MP Flashcards

1
Q

MPD Values

A

Trust, Accountability, Professional Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MPD Goals

A

Public Safety, Justice, Employee Wellness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pillars of Procedural Justice

A

Voice, Neutrality, Respect, Trustworthiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Difference between Personnel Orders and Special Orders

A

Personnel- New Hires, Transfers, Promotions, etc
Special Duty- New, revised, or deleted policy and procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When can an employee disobey a supervisor order?

A

Would jeopardize the employee’s health or safety
Violates laws or policy
Has other information that conflicts with the order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What rank must approve relieving someone of duty?

A

Deputy Chief or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Early Intervention System?

A

Gives employee advance notice that they are not meeting MPD standard
Allows opportunity to fix performance before discipline is given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who investigates violations of Policy and Procedure?

A

IA and OPCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who investigates workplace harassment, discrimination, and retaliation?

A

IA and HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a Garrity statement?

A

Statement given as condition of employment, cannot be used in any criminal proceedings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who does a supervisor contact if made aware of Harassment, Discrimination, or Retaliation?

A

Document and send memo to HR and IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Do employees have a right to challenge a yearly eval?

A

Yes, can speak with the 2nd level supervisor to challenge it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How often do supervisors hold uniform inspections?

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many rings can an employee wear per hand?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Are earrings or necklaces allowed for employees?

A

One earring per ear, cannot dangle. No visible necklaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who must wear hash marks and stars on uniform?

A

Sgt and above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the rank insignia for Chaplains? Commanders? Inspectors? DCs? AC? Chief?

A

Chaplains and Commanders- Gold Oak Leaf
Inspector- Gold Eagle
DC- 2 Gold Stars
AC- 3 Gold Stars
Chief- 4 Gold Stars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain the limitation on hours worked

A

160 hours total worked in a pay period
One full 24 hour day off per pay period
8 consecutive hours off every 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If exceeding ____ hours worked (counting both on and off duty) in a week, must notify Pct Commander.

A

64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What must a supervisor do if they receive a subpoena for an employee who is off for more than 5 days?

A

Make phone contact with employee notifying of subpoena, interoffice mail receipt within 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When must OT be entered?

A

End of shift prior to leaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How far in advance does Off Duty time need to be entered?

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who needs to be notified if supervisor wants to conduct drug or alcohol testing on an employee?

A

IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can employees refuse drug or alcohol testing?

A

Yes, but subject to discipline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who should be assigned to employee if drug / alcohol testing will occur?

A

Escort officer, who ensures no eating, drinking, smoking, or bathroom prior to testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many squads shall be working the street during roll call?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How is Roll Call handled if multiple Sgts are scheduled to work?

A

1 Sgt comes in early to prep, the rest work regular shift hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How often must officers and supervisors inspect squads?

A

Officer- every shift
Supervisor- once a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does an employee do if any lost or damaged city equipment?

A

Notify a supervisor, employee responsible for report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How long does an employee have to file a clam for damaged personal equipment?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Up to what value will personal watches and jewelry potentially be reimbursed if damaged at work?

A

$100.00

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is needed for a Reimbursement claim?

A

Some sort of PIMS report or written memo
Attached copies of payment or receipts
Keep the damaged equipment to be inspected, if requested
Forward all documentation to Police Admin, Claims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If you have 2 separate scenes being documented on a digital camera, how many SD cards are needed?

A

2, once for each CCN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What program is used to download photos and format SD cards?

A

DIMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who is responsible for SD card supply?

A

Pct Inspector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who can load and unload MVR tapes from squad trunks?

A

Supervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When does a warning light come on indicating an MVR tape is nearly full, and what must be done?

A

30 minutes, immediately notify a supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is done with full MVR tapes?

A

Tapes with evidentiary value are taken to P&E. Tapes with non-evidentiary value are kept for 1 year and then reused.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many times can an MVR tape be re-used?

A

3 times, then destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Who handles MVR tape duplication?

A

Crime lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What sort of locations can officers arrive on scene with BWC powered off to ensure privacy?

A

Domestic / Sexual violence centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What should an officer do if victim does not want BWC active during interview?

A

First ask if it can be used to record audio only, but can be fully deactivated at victim’s wish.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who gives the authority to deactivate BWC at critical incidents?

A

The IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How long is non-evidence BWC stored for? Citizen Complaints? Other evidence?

A

Non-evidence- 1 year
Citizen complaints- 3 years
Other evidence- 7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When can BWC be reviewed after a critical incident?

A

Only after initial report / statement, with Chief approval. Original report shall not be modified after viewing, but a supplement can be added.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How soon does off-duty BWC need to be uploaded, if there is no force or anything else of note?

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Where do public requests for BWC get sent to?

A

Records Information Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Who does Training Unit need approval from prior to showing BWC at a training?

A

DC, however training can view BWC for training planning purposes without approval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What sort of things are covered for Travel Reimbursement?

A

Hotel Room
Registration Fees
Transportation costs
Rental car (if pre-approved)
Gas receipts
Airline ticket
Baggage fee for 1 bag (unless for command school, or longer than 3 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Who needs to approve MPD vehicles used for out of city travel?

A

Fleet manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Who does an employee report rental vehicle damage to?

A

Training unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Who does an employee report MPD vehicle damage to when out of town?

A

Fleet manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What documentation is needed if flying while armed for work purposes?

A

2 forms (1 for outgoing flight, 1 for return flight), and letter from the Chief is highly recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When can MPD vehicles be left idling?

A

Active call, weather makes it necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If away from assignment for longer than ___ days, take home vehicles must be returned unless exception is made.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How often does a supervisor collect and review gas slips, and who do they send them to?

A

Weekly, forwarded to MPD Equipment Specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is a supervisors role for lost or stolen fuel cards?

A

Conduct initial investigation to find it, supervisor card is used if card cannot be found.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What happens for an officer’s first SQUADA within 1 year? The 2nd? 3rd? (assuming no violations found)

A

1st- Case saved for 1 year, nothing further
2nd- Remedial driver’s training
3rd- IA investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How many documented substandard reports can an employee have before discipline? What level of discipline?

A

5, Class A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How many documented failure to review or approve reports can a supervisor have before discipline? What level of discipine?

A

3, Class A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If a report needs to be modified for any reason after submittal, what steps must be taken?

A

Written request to supervisor of BTU
If approved, changes are made and additional supplement added explaining the change and why needed
The request and original supplement are kept in IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a Daily Activity Report?

A

Completed by both officers and supervisors, logging services provided for the day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the Patrol Performance Chart?

A

Monthly compilation of the Daily Activity Reports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the Code of Conduct Principles?

A

Obey Laws
Truthfulness
Impartiality
Conduct that Discredits
Courtesy and Respect
Avoiding Influence
Conflicts of Interest
Record and Confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What sort of gifts can be accepted? What if a gift cannot be accepted?

A

Can accept gifts of insignificant monetary value. If cannot accept, can be returned, disposed of, or request that City Hall accepts on behalf of the city.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How often do computer passwords need to be changed?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What caution must employees use with personal social media accounts?

A

Cannot use personal accounts in any way indicating that they are speaking on behalf of the city.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Covert social media accounts must be registered with who? Are they audited?

A

Registered with Unit Commander, audited yearly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Define Great Bodily Harm

A

High probability of death, serious permanent disfigurement, loss or impairment of any bodily organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Define Objectively reasonable force

A

Rational and logical to an officer on scene, supported by known facts and circumstances at that time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Define Aggravated Aggressive Resistance

A

Subject’s actions are likely to result in death or great bodily harm to the officer or others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Define Aggressive Resistance

A

Intent to harm officer or others to prevent being taken into custody (think fighting stance, punching, kicking, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the statue number for deadly force?

A

609.066

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the 3 factors that must be met before using deadly force?

A

Specific articulable threat
Threat will occur if law enforcement does not act
Threat must be addressed with deadly force without unreasonable delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How often must officers be trained on Use of Force

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What 3 things are not reportable Use of Force? What if there is complaint of injury

A

Escort Holds
Touch
Handcuffing
-If complaint of injury, becomes reportable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Can officers review BWC on Level 3 Use of Force?

A

Not until after report and statement are done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What sort of force on handcuffed subjects DOES NOT need to be reported to supervisor? (assuming no injury)

A

Escort Holds
Joint manipulation / pressure points
Body weight to pin / control pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Who must a supervisor notify if force is used on subject in handcuffs?

A

Watch Commander, or Commander of IA if no Watch Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Who is contacted if Force appears unreasonable?

A

Commander of IA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Who completes a secondary Force review, and how long before it must be completed?

A

Supervisor at least one rank higher than the involved employee, LT or higher. Must be done within 5 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In addition to the primary and secondary reviews, what sort of force is also reviewed by the DC of IA?

A

Any level 2 involving strikes to the head or neck, and all level 3s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What sort of body weight to pin requires supervisor notification?

A

Body weight on front rib cage area or head
Control pressure on head
Alleged injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the length of time where Taser exposure may increase the risk of injury or death?

A

15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What considerations must be taken before Taser deployment on someone fleeing on foot?

A

Severity of crime, immediate threat, can officer articulate that it will likely not cause significant harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Who must be notified for any firearm discharges? (aside from trainings, recreation, SWAT rounds)

A

Supervisor / Watch Commander, and local jurisdiction if outside of the city

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Who must be notified of all shots fired by officers, and who handles the notification?

A

IA must notify the State

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Who provides loaner handguns after a critical incident?

A

Homicide provides initial loaner, swapped out at range at later time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Can civilians handle firearms at work? Can they carry firearms if conceal / carry?

A

They can as long as trained by range staff to do so as part of their duties. Cannot be armed at work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What if officer fails handgun qualification?

A

Must return for remedial training / retest, cannot carry handgun or work enforcement position until then. If training is failed, possible disciplinary action or termination.
-Same process if employee doesn’t turn up for handgun qualificaiton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Who can request mutual aid response?

A

Mayor
Chief
Deputy Chiefs
Watch Commander
-These same can respond to requests for mutual aid from MPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

If MPD responds to another agency to provide mutual aid, who is responsible for damaged equipment, injury, death, etc?

A

MPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Who is contacted to request National Guard assistance?

A

EOC Commander contacts State Duty Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Who can request Federal resources / aid?

A

Chief or designee, or Watch Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are some restrictions for the Precinct Community rooms?

A

No meetings involving sales of items
No meetings for political groups
No entry fee for participants
No group can have more than 6 meetings in 6 months unless authorized
Meetings can be held between 8a - 10p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Do city employees need to sign a ride along waiver?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the age cut off for ride alongs?

A

16, unless part of a sponsored MPD program and with parent / guardian approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How fast does a squad need to be dispatched to a priority 0 call? 1? 2? 3?

A

0- 30 seconds
1- 70 seconds
2- 45 minutes
3- 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How many squads allowed at the same public location for OTL?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When does animal control work?

A

Mon-Fri- 0730 - 2200
Sat and Sun 0730 - 1700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How do officers handle an animal bite call if AC isn’t available? (assuming a domestic animal)

A

Advise animal control will follow up for the mandatory 10 day quarantine per MPLS ordinance
Advise to seek medical care if needed
Complete ABITE report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

When should a Bias report be completed and who needs to be notified?

A

If officer or victim believes or alleges the crime was motivated by sex, age, race, religion, disability, sexual orientation, etc.
Supervisor is notified, who notifies Watch Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What should an officer do when a victim has moved their vehicle after a PDHR?

A

Give State Crash Packet, complete PIMS report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What crashes are investigated by Traffic Unit?

A

Felony or fatal crashes
MPD vehicle crashes
Crashes within MPLS by other agencies, if requested
All city vehicle crashes, unless there is no injury and no expected claims
All government vehicles involving injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

When is a State Crash report needed?

A

Injury
City vehicle
Over $1,000 damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the proper format for the CCN in State Crash reports?

A

MP25-123456

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How many MPD squads can assist another agency in pursuit crossing into city?

A

If more than 2 other agency squads involved, only 1 MPD squad.

108
Q

Can MPD continue an out of city pursuit in the city if the originating agency is unable to continue?

A

Yes, if approved by supervisor and fits policy

109
Q

What does policy say about roadblocks?

A

Only used if deadly force is authorized
Need Pursuit Supervisor approval
Unoccupied marked squads with emergency lights active

110
Q

A squad blocks an alley entry to prevent that escape route for a passing pursuit. Is this considered a road block?

A

No, policy allows blocking alleys, parking lots, etc during a pursuit.

111
Q

What rank can step in and terminate a pursuit?

A

LT or higher, cannot overrule a higher rank however.

112
Q

Can low profile / unmarked squads initiate a pursuit?

A

Yes, but must drop out when a marked squad joins.

113
Q

When can a known suspect be pursued?

A

Homicide
1st / 2nd Degree Assault
Aggravated Robbery
Kidnapping
Felony Firearm discharges or pointing
-A reminder that WTs for these things DO NOT authorize a pursuit

114
Q

Can pursuits go the wrong way down the ramp onto a freeway? Can traffic stops?

A

Cannot pursue a vehicle the wrong way down the ramp. TLEs can be made the wrong way down a ramp to prevent a vehicle from entering the freeway.

115
Q

Can pursuits go the wrong way on a one way?

A

Technically yes, but only with due consideration

116
Q

Can a squad get involved in a pursuit if they are transporting a PIC to the hospital? What about a ride along?

A

Can never become involved when transporting a prisoner, PIC, etc. Can initiate pursuit if it meets SHARK with approved ride along, but must drop out when another squad becomes involved.

117
Q

How much time must pass before re-engaging a terminated pursuit?

A

20 minutes, unless exigent circumstances

118
Q

How long after visual contact is lost does a pursuit become terminated?

A

Significant period of time, policy gives 10-15 seconds as an example

119
Q

What should the primary pursuit squad not do regarding suspects at the finish of a pursuit?

A

Should not remove suspects from the vehicle, should not transport suspects, whenever practical.

120
Q

If a supervisor was briefly involved in the pursuit before dropping out can they be pursuit supervisor?

A

Yes, can fill that role after dropping out

121
Q

Who are pursuit memos sent to?

A

Pursuit Review Committee, DC of Patrol, Inspector

122
Q

When should a DL not be clipped after a DWI?

A

If waiting on blood / urine results
Out of state DL

123
Q

When does the Fleet Mileage need to be checked, and by whom?

A

Every April and October, by Unit Commander or Supervisor

124
Q

Explain the difference between White and Red tag tows?

A

White tag- officer waiting on scene
Red tag- officer not waiting on scene, citation and tow sheet left with vehicle
-Delayed red tag should be towed within 4 hours

125
Q

How long are vehicles kept in the Forensic lot without an extension?

126
Q

Who does supervisor contact to initiate an Op 100?

A

Watch Commander if available, otherwise SWAT Commander or XO

127
Q

What is the SWAT Supervisor role during Op 100 vs non-SWAT Supervisor?

A

SWAT supervisor is in charge of tactical, non-SWAT handles overall scene, perimeter, etc

128
Q

What considerations should be taken when choosing location of Command Post during Op 100?

A

Out of sight of scene
Close enough to be practical
Upwind of incident
Large enough to accommodate command vehicles

129
Q

What is blue tape and green tape used for?

A

Used at Op 100s, blue tape for command post, green tape for tactical staging area

130
Q

What is MPD’s recommendation regarding evacuation at a bomb threat call?

A

It’s up to the business, but if asked MPD recommendation is to evacuate.

131
Q

Can MPD assist in checking for hazards / bombs at a bomb threat call?

A

Not without approval from Bomb Supervisor, should be handled by staff and their volunteers.

132
Q

When can an Unlawful Assembly be declared?

A

3 or more people
Intent to commit any unlawful act by force OR
Intentionally or unintentionally acting in a way that is disorderly or disturbs public peace

133
Q

A group is blocking traffic without a permit, and has been known to be violent in the past. Is this enough to declare an Unlawful Assembly?

A

No. Cannot be declared simply for not having a permit (blocking traffic) or solely based on past history.

134
Q

What things must be included in Dispersal Orders during an Unlawful Assembly?

A

Identity of the person giving the orders
Reason for the declaration of unlawful assembly
At least 2 exit routes for people to use
Consequences if failure to comply
How long they have to comply

135
Q

Do Media and “Legal Observers” have to obey dispersal orders?

A

Media must be allowed to stay as long as not interfering, Legal Observers do not have this right and must follow dispersal orders.

136
Q

When can crowd control weapons be used without prior authorization, and who must be notified?

A

Protect against objectively imminent physical harm. Supervisor must be notified at earliest opportunity, who will then notify Watch Commander.

137
Q

Who is notified of early release from a Transport or 72 hour hold?

A

Supervisor, who will review the case for consideration of further action.

138
Q

What constitutes a Critical Incident?

A

Deadly Force by or against an officer
Death or Great Bodily Harm to an officer
Death or Great Bodily Harm to a person in an officer’s custody
Any action taken by an officer that causes or is intended to cause Death or Great Bodily Harm

139
Q

What are some of the roles of the primary supervisor at a Critical Incident?

A

Notify dispatch that they are the IC
Secure scene and perimeter
Determine involved and witness officers
Take Public Safety Statements
Arrange escort officers and get all involved separated
Identify any other witnesses

140
Q

What things are asked during a Public Safety Statement?

A

If shots were fired, what direction were they fired?
Any known injuries?
Location of any known weapons?
Description of any outstanding suspects including weapons and what they’re wanted for

141
Q

An officer who just fired shots at a suspect requests their Fed Rep present prior to giving Public Safety Statement. Is this their right?

A

No, there is no right to representation prior to safety statement.

142
Q

How soon must voluntary statements be given by involved and witness officers during a critical incident? How is the statement taken?

A

Must be given within 48 hours. Taken in a Q&A format.

143
Q

How many days off is an involved officer or witness officer given after a Critical Incident?

A

3 paid admin days minimum, up to 7 for INVOLVED officer, up to 3 for WITNESS officer.

144
Q

What happens if involved or witness officer are not cleared by mental health professional to return to work after critical incident?

A

Officers is marked IOD.

145
Q

Are Involved and Witness officers required to attend a peer debrief after a critical incident?

A

Per policy, Involved officers MAY. Witness officers SHALL.

146
Q

What items are SWAT officers working Patrol required to have, and when can they deploy them.

A

Must have rifle, helmet, and vest. Can only use them when responding to an active shooter, Op 100, or Warrant.

147
Q

What are the goals of the Incident Command System?

A

Life Safety
Incident Stabilization
Protection of Property

148
Q

As the arriving Incident Commander at a scene, what are the main things to work to determine?

A

What is the problem?
What is the goal?
What resources are needed?
Is perimeter needed?
Is residential evac needed?

149
Q

When is the Emergency call back roster updated?

A

January and July each year

150
Q

What does law require when making an arrest of a person handicapped in communication?

A

Requires an interpreter be requested to explain the charges and procedures to the arrested person

151
Q

What defines a significant exposure?

A

Skin punctured by needle or sharp object with blood or bodily fluids on it
Blood or bodily fluids coming into contact with mucus membranes or eyes
Contamination of open wounds by blood or bodily fluids
Bites that break skin

152
Q

What bodily fluids are considered a significant exposure?

A

Urine, saliva, vomit, stool, all ONLY if they have blood in them.

153
Q

What should be done if employee suspects significant exposure?

A

Treatment at OMC or HCMC, if physician agrees they will attempt to obtain consent for blood draw from the suspect.

154
Q

Where should squads needing decon be brought to?

A

Royalston Garage

155
Q

If a juvenile is being transported to the hospital and parent / guardian has not been notified, who shall officers contact?

A

MECC to prevent a future missing person report

156
Q

Can DNA samples be taken voluntarily from a juvenile?

A

Only in exigent circumstances after juvenile has spoken with attorney or guardian. Use a WT otherwise.

157
Q

Can officers search school lockers?

A

Only with a WT or permission from the principle, however the school can search lockers at any time and may request officers be present when this is done.

158
Q

If an officer is removing a juvenile from a school for any reason, what must they do with the school?

A

Sign the student out.

159
Q

What is the process for processing arrest juveniles for a Status Offence? Misdemeanor? Gross? Felony?

A

Status- no prints or photos
Mis- photos
Gross and Felony- prints and photos

160
Q

Can juveniles be used as Confidential Informants?

A

No, but information given voluntarily from them can be used.

161
Q

How soon must a juvenile be entered into NCIC as missing?

A

Within 2 hours, even if an officer has not been dispatched to confirm them missing yet.

162
Q

What defines an at-risk missing person?

A

12 years or younger
Disability
Believed to be in danger
Takes critical medication
Absent more than 24 hours prior to reporting to police
Suspected foul play
Absent under circumstances inconsistent with their normal behavior

163
Q

What steps are taken during an at-risk missing person investigation?

A

Notify supervisor, who notifies MECC supervisor and Watch Commander
Supervisor determines what further action will be taken, and organizes the search if one is taking place

164
Q

What is needed to issue an amber alert?

A

17 or younger
Victim of abduction or runaway
Believed to be in imminent danger
Information available to send out to the public
Entered into NCIC

165
Q

What steps are taken for curfew violations?

A

Under 10 y/o- Contact First Response if guardian cannot be located
Over 10 y/o- may issue citation, released to Youth Connection Center if no guardian located

166
Q

What age do children need to be in order to be considered capable of committing a crime?

167
Q

What sort of citation is given to juveniles in petty and misdemeanor traffic offenses?

A

Uniform citation

168
Q

Where should supervisors document their given PC on an arrest?

A

Add comments to the call notes, indicating approval of PC and if it was given on scene, over the phone, etc

169
Q

Is supervisor approval needed on Gross Mis arrests?

170
Q

Who authorizes approval for a strip search?

A

LT or above, and they or someone of the same gender should be present.

171
Q

Are body cavity searches allowed?

A

Only the mouth can be checked by officers. Anything else must be done at a medical facility and needs a WT.

172
Q

What must officers do prior to making an arrest of a civilian filming the police, if the arrest is related to the filming?

A

Notify a supervisor, and wait for them to respond prior to making the arrest. If arrest is already made wait for supervisor to respond and approve the arrest before booking.

173
Q

Who’s approval is needed prior to seizing a cell phone suspected of containing photo or video evidence?

A

Supervisor

174
Q

What hours can a search WT be served?

175
Q

What are the different levels of Search WTs, and is there any approval needed?

A

High Risk- needs approval from commander or higher
Intermediate Risk
Low Risk

176
Q

When is a Risk Assessment needed on Search WTs

A

High and Intermediate Risk, unless the WT is not being done at a residence

177
Q

If serving a search WT outside of the city, who is responsible for the initial securement of the scene?

A

Local jurisdiction

178
Q

What hours can a Misdemeanor WT arrest be made?

179
Q

In regards to photo line ups, what is the difference between a Blind Presentation vs Blinded Presentation?

A

Blind- no one in the room knows suspect identity
Blinded- administrator knows the suspect identity, but not what photo is being shown at any given time

180
Q

What is the 36 and 48 hour rules?

A

36 hours until AP must be charged or released, starting at 0001 the day after arrest, and excluding weekends and holidays.
48 hours until judicial review must be done, starting at the moment the suspect were told they were under arrest.

181
Q

What items can be stored in Pct evidence lockers?

A

Misdemeanor arrest and citation evidence, and safekeeping items

182
Q

What items CANNOT be stored in Pct lockers?

A

Firearms, DCCs, drugs, money, and jewelry

183
Q

What cash amount requires supervisor sign off?

184
Q

What should be done with guns that cannot be confirmed as being cleared, or are jammed?

A

Secured safely in P&E locker and clearly labeled. Range staff will assist at later time.

185
Q

How long is evidence held for after acquittal, citation, or conviction?

A

Acquitted- removed in timely manner
Cited- held for 180 days
Convicted- held for duration of sentence

186
Q

A person living at an address locks their roommate out of the house, and the roommate calls 911. How should the officer handle the call?

A

Advise to contact an attorney, as this is a matter of eviction and therefore civil.

187
Q

Who should officers contact regarding any information involving espionage or sabotage?

A

Intelligence Sharing and Analysis Center (ISAC)

188
Q

Officers responding to a Hold Up alarm observe suspects inside the business. There is no obvious immediate danger to anyone inside. How should officers proceed? What is the priority?

A

Maintain observatory positions until suspects leave, unless exigent circumstances require immediate action. Priority is to avoid a hostage situation.

189
Q

Who should handle a call back on a hold up alarm if supervisor is unavailable?

A

MECC Supervisor

190
Q

Who are cases of suspected food poisoning reported to?

A

Minneapolis Health Department, or Hennepin County Poison Control if the Health Dept is closed.

191
Q

What is the report code for product / food tampering that causes harm or has attempted to cause harm?

A

Adulteration

192
Q

When shall a report be completed for shots calls?

A

Any time there is verifiable indication that a firearm was actually fired (DCCs, witnesses, etc)

193
Q

A hazardous material spill 911 call resulted in response from PD, MFD, and EMS. Who is the incident commander?

194
Q

Can hotel owners evict clients from their rooms without a court order?

195
Q

A landlord turns off the heat to a tenant’s unit, resulting in a 911 call. Both parties are on scene and landlord refuses to turn the heat back on. What sort of enforcement could be taken?

A

Tenant could make a citizen’s arrest. Officer would arrest or cite for the misdemeanor offense.

196
Q

What is the difference between auto theft and motor vehicle theft?

A

Auto theft- licensed to be driven on the roadway (normal cars, trucks, etc)
Motor vehicle theft- not licensed for the roadway (snowmobile, golf cart, etc)

197
Q

When can an officer take an auto theft report for a leased vehicle, and what action must have been taken prior?

A

Leasing agency must show proof of written demand for return of the vehicle, sent to the renter. Not considered stolen until 5 days after this demand.

198
Q

How much time must pass in a breach of trust before an auto theft report is completed?

A

An attempt to locate must first be placed, and 30 days must pass since that locate was placed.

199
Q

Who should failure to pay for gasoline calls be referred to?

200
Q

Who handles open fire hydrants?

A

Minneapolis Water Dept

201
Q

What action should officers take when responding to a known “chronic problem address?”

A

Enforcement whenever possible, with citations or arrests.

202
Q

If a building requires board up but does not meet the requirement to do so by MPD standards, who should be contacted?

A

Inspections Department

203
Q

In what situations can board up be requested?

A

Unsecured as a result of lawful police action
Unsecured as a result of burglary or damage to property
Any other emergency with Supervisor approval

204
Q

If board up is canceled while enroute, who completes the paperwork? Where is it sent?

A

MECC handles cancelation paperwork, forwarded to Transcription Unit

205
Q

What does the City Attorney’s Office consider proper identification? Will they charge without it?

A

MN DVS site photo
State issued ID or DL
ID from HCJ
-No, will not charge without proper identification on Misdemeanors

206
Q

After repeated robberies of a business officers decide to set a stake out inside, waiting for the suspects to return. What precautions should be taken?

A

Need permission from owner
All employees must be notified and given the opportunity to leave
No one under 18 allowed to stay
Arrest should not be attempted inside, unless necessary to protect human life
Arrest should be attempted before suspects enter if possible

207
Q

Who should be notified for all calls involving abuse, neglect, or exploitation of vulnerable adults?

A

Minnesota Adult Abuse Reporting Center

208
Q

Can officers issue a trespass notice to someone if the owner is not on scene? What is an exception, if any?

A

No, unless off-duty with expressed consent from the owner for off-duty officer to do so.

209
Q

How should officers handle trespass calls at sites with yellow placard “No Trespassing” signs are posted?

A

Determine if the person should have reasonably been able to see the sign and had notice. Consider the placement and number of signs. If they should have seen it, can cite / arrest. If not, advise and send.

210
Q

21st Century Policing stresses viewing officers not a warrior, but as a what?

211
Q

What are the main pillars listed in 21st Century Policing?

A

Building Trust and Legitimacy
Policy and Oversight
Technology and Social Media
Community Oriented Policing
Officer Training and Education
Officer Safety and Wellness

212
Q

According to 21st Century Policing, fewer than 1% of all police agencies have at least how many officers?

213
Q

According to 21st Century Policing, half of all law enforcement agencies have fewer than ___ officers.

214
Q

According to 21st Century Policing, finish the following statement; Technology is a tool. Just because you have it _____________________.

A

Doesn’t mean you should always use it.

215
Q

According to 21st Century Policing, absence of crime is not the final goal. What is?

A

Promotion and protection of public safety.

216
Q

How many recommendations are listed in 21st Century Policing?

217
Q

According to Ethics in Government, can a local official or employee be involved in a government decision involving a relative?

A

Yes, as long as they disclose the relationship, and there is no financial interest involved.

218
Q

According to Ethics in Government, what is the value placed on gifts that can be accepted?

A

$5.00 or less.

219
Q

According to Ethics in Government, regarding the Ethical practices board; Can a current local official or city employee be on the board?

A

No, 5 years must have passed since they left

220
Q

According to Ethics in Government, who serves as the Ethics Officer?

A

A designated assistant City Attorney.

221
Q

According to Ethics in Government, how soon must a new employee or official participate in ethics education training?

222
Q

According to the City of Minneapolis Anti-Discrimination, Harassment, and Retaliation Policy, who is responsible for implementing procedures that support the policy?

A

Chief Human Resources Officer

223
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, an officer’s formal statement cannot be taken unless what?

A

A signed written complaint has been filed.

224
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, are online complaint forms or forms submitted by email with complainant’s name considered signed?

225
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, if evidence supports an investigation but the complaint is not signed, who acts as signatory?

226
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, when an unsigned complaint with contact information is received, how long do investigative staff have to get a signature?

227
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, when an anonymous complaint is received what happens?

A

Investigator will assess if sufficient evidence to continue investigation.

228
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, are complaint forms received through 311 considered signed?

229
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, how long after reception will complaints be documented and formally filed?

230
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, how long does a Unit Head have to review a complaint and determine recommendation?

231
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, recommendation for dismissals are sent to the Chief or designee. How long do they have to confirm the recommendation or return for further?

232
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, coaching documents are sent to the highest ranking supervisor in the subject officer’s precinct. When must the document be completed and returned by?

233
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, what is an expedited disposition?

A

Self-report, or complaints with clear factual evidence and low likelihood of factual dispute.

234
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, what alleged policy violations are not eligible for expedited disposition?

A

Truthfulness violations
Use of Force
Bias and Discrimination
Failure to report misconduct or intervene

235
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, how soon must Administrative Investigations be completed?

236
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, a Community Commission on Police Oversight Review Panel consists of whom?

A

3 civilian members of the CCPO and 2 sworn employees

237
Q

According to the Minneapolis Complaint Manual, how soon must the Chief return or issue a determination on a Review Panel’s recommendation?

A

15 days to return, 30 days for determination

238
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how soon must a meeting occur between the Federation and the Commander to discuss a grievance?

239
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how long does an arbitrator have to issue a decision after hearing both sides?

240
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how soon must an expedited arbitration be decided?

241
Q

According to the Labor Contract, discipline only include what 4 things?

A

Written reprimand
Suspension
Demotion
Discharge

242
Q

According to the Labor Contract, when does Longevity pay begin? When does it move to the next step?

A

Starts at the beginning of the 7th year, moves to next step on anniversary of employment

243
Q

According to the Labor Contract, the number of Sgts shall not be reduced below ___% of the total authorized number of sworn officers. LT shall not go below ___%.

A

Sgts- 23.25%
LTs- 4.5%

244
Q

According to the Labor Contract, when a Sgt fills in as Watch Commander what pay do they receive?

A

Pay of a 1st step LT

245
Q

According to the Labor Contract, when does a work assignment become permanent?

A

30 consecutive calendar days.

246
Q

According to the Labor Contract, not counting holidays how many REG and OFF days for each 28 day cycle?

A

16 REG, 12 OFF

247
Q

According to the Labor Contract, when must a comp day request be granted?

A

10 days in advance, full shift, doesn’t cause shift to fall below 80% of scheduled staffing.

248
Q

According to the Labor Contract, what is the minimum number of hours paid when an employee is called back to duty?

249
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how are FTOs compensated?

A

1.25 hours of comp time, or 2 hours paid. Additional payment of $3,000 per year.

250
Q

According to the Labor Contract, if standby is canceled by 6pm the night before is the employee paid? What about before 9am day of? After 9am?

A

Before 6p- no pay
Between 6-9a- 1 hour
After 9a- 2 hours

251
Q

According to the Labor Contract, what is standby pay for large events?

A

30 minutes (half) of normal pay per hour.

252
Q

According to the Labor Contract, what is bumping?

A

An employee laid off takes the spot of someone in a lower rank, based on seniority.

253
Q

According to the Labor Contract, an officer who has been laid off can be reemployed to a position of equal rank within what length of time, without examination?

254
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how many hours of vacation does a 1 year officer receive annually?

255
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how many hours of vacation can be sold off every year?

A

40 hours, bumps up to 80 hours if accruing at least 128 hours per year and have at least 120 in bank.

256
Q

According to the Labor Contract, what are the major holidays, and what is the pay?

A

Memorial Day
4th of July
Labor Day
Thanksgiving
Christmas Day
-Pay is 1.5

257
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how many days of bereavement leave do officers receive, and how must they be used?

A

3 days, can be used intermittently but within 5 days of the death or funeral.

258
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how many paid military days per year for employees?

259
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how many IOD days can be granted?

260
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how many admin days for involved officers in critical incidents?

A

7 (differs from policy)

261
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how many admin days for witness officers in critical incidents?

A

7 (differs from policy)

262
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how many admin days for a Traumatic Incident?

A

1 granted by supervisor, up to 3 granted by chief or designee after consultation with health and wellness

263
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how much sick leave must be accumulated before it can be sold off?

264
Q

According to the Labor Contract, how much advance notice must be given before a required fitness test?

265
Q

According to the Labor Contract, what is the reimbursement amount for an approved gym?

266
Q

According to the Labor Contract, can employees work out on duty?

A

Only as authorized by the chief

267
Q

According to the Labor Contract, can a probationary non-veteran employee challenge the ruling after drug / alcohol testing?