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Physiology II > Motor Control > Flashcards

Motor Control Flashcards

1
Q

Control of complex movements involve what brain areas?

A
  • Cerebral cortex
  • Basal Ganglia
  • Cerebellum
  • Thalamus
  • Brain stem
  • Spinal cord
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2
Q

What type of arrangement does the primary motor cortex have? What happens when it is stimulated?

A
  • Somatotopic arrangement

- Excitation stimulates movements instead of contracting a single muscle

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3
Q

What Broadman area is the primary motor cortex involved with?

A

Broadman area 4 (precentral gyrus)

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4
Q

This area is anterior to the lateral portions of the primary motor cortex below the supplemental area and projects to the primary motor cortex and basal ganglia.

A

Premotor area

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5
Q

This area is superior to the premotor area lying mainly in the longitudinal fissure and functions in concert with the premotor area to provide attitudinal and fixation movements, positional movements of the head and eyes, and background for finer motor control of arms/hands.

A

Supplemental motor area

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6
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract originate?

A
  • 30% from the primary motor cortex
  • 30% from the premotor and supplemental areas
  • 40% from the somatic sensory areas
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7
Q

This tract descends via the posterior limb of the internal capsule and forms the pyramids of the medulla

A

Corticospinal tract

  • Most fibers cross midline and form the lateral corticospinal tract
  • Some fibers stay ipsilateral and form the ventral corticospinal tract
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8
Q

This transection involves all tracts being cut and the cord being completely isolated from the brain.

A

Spinal preparation

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9
Q

This is a transection at the mid collicular level.

A

Decerebrate preparation

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10
Q

This transection involves the destruction of the cerebral cortex.

A

Decorticate preparation

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11
Q

What does a spinal preparation result in?

A

Flaccidity (flaccid or floppy paralysis)

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12
Q

What does a decerebrate preparation result in?

A

Extensors are tonically hyperactive resulting in “decerebrate rigidity”

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13
Q

What does a decorticate preparation result in?

A

This creates a different type of rigidity, clinically known as “decorticate spasticity” due to tonic excitation from upper areas of the reticular formation no longer under inhibitory cortical influence (release phenomenon).

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14
Q

This is an experimental procedure that is useful for the study of reflexes. A transection of the midbrain is often at the intercollicular level and motor control is profoundly altered (flexion suppressed/extension is exaggerated).

A

Decerebration (leads to decerebrate rigidity)

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15
Q

Spinal shock is characterized by what?

A
  • Dramatic fall in arterial blood pressure
  • All skeletal muscle reflexes integrated in the cord are blocked
  • Sacral reflexes for control of bladder and colon evacuation are suppressed
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16
Q

These reticular nuclei:

  • transmit excitatory signals via the pontine reticulospinal tract
  • stimulate the axial trunk and extensor muscles that support the body against gravity
  • receive stimulation from vestibular nuclei and deep nuclei of the cerebellum,
  • have a high degree of natural excitability.
A

Pontine reticular nuclei

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17
Q

These reticular nuclei:

  • transmit inhibitory signals to antigravity muscles via the medullary (lateral) reticulospinal tract
  • receive strong input from the cortex, red nucleus, and other motor pathways
  • counterbalance excitatory signals from the pontine reticular nuclei
  • allows tone to be increased or decreased depending on function needing to be performed.
A

Medullary reticular nuclei

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18
Q

What are the five important tracts that descend form the brain to the spinal cord?

A
  • Ventral/lateral corticospinal
  • Reticulospinal
  • Vestibulospinal
  • Rubrospinal
  • Tectospinal
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19
Q

Out of the five descending pathways to the spinal cord, which are ipsilateral and which are contralateral?

A

Ipsilateral:

  • Ventral corticospinal tract
  • Reticulospinal
  • Vestibulospinal

Contralateral:

  • Lateral corticospinal tract
  • Rubrospinal
  • Tectospinal
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20
Q

Out of the five descending pathways to the spinal cord, which are part of the lateral motor system of the cord and control more distal muscles of limbs.

A
  • Lateral corticospinal tracts

- Rubrospinal tracts

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21
Q

Out of the five descending pathways to the spinal cord, which are part of the medial motor system of the cord and control mainly the axial and girdle muscles.

A
  • Reticulopsinal
  • Vestibulospinal
  • Tectospinal
  • Anterior corticospinal
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22
Q

What type of arrangement does the primary motor cortex have?

A

Vertical columnar arrangement which functions as an integrative processing system

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23
Q

Within the primary motor cortex pyramidal cells have what two types of output signals?

A

Dynamic (initiates contraction) and static (maintain contraction)

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24
Q

What is the pathway in the planning and program phase of voluntary movement?

A

Signals for movement originate in the sensory association cortex and output to premotor cortex directly and indirectly via the basal ganglia and cerebrocerebellum

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25
Q

What is the pathway in the execution phase of voluntary movement?

A
  • Premotor cortex–>primary motor cortex (PMC)–>spinal cord (corticospinal projections)
  • PMC—>spinocerebellum
  • Feedback from periphery–>spinocerebellum–>PMC
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26
Q

These maintain the body in an up-right balanced position and provide constant adjustments necessary to maintain stable postural background for voluntary movement.

A

Postural reflexes

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27
Q

Adjustments to posture include what two types of reflexes?

A
  • Static reflexes (sustained contraction

- Dynamic short term phasic reflexes (transient movements)

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28
Q

Postural reflexes are caused by changes in excitability of ____ neurons and changes in rate of discharge in the ____ neurons to muscle spindles.

A

Motor; gamma efferent

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29
Q

What are the three types of postural reflexes?

A
  • Vestibular reflexes
  • Tonic neck reflexes
  • Righting reflexes
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30
Q

This is the organ that detects sensations of equilibrium, provides information about position and movement of head in space, and helps maintain body balance and helps coordinate movements.

A

Vestibular apparatus

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31
Q

The vestibular apparatus consists of what structures? Where is is located?

A
  • It consists of the semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule
  • It is embedded in the petrous portion of the temporal bone
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32
Q

This is the sensory area of the utricle and saccule and is covered with a gelatinous layer in which many small CaCO3 crystals are embedded.

A

Macula

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33
Q

What does the macula of the utricle and saccule detect?

A
  • Orientation of the head with respect to gravity

- Linear acceleration

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34
Q

Which plane does the macula of the utricle lie? What is its role?

A
  • It lies mainly in the horizontal plane

- It plays an important role in determining orientation of the head when a person is upright

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35
Q

Which plane does the saccule lie? What is its role?

A
  • It lies mainly in the verticle plane

- It plays an important role in determining orientation of the head when a person is lying down

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36
Q

This is the sensory organ of rotation located in the semicircular canals of the inner ear.

A

Crista ampullaris

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37
Q

This is the loose gelatinous tissue mass on top of the crista ampullaris,

A

Cupula

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38
Q

There are three pairs of semicircular canals at 90 degrees to one another. What planes are they located in?

A

Anterior, horizontal, and posterior

  • Right anterior with left posterior
  • Right and left horizontal
  • Left anterior with right posterior
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39
Q

What fluid are the semicircular canals with?

A

Endolymph

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40
Q

What do the semicircular canals detect?

A

Rotational acceleration and deceleration

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41
Q

What occurrences is stimulation of the semicircular canals associated with?

A

Increased extensor tone and nystagmus

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42
Q

What are the two components of nystagmus?

A
  • Slow component (tracking): can be initiated by semicircular canals
  • Fast component (jump ahead to a new focal spot): initiated by the brain stem nuclei
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43
Q

What brain structure do the semicircular canals work closely with?

A

Cerebellum, especially the flocculonodular lobe

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44
Q

This condition is characterized by a sudden sensation of spinning, usually when moving the head.

A

Vertigo

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45
Q

This procedure relocates free floating particles in the semicircular canals back to the utricle, where they can no longer stimulate the cupula. It is used to relieve patients of vertigo.

A

Epley’s maneuver

46
Q

One’s sense of uprightness is generally a combination of cues that include what types of information?

A

Visual and vestibular information

47
Q

This term is used to describe overall position of the body and limbs relative to one another and their orientation in space.

A

Posture

48
Q

What types of reflexes are evoked by changes in the position of the head?

A

Vestibular reflexes

49
Q

What types of reflexes are evoked by the tilting or turning of the neck?

A

Neck reflexes

50
Q

To support the head and body against gravity, maintain a center of gravity, and stabilize supporting parts of the body while others are being moved are all functions of what?

A

Postural adjustments

51
Q

What are the main mechanisms of postural adjustments?

A
  • Anticipatory (feed forward): predict disturbances and modified by experience
  • Compensatory (feedback): evoked by sensory events following the loss of balance
52
Q

Where do postural mechanisms receive sensory input from?

A
  • Cutaneous recpetors from the skin (especially feet)
  • Proprioceptors from joints and muscles (short latency 70-100ms)
  • Vestibular signals (longer latency, 2x proprioceptor latency)
  • Visual signals (longer latency, 2x proprioceptor latency)
53
Q

When the body is swaying, contraction of muscles to maintain balance occur in what order?

A

Distal to proximal

54
Q

When the neck is extended, do extensors or flexors of arms/legs tend to contract?

A

Extensors of arms/legs

55
Q

When the neck is flexed, do extensors or flexors of arms/legs tend to contract?

A

Flexors arms/legs

56
Q

When rotation or lateral bending of the neck occurs, what happens to the limb muscles?

A
  • Extensors on the ipsilateral side contract

- Flexors on the contralateral side contract

57
Q

What are the input nuclei of the basal ganglia?

A
  • Caudate
  • Putamen
  • Nucleus accumbens
58
Q

What are the output nuclei of the basal ganglia?

A
  • Globus pallidus
  • Subthalamic nucleus
  • Substantia nigra
  • Ventral tegmental area
59
Q

What are the four principal nuclei of the basal ganglia?

A
  • Striatum (caudate and putamen)
  • Globus pallidus (internal and external)
  • Substantia nigra
  • Subthalamic nucleus
60
Q

Does the basal ganglia have direct input or output connections with the spinal cord?

A

No

61
Q

Motor functions of the basal ganglia are mediated by what?

A

The motor areas of the cortex

62
Q

Disorders of the basal ganglia have three characteristic types of motor disturbances. What are they?

A
  • Tremor and other involuntary movements
  • Changes in posture and muscle tone
  • Poverty and slowness of movement
63
Q

This major circuit of the basal ganglia plays a major role in cognitive control of motor activity.

A

Caudate circuit

64
Q

This major circuit of the basal ganglia deals with subconcious execution of learned patterns of movement.

A

Putamen circuit

65
Q

This abnormality of the basal ganglia is due to a lesion of the globus pallidus and is characterized by spontaneous and continuous writhing movements.

A

Athetosis

66
Q

This abnormality of the basal ganglia is due to a lesion in the subthalamus and characterized by sudden violent flailing movements of a limb.

A

Hemiballismus

67
Q

This abnormality of the basal ganglia is due to multiple lesions in the putamen and characterized by flicking movements in the hands, face, etc.

A

Chorea

68
Q

This brain structure contains more than half of all neurons in the brain and plays a crucial indirect role in movement and posture by adjusting the output of the major descending motor systems.

A

Cerebellum

69
Q

This division of the cerebellum governs eye movements and body equilibrium.

A

Vestibulocerebellum (floculonodular lobe)

70
Q

This division of the cerebellum plays a major role in movement and influences descending motor systems.

A

Spinocerebellum (vermis and intermediate)

71
Q

This division of the cerebellum deals with the planning and initiation of movement and extramotor prediction, mental rehearsal of complex motor actions, and conscious assessment of movement errors.

A

Cerebrocerebellum (lateral zone)

72
Q

These are the major inhibitory cells in the cerebellar cortex.

A

Purkinje cells

73
Q

What two types of output signals do purkinje cells produce?

A

Complex and Simple action potentials.

74
Q

Complex action potentials come from what types of fibers?

A

Climbing fibers from the inferior olivary nucleus (1:1 ratio with purkinje cells)

75
Q

Simple action potentials come from what types of fibers?

A

Mossy fibers via granule cells (1 mossy fiber excites 100s-1000s of purkinje cells)

76
Q

Mossy fiber input is from everywhere except what?

A

Inferior olivary nucleus

77
Q

What is the role of the inferior olivary nucleus?

A
  • Compares intention with performance

- Affects the cerebellum via climbing fiber input

78
Q

Lesions in the cerebellum create what types of findings in the body? Ipsilateral or Contralateral?

A

Ipsilateral, due to pathway crossing twice or not at all.

79
Q

What are some functions of the cerebellum?

A
  • Motor learning
  • Cognitive processing and emotion
  • Loaded by the integrity of joint mechanoreceptors
80
Q

What are the three pairs of deep nuclei in the cerebellum?

A
  • Fastigial
  • Interposed (globose and emboliform)
  • Dentate
81
Q

This peduncle, which connects the cerebellum to the brain stem, contains most efferent projections and ventral spinocerebellar tracts.

A

Superior peduncle

82
Q

This peduncle, which connects the cerebellum to the brain stem, contains primary pontocerebellar tracts.

A

Middle peduncle

83
Q

This peduncle, which connects the cerebellum to the brain stem, contains dorsal spinocerebellar tracts.

A

Inferior peduncle

84
Q

This is the concept whereby body states are regulated toward a steady state.

A

Homeostasis

85
Q

This part of the nervous system controls visceral functions and functions to maintain a dynamic internal environment, necessary for proper function of cells, tissues, organs, under a wide variety of conditions and demands.

A

Autonomic nervous system

86
Q

What are the three divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • Sympathetic (fight/flight/fright)
  • Parasympathetic (rest/digest)
  • Enteric (neuronal network in the walls of the GI tract)
87
Q

These cells of the sympathetic nervous system are intermediolateral horn cells located from C8-L2/3 and primarily release Ach and some neuropeptides (LHRH).

A

Pre-ganglionic cells

88
Q

These cells of the sympathetic nervous system are paravertebral/prevertebral ganglia. Most fibers release norepinephrine and some neuropeptides (NPY).

A

Post-ganglionic cells

89
Q

Negative feedback in norepinephrine receptors is attributed to what?

A

The presence of alpha 2 adrenoceptors in sympathetic nervous system terminals

90
Q

What does yohimbine (alpha 2 blocker) do to norepinephrine release?

A

Increase norepinephrine release

91
Q

This term is used to describe an increased sympathetic activity.

A

Sympathocotonia

92
Q

This condition is due to an interruption of SNS supply to the head. It results in partial ptosis (drooping of eyelid), pupillary constriction, anhydosis (inability to sweat), and enophthamos (eyes are withdrawn back).

A

Horner’s syndrome

93
Q

Which cranial nerves are parasympathetic?

A

III, VII, IX, X

94
Q

What substance do preganglionic cells of the parasympathetic nervous system release? Postganglionic?

A

Preganglionic: acetylcholine
Postganglionic: acetylcholine

95
Q

Preganglionic and parasympathetics project to the enteric ganglia of the stomach, colon, and rectum via what nerves?

A

Vagus and pelvic splanchnic nerves

96
Q

This division of the enteric nervous system is found between the longitudinal and circular muscle layer and controls gut motility.

A

Myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s)

97
Q

What do excitatory and inhibitory motor neurons of the myenteric plexus release?

A

Excitatory: Ach and substance P
Inhibitory: Dynophin and vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

98
Q

This division of the enteric nervous system regulates ion/water transport across the intestinal epithelium and glandular secretions. Additionally it communicates with the myenteric plexus and releases neuropeptides.

A

Submucosal plexus

99
Q

These fibers accompany visceral motor fibers in autonomic nerves, supply information that originates in sensory receptors in viscera, and are important for homeostatic control and adjustment to external stimuli.

A

Visceral afferent fibers

100
Q

Many visceral afferent fibers may release an excitatory neurotransmitter called what?

A

Glutamate

101
Q

What are some examples of autonomic reflexes?

A
  • Cardiovascular (baroreceptor, Bainbridge reflex)
  • GI autonomic reflexes (smell of food elicits the release of digestive juices, fecal matter elicits strong peristaltic contractions)
102
Q

Which glands are exclusively innervated by cholinergic sympathetics?

A

Sweat glands

103
Q

What is the fate of acetylcholine after being released?

A

It is rapidly hydrolysed by acetylcholinesterase

104
Q

What is the fate of norepinephrine after being released?

A

It is taken up by nerve terminals, degraded by MAO and COMT, and then carried away by the blood

105
Q

What is the precursor for dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine?

A

Tyrosine

106
Q

What is the precursor of acetylcholine?

A

Choline

107
Q

What do adrenergic receptors bind?

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

108
Q

What nicotinic and muscarinic receptors bind?

A

Acetylcholine

109
Q

What is the affinity of norepinephrine for alpha and beta receptors?

A

It has equal affinity for both

110
Q

What is the affinity of epinephrine for alpha and beta receptors?

A

It has a greater affinity for beta compared to alpha receptors

111
Q

What can happen to receptors if there is upregulation?

A
  • The number of receptors can increase

- The sensitivity of receptors can increase

112
Q

What happens to receptors if there is downregulation?

A
  • The number of receptors can decrease

- The sensitivity of receptors can decrease

Physiology II (4 decks)

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