important for binging/docking onto the target on cell surface to invade the cell. Good targets for vaccines
Can contain viral enzymes to help viruses replicate

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67
Q

viral genome

A
  • DNA or RNA
    -single or double stranded
    -linear or circular
    -genome is very small
    -encodes functions required for replication once within the host cell
    -RNA genome is associated with. higher mutation rater
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68
Q

RBD

A

receptor binding domain of the spike protein which engages the ACE 2 receptor target

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69
Q

viral replication

A

-attachment
-penetration
-synthesis of nucleic acid and protein
-RNA viruses use a reverse transcriptase (retro virus)
-assembly and packaging (maturation)
-release

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70
Q

prion protein diseases

A

-transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs)
-rare, fatal neurodegenerative diseases belonging to amyloid group
-affecting humans, agricultural, zoo and wild animals
-Genetic, sporadic and infectious aetiologies
-Can have lengthy incubation periods (> 40 years!)
-Clinically characterised by dementia and ataxia
-Pathology characterised by neuronal loss, gliosis and spongiform change in the brain.
-No classical host immune response

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71
Q

a protein only infectious agent

A

“Prions are transmissible particles that are devoid of nucleic acid and seem to be composed entirely of a modified protein (PrPSc).”
“The normal, cellular PrP (PrPC) is converted into PrPSc through a post-translational process during which it acquires a high b-sheet content.”
“In contrast to pathogens carrying a nucleic acid genome, prions appear to encipher strain-specific properties in the tertiary structure of PrPSc.”

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72
Q

structure of PrPc

A

-normal cellular isoform
-3% beta sheet
-monomeric and soluble
-protease sensitive (PrPsin)
-neuroprotective
-easy to breakdown into amino acids to clear excess protein
-protective against oxidative stress

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73
Q

structure of PrPsc

A

-disease-associated isoform
-43% beta sheet
-aggregated and insoluble
-partially protease resistant (PrPres)
-more beta pleated sheet
-becomes hard to break down the misfiled protein so it accumulates as an aggregate
-kills the cells
-not only toxic by themselves but recruit normal protein an act as template to fold them into abnormal shape

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74
Q

characteristic TSE neuropathology

A

-haematoxylin (nuclei) and eosin (cytoplasm) (HE) (healthy neutron with some white matter tissue)(gaps/holes in the tissue where cells have died)
-glial fibrillary acidic protein (a marker of astrocytic gliosis) (GFAP)(astrocyte marker)(cells present in areas of cell loss)
-PrP prion protein- detected by antibody (brown)(accumulation of prion protein in the holes)

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75
Q

are fungi eukaryote or prokaryote

A

eukaryote

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76
Q

large cell, organelles present, multiple linear chromosomes

A

eukaryotes

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77
Q

small cells, with no organelles and only one circular chromosome/ plasmid

A

prokaryote

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78
Q

what helps a bacterium to move around and be mobile

A

flagellum

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79
Q

what do pili do on bacteria

A

help them adhere to surfaces

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80
Q

why do you need a medium when culturing microbes

A

to has nutrients etc which are essential to the growth of microbes

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81
Q

define CFU (in culturing microbes)

A

colony forming units

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82
Q

why are colony forming units (CFUs) important

A

help determine if it is a bacteria or fungi

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83
Q

what type of growth media inhibits some microbes

A

selective

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84
Q

what type of growth media contains pH indicators / dyes

A

differential

85
Q

what colour will bacteria that use lactose be

A

red

86
Q

what colour will bacteria that do not use lactose be

A

yellow

87
Q

latin for round cell

A

coccus

88
Q

chain like bacteria

A

streptococcus

89
Q

clump like bacteria

A

staphylococcus

90
Q

what colour is gram positive

A

purple
Positive Purple

91
Q

what colour is gram negative

A

pink
Negative piNk

92
Q

rectangle shaped bacteria are called

A

rod

93
Q

what dye is used in grams bacteria staining

A

crystal violet

94
Q

steps of gram staining (3)

A

-crystal violet stain is put on
-alcohol is used to remove stain from gram negative cells
-a second (pink) dye is applied and this only coats gram negative cells

95
Q

what is the layer called which gram positive bacteria have that traps the dye

A

peptidoglycan

96
Q

what is a peptidoglycan layer made of

A

peptides and sugars

97
Q

how many cytoplasmic membranes do gram negative bacteria have

A

2

98
Q

what are the small holes in gram negative bacterias outer membrane called

A

porins

99
Q

what type of molecule do porins let through

A

small hydrophilic molecule

100
Q

name 3 gram positive cocci

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes
Enterococcus faecalis

101
Q

name 2 gram negative cocci

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Neisseria meningitidis

102
Q

name 4 gram positive rods

A

Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium difficile Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani

103
Q

name 4 gram negative rods

A

Escherichia coli Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae

104
Q

what has a very unique cell wall, rod shaped and will appear pink under microscope

A

mycobacteria

105
Q

name two examples of mycobacteria

A

tuberculosis
leprae (causes leprosy)

106
Q

what cell part do some bacteria have to help protect them against drugs, disinfectants etc

A

capsule

107
Q

what are bacteria capsules made of

A

sugars

108
Q

name 4 gram negative bacteria that have capsules

A

E.coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria meningitidis

109
Q

name 4 gram positive bacteria with capsules

A

Streptococcus pyogenes,
S. pneumoniae,
S. agalactiae,
S. mutans

110
Q

name one fungi with a capsule

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

111
Q

what is it called when bacteria go into dormancy when conditions are not favourable for them

A

endospore

112
Q

name 3 bacteria with endospores

A

All Clostridium species
Bacillusanthracis
Bacilluscereus

113
Q

name the 2 categories of fungi

A

yeast and mould

114
Q

are yeasts unicellular or multicellular

A

unicellular

115
Q

are moulds unicellular or multicellular

A

multicellular

116
Q

define mycelium

A

large spread of mould- circular spread with noticeable centre

117
Q

what connects spores to hyphae

A

philalide

118
Q

define sporangium

A

pack of spores

119
Q

what yeast can cause oral/genital infections

A

Candida albicans

120
Q

what mould can cause aspergillosis

A

Aspergillus

121
Q

define HAI

A

healthcare associated infection

122
Q

name the 3 most common HAIs

A

UTI
respiratory tract infection
surgical site infection

123
Q

name the 3 most common pathogens associated with HAIs

A

Enterobacteriaceae e.g. E. coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium difficile

124
Q

what is the location where possible pathogens may live and multiply called

A

reservoir

125
Q

name some exits from reservoir (10)

A

ear wax
broken or infected skin
skin flakes
anus (faeces)
semen
urine
vaginal secretions
breast milk
nose secretions
eyes (tears)

126
Q

portal of entry into body (8)

A

-broken skin
-insect bites
-anus
-vagina
-penis
-mouth
-nose
-conjunctiva of eyes

127
Q

one downfall of common alcohol disinfectants

A

limited contact time due to rapid evaporation

128
Q

name a common skin disinfectant

A

iodine

129
Q

QACs

A

benzalkonium chloride
cetrimide
cetylpyridinium chloride

130
Q

how do QACs work

A

absorb and penetrate the cytoplasmic membrane

131
Q

name 6 factors that increase a persons risk of infection

A

age
immune status
genetics
concurrent co-morbidities
nutritional status
behaviours

132
Q

name 6 societal barriers to disease

A

clean water
waste disposal
hygienic food prep (refrigeration)
hand washing
condoms
social distancing

133
Q

name 6 physical barriers to infection (first line)

A

skin
mucous membranes( mouth, nose)
eyes (lysosome)
respiratory tract (mucous)
urogenital tract (flushing)
microbiome (normal bacteria on or in the body)

134
Q

name 3 chemical barrier to infection (first line)

A

stomach acid
urogenital tract (acidity)
digestive tract (stomach acid, pancreatic enzymes, bile)

135
Q

name 3 ways of defeating external defences

A

water borne
injury
insect bite

136
Q

what are pyrogens

A

peptides secreted by leukocytes

137
Q

where do pyrogens act

A

hypothalamus - causing fever which may inhibit iron uptake by some bacteria

138
Q

what are interferons

A

proteins which interfere with viral replication
chemical mediator of inflammation

139
Q

what are complements

A

non specific plasma proteins that destroy cells
an integral part of specific immune response

140
Q

what are phagocytes

A

omnivorous scavengers
detect foreign material and digest it

141
Q

what are neutrophils

A

first responder at site of infection

142
Q

where are neutrophils found

A

in blood and tissues

143
Q

what are monocytes

A

roaming mononuclear phagocytes in the blood
differentiate into macrophages in connective tissue

144
Q

what are ‘fixed’ phagocytes

A

organ specific phagocytes which do not roam

145
Q

give 2 examples of ‘fixed phagocytes and where they are found

A

osteoclasts- bone marrow
microglia- CNS (maintain homeostasis)

146
Q

what are dendritic cells

A

derived from monocytes
early warning cells
digest trapped antigens and present them to other cells in the immune system in the context of MHC (major histocompatibility complex)

147
Q

name the 5 types of amoeboid-like phagocytes

A

neutrophils
monocytes
‘fixed’ phagocytes
microglia
dendritic cells

148
Q

what are the 2 stages of antimicrobial function of phagocytosis

A

neutrophils engulf the microbes
microbes are internalised in phagosomes and broken down in phagolysosomes

149
Q

define chemotaxis

A

chemical attractants from invading bacteria and tissue leukocytes attract local neutrophils and monocytes from the bloodstream

150
Q

define diapedesis

A

mast cells and basophils release histamine making the blood vessel permeable and allowing cells through

151
Q

state the 5 steps of diapedesis in local infection

A

pathogen enters tissue
resident immune cells cause inflammation
mast cells release histamine (makes endothelium more permeable)
circulating monocytes attracted by chemotaxis
monocytes enter tissue by diapedesis and differentiate into macrophages

152
Q

define antigen

A

substances recognised by the immune system as being ‘non-self’ and which provoke an immune response

153
Q

define epitope

A

one molecule may have several antigenic determinant sites, each individual one is called an epitope

154
Q

define hapten

A

some low molecular weight compounds are able to bind to antibodies but done cause an immune response unless bound to a carrier molecule like a protein

155
Q

state 2 examples of haptens

A

urushiol (poison ivy)
penicillin

156
Q

name 2 methods of specific antigen elimination

A

humoral
cell-mediated

157
Q

humoral antigen elimination

A

antibody mediated
act indirectly

see lecture 6 slides for more info

158
Q

name the 5 antibody classifications

A

IgM
IgD
IgG
IgA
IgE

(MADGE)- see lecture 6 slides for more info

159
Q

name the 3 ways antibodies eliminate antigens

A

opsonisation
neutralisation
complement activation

160
Q

define opsonin

A

a protein which promotes opsonisation

161
Q

define opsonisation

A

promotion of phagocytosis

162
Q

define neutralisation

A

the neutralisation of a pathogen by an antibody

163
Q

complement proteins and activation

A

can be activated :
-in response to antigen-antibody complexes
or
-in the presence of bacterial surface molecules

each complement protein in the cascade cleaves its successor

the products of each cleavage either embed in the membrane or go off to activate other systems

components assemble together to form a pore

the pore allows high concentration of calcium to accumulate in the cells and destroy them

look at lecture 6 slides for more info

163
Q

complement proteins and activation

A

can be activated :
-in response to antigen-antibody complexes
or
-in the presence of bacterial surface molecules

each complement protein in the cascade cleaves its successor

the products of each cleavage either embed in the membrane or go off to activate other systems

components assemble together to form a pore

the pore allows high concentration of calcium to accumulate in the cells and destroy them

look at lecture 6 slides for more info

164
Q

cell mediated specific antigen elimination

A

cells are ultimately responsible fora antigen elimination

requires cell to cell contact

three main types of lymphocytes involved - B-cells, T-cells and natural killer (NK cells)

165
Q

B-cells

A

mature in bone marrow
when stimulated produce antibodies
can differentiate into plasma cells
plasma B produce antibodies
memory B lead secondary immune response
activated when free antigens bind to immunoglobulin receptors on B cell surface

166
Q

T-cells

A

mature in thymus
2 important subtypes- cytotoxic and helper

167
Q

natural killer cells

A

kill virus infected / cancerous cells

168
Q

clonal proliferation

A

1- a specific antigen binds to a naive B cell via Ig-R activating it
2- T cell moves to the B cell and activates it
3- activated B cell proliferates
4- most differentiate into antibody producing plasma cells
5- some into memory cells

169
Q

what do helper T cells do

A

release interleukins and activate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells, activate B cells and help recruit neutrophils and macrophages

170
Q

what do regulatory T cells do

A

act to dampen immune response

171
Q

what do memory T cells do

A

increase longevity of immunity

172
Q

what do cytotoxic ‘killer’ T cells (and NK cells) do

A

directly kill infected cells

173
Q

T cell activation

A

-required peptide antigens to be presented to the ‘Ig-like’ T cell receptors (TCRs) on the T cell surface
-this is done by an antigen presenting cell in the context of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins
-class 1 MHC proteins activate CD8 and cytotoxic T cells
-class 2 MHC proteins activate CD4 and helper T cells

174
Q

Th- cell and B-cell interaction

A

-activated Th cell seeks out a B cell (in lymph nodes) which recognises the same antigen
-when activated Th cell finds a B cell that also recognises its peptide antigen, they dock together forming an immunological synapse
-the Th cell releases cytokines which stimulate further B cell production of antibodies (IgE)
-the two cells also differentiate and secrete interleukins proliferating the B-cell population

175
Q

describe the difference between cellular and humeral immunity

A

The major difference between humoral and cell-mediated immunity is that humoral immunity produces antigen-specific antibodies, whereas cell-mediated immunity does not.

176
Q

define apyrexial

A

without fever (over 37, under 38)

177
Q

define hypertensive

A

high blood pressure over 120/100

178
Q

define hypotension

A

low blood pressure below 90/60

179
Q

define neutropenia

A

low neutrophils (white blood cells) less than 2, normal range is 4-11

180
Q

define pyrexia

A

fever, temp over 38

181
Q

define rigours

A

a sudden feeling of cold and shivering with a fever- hot and cold feelings alternating rapidly

182
Q

define tachycardia

A

heart rate over 100bpm

183
Q

define tachypnoea

A

rapid breathing - normal is 12-14, above 20 is tachypnoeic

184
Q

define erythema

A

redness of the skin- important to consider skin colour, the lighter the skin the easier to see redness

185
Q

normal haemoglobin range for men

A

14-17 grams per deciliter

186
Q

normal haemoglobin rangefor women

A

12-15 grams per deciliter

187
Q

what is pyelonephritis

A

kidney infection

188
Q

what is the colon doing or not doing when diarrhoea occurs

A

the colon is not removing enough water from the faecal matter

189
Q

give an example of a common colon bacteria

A

E.coli

190
Q

nappy rash treatment

A
  • keep area clean and dry
    -apply nappy rash ointment like sudocrem or metanium
191
Q
  1. A parent brings in their 13 month old child to your community pharmacy to ask if you would look at a severe rash that developed on the buttocks of the child has developed after 36 hours of diarrhoea. You take them into the consultation room to inspect the affected skin but have to use baby wipes to cleanse the skin of diarrhoeal residue prior to inspection.
A

diarrhoea and nappy rash

192
Q
  1. A 79 year old lady presents at your pharmacy stating that a painful unilateral (relating to only one area) rash with blisters has developed across her upper torso over a 48hr period and asks if you could inspect the affected area.
A

shingles

193
Q

shingles treatment

A

acyclovir 800mg tablets 5x daily for 5 days

194
Q
  1. An 18year old male presents complaining of an uncomfortable itchy red, scaly, flaky rash with small blisters that appears to be restricted to the skin surfaces between toes. He is a keen amateur footballer.
A

athletes foot

195
Q

athletes foot treatment

A

miconazole cream twice daily
keep feet clean and dry

196
Q
  1. A 32yr old female presents with atopic eczema presents at the pharmacy with very inflamed skins folds on her left elbow with signs of excoriations and fissures and visible golden crusting, oozing, pustulation and appreciable erythema of the surrounding normal skin. She confesses that her eczema has flared up over the past few days and that she has been scratching the area very frequently due to the severe itch.
A

staphylococcus aureus infection via broken skin from itching

197
Q

staphylococcus aureus skin infection treatment

A

flucloxacililin 500mg 4x daily for 5 days
maybe also steroid cream to help with inflammation

198
Q

what can flucloxacillin cause

A

cholestatic jaundice

199
Q

good antihistamine for itching? and dose

A

chlorphenamine 4mg every 4-6 hours, max 24mg per day

200
Q
  1. An 85yr old male was admitted into hospital with severe community acquired pneumonia. He has been treated with intravenous antibiotic therapy (clarithromycin 500 mg 12 hourly and co-amoxiclav 1.2 g 8 hourly) for the past 72hrs but has started to experience painful abdominal cramps with watery diarrhoea.
A

c.difficle infection

201
Q

what kind of medication causes a higher risk of C.difficle

A

PPI ie omeprazole

202
Q

the 4 Cs of antibiotics

A

clindamycin
co-amoxiclav
cephalosporins
ciprofloxacin

203
Q

what do the 4Cs increase the risk of

A

c. difficle infection

204
Q

what age group is more likely to get C.difficle infection

A

over 60

205
Q

treatment for C.difficle infection

A

vancomycin 125mg every 6 hours for 10 days

206
Q

streptococcus: shape?, how long can it survive?, gram?

A

coccus- round
can survive on dry surfaces for 3 days to 6.5 months
gram positive

207
Q

escherichia coli: shape?, how long can it survive?

A

rod
can survive for up to 16 months on dry, inanimate surfaces
gram negative

208
Q

name 4 disinfectants, what they target and how they work

A

ethanol- active against negative forms of bacteria, fungi and coated viruses,
hypochlorus acid- active against bacteria, fungi and coated and uncoated viruses
iodine - active against bacteria, fungi, spores and viruses
hydrogen peroxide- active against bacteria, fungi and viruses, inactivated by organic matter, exert antimicrobial effects through generation of hydroxyl free radicals

mpharm year 3 sem 1 (10 decks)

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