Motions Flashcards

1
Q

Is the denial of a motion to dismiss a final order?

A

No, and so, is not appealable. A final order is one that disposes of the whole case on its merits, by rendering final judgment not only as to all the parties but as to all causes of action involved.
In federal litigation, Federal Rule of Civil Procedure (FRCP) 54(b) may allow for an appeal when there is a final judgment on one claim but other claims in the same suit remain. The standard for this partial judgment rule is that the “court may direct entry of a final judgment as to one or more, but fewer than all, claims or parties only if the court expressly determines that there is no just reason for delay.” If the court does not expressly determine that there is no just reason for delay, there can be no appeal. Fed. R. Civ. P. 54(b)

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2
Q

How long does a party have to respond to complaint?

A

A DF has 21 days to answer.

Ga 30 plus 15 extra days

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3
Q

What is summary judgement and the time limits?

A

Later in the lifecycle of a federal case, either party can make a number of motions to adjudicate the dispute in their favor without a trial. If one party can show there is no genuine dispute of as to any material fact in the lawsuit, and that he is entitled to judgment as a matter of law, he can be awarded judgment through an FRCP 56 motion for summary judgment. Final judgement here is based on the facts but if we are looking only at the pleadings then use a motion for judgement on the pleadings.

The party seeking summary judgment has the burden of producing information that clearly establishes there is no factual dispute for a jury to resolve.

The movant (the person seeking summary judgment) can show the lack of a genuine issue of fact by submitting affidavits. They must only contain matters as to which the affiant has personal knowledge, must state only matters which would be admissible at trial, and must show the affiant is competent to testify at trial. The movant may also submit the fruits of discovery no matter which side they were obtained from.

The court will go “behind the pleadings” in deciding a motion for summary judgment, meaning that even if it appears from the pleadings that the parties are in dispute on some material fact, the summary judgment motion should be granted if the movant can show that the disputed factual issues presented by the pleadings are illusory.

While a party may file a motion for summary judgment at any time until 30 days after the close of all discovery.

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4
Q

What is judgment as a matter of law?

A

A motion for judgment as a matter of law is made at the time of JURY trial. If there is no trial then the motion cannot be made. The party must be fully heard on the issue. It must be made before the jury retires.

If the case reaches a jury, either party may move for a judgment as a matter of law, which has the effect of taking the case away from the jury and determining the outcome as a matter of law. FRCP 50(a)(1) states that if a party has been fully heard on an issue during a jury trial and the court finds that a reasonable jury would not have a legally sufficient evidentiary basis to find for the party on that issue, the court may resolve the issue against the party and grant a motion for judgment as a matter of law against the party, on a claim or defense that under the controlling law can be maintained or defeated only with a favorable finding on that issue.

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5
Q

What is default judgment and how long is the notice for the hearing?

A

A default judgment is a judgment, with the same effect as any other judgment, that is entered because the defendant did not oppose the case. If a party against whom a judgment for relief is sought has failed to plead or otherwise defend, and that fact is made to appear by affidavit or otherwise, the clerk must enter the default of that party. Once the default has been entered, the party may not proceed with the action until the default has been set aside by the court. Fed. R. Civ. P. 55.

FRCP 55(b)(2) states “if the party against whom a default judgment is sought has appeared personally or by a representative, that party or its representative must be served with written notice of the application at least 7 days before the hearing.” If the party failed to appear. Thus, pursuant to the FRCP, the manufacturer is not entitled to any notice of the hearing on damages.

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6
Q

How long does a party have to amend their claim?

A

A party may amend its pleading once as a matter of course with 21 days of service it. A party may I’m the 21 days strike any immaterial, redundant, scandalous material, erroneous or insufficient defenses without leave of court.

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7
Q

What type of motions are appealable and what is the time frame?

A

Generally only final orders are appealable by filing a notice of appeal with 30 days of the final judgment. A final order is one that disposes all of the merits of the case including claims and parties.

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8
Q

What is the exception to the final order doctor in regarding appealing motions?

A

The collateral order doctrine is a Narrow exception to the final order rule. However the need must be an emergency and it is too important to wait. This doctrine and has only been applied in cases of immunity and double Jeopardy. The requirements include: The lower court must have conclusively decided the disputed question; The issue must be separate from and collateral to the Merits of the main issue in the case; the issue must be effective unreviewable on an appeal from the final judgement.

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9
Q

Which is a better motion, a motion to dismiss for lack of PJ, a motion to transfer for forum non coveins, or a motion to transfer?

A

A motion to transfer is more appropriate than a dismissal except in extraordinary circumstances.

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10
Q

What is the deadline to file a summary judgement motion?

A

While a party may file a motion for summary judgment at any time until 30 days after the close of all discovery.

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11
Q

Is a summary judgement motion sufficient for disputing a Pl credibility?

A

Yes.

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12
Q

When may a court modify a pretrial order?

A

After a pretrial conference, the judge must enter a pretrial order reaction the action in the conference, under Federal Rule of Civil Procedure (FRCP) 16(c). This pretrial order is binding during the rest of litigation unless the court modifies it. A court will only modify a pretrial order only to “prevent manifest injustice.”

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13
Q

Discovery and Witness

A
Federal Rule of Civil Procedure (FRCP) 26(b)(1) allows the discovery of the identity and location of persons who know of any discoverable matter. Parties wishing to call an expert to testify during trial are required to automatically disclose the name, address, and phone number of the expert. These disclosures are mandatory.
FRCP 26(b)(4) addresses how discovery works for expert witnesses. When a party wishes to call an expert witness to testify at trial, it must furnish a list identifying any of these witnesses automatically at least 90 days prior to trial.
The party who intends to call an expert witness must have the expert prepare and sign a report containing (i) all of the expert’s opinions, and the basis for them, (ii) the facts or data considered by the expert in forming those opinions, (iii) any exhibits, (iv) relevant qualifications, (v) compensation received, and (vi) a listing of any other cases which the expert witness has testified for within the preceding 4 years.
There is a significant duty to supplement one's prior disclosures. Any mandatory and automatic disclosure required under FRCP 26(a) must be supplemented or corrected in a timely manner if the party learns that in some material respect the disclosure or response is incomplete or incorrect, and if the additional or corrective information has otherwise not been made known to the other parties during the discovery process or in writing.
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14
Q

What is the time frame for a relief of judgement?

A

The motion must be made One year after judgement when the reason for seeking judgement was mistake, surprise or excusable neglect.

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15
Q

What are the requirements for sanctions under Rule 11?

A

Lawyers in federal suits have the responsibility to ensure their client’s pleadings are not frivolous or issued to harass or delay an adversary. FRCP 11 imposes this requirement and provides that a lawyer who fails in this duty may be fined or otherwise sanctioned.
When the lawyer files a pleading, the lawyer is certifying that to the best of his knowledge, information, and belief, formed after an inquiry reasonable under the circumstances:
• The pleading is not presented for an improper purpose,
• The claims, defenses, and other legal contentions are warranted by existing law or by a nonfrivolous argument for extending, modifying, or reversing existing law or for establishing new law,
• The factual contentions have evidentiary support, or if specifically so identified, are reasonably based on belief or a lack of information.
FRCP 11 sanctions may be invoked by a motion from an opposing party, or from the court on its own initiative. Under FRCP 11(c)(2), the party seeking sanctions serves a motion on the other party but is not allowed to file the motion with the court if the challenged paper, claim or defense is withdrawn or appropriately corrected within 21 days after the service.
Analysis

Pursuant to Federal Rule 11, a party wishing to file a motion for sanctions must first serve the motion for sanctions on the opposing party. If the opposing party does not withdraw or correct the matter within 21 days, then the moving party can file a motion for sanctions with the court. Here, the firefighter withdrew his complaint eighteen (18) days after being served with the motion for sanctions. Therefore, it was improper for the entertainer to file a motion with the court.

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16
Q

What is needed for a voluntary dismissal?

A

Voluntary dismissal in federal court is subject to Rule 41(a) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP). FRCP 41(a) allows the plaintiff to make a dismissal as long as the defendant has not filed an answer or a motion for summary judgment. Unless otherwise stated in the notice of dismissal or stipulation, the dismissal is without prejudice, except that a notice of dismissal operates as an adjudication upon the merits when filed by a plaintiff who has once dismissed in any federal court in an action based on or including the same claim. The practical effect of this is that once the case has been voluntarily dismissed, if it is brought to court again, a dismissal in this second case will mean the case can never again be brought back to court.
D is correct. A plaintiff may file a notice of dismissal for his own case without leave of the court if the defendant has not yet filed an answer or a motion for summary judgment. The dismissal will be without prejudice unless the plaintiff has previously dismissed any federal or state court action on the same claim. If the plaintiff previously dismissed any action based on or including the same claim, the notice of dismissal operates as an adjudication on the merits. In this case, when the plaintiff moved to dismiss his claim for the second time, he moved to dismiss the same claim he had originally filed. Therefore, this time, his notice of dismissal operated as an adjudication on the merits, and the defendant’s motion should be granted.
A is incorrect. Although the plaintiff did address the defendant’s pleadings when he renewed his claim, the new filings still contained the same claims he originally alleged. Because the plaintiff had previously dismissed the same claim, his voluntary dismissal will operate as an adjudication on the merits.
B is incorrect. A plaintiff can file a notice of dismissal for his own case without leave of the court if the defendant has not yet filed an answer or a motion for summary judgment. The dismissal will be without prejudice unless the plaintiff has previously dismissed the same claim. In this case, although the defendant had not yet answered or filed a motion for summary judgment, the plaintiff had already once voluntarily dismissed the same claim. Therefore, the second claim will operate as an adjudication on the merits, and the defendant’s motion will be granted.
C is incorrect. If the defendant has not filed an answer or motion for summary judgment, and the plaintiff has not also previously dismissed the same claim, the plaintiff can dismiss an action without moving for leave from the court. However, in this case, the plaintiff had already once voluntarily dismissed the same claim. Therefore, the second time the plaintiff dismissed the same claim, the notice of dismissal acted as an adjudication on the merits.

17
Q

What is a TRO and preliminary injunction?

A

A temporary restraining order is granted by a court when it is necessary to prevent irreparable injury to a party, and the injury will result before a preliminary injunction hearing can be held. Under these facts, a TRO does not apply.
A preliminary injunction is sought by a party prior to a trial on the merits of the complaint. It is used as an equitable remedy by which a person is ordered to act or refrain from acting in a specified manner. A preliminary injunction is not designed to secure satisfaction of potential judgments and would be difficult to deploy to accomplish that purpose.

18
Q

What to file for removal?

A

To remove a claim to federal court, several requirements must be met. First, the federal court must have subject-matter jurisdiction over the claim such as diversity or federal question jurisdiction. Additionally, a defendant seeking to remove to federal court must file, within thirty days of receipt of the initial pleading/summons, a notice of removal in the district court where the state action is pending.
C is correct. Here, the librarian filed the notice of removal in a federal district court in State B, but the action was pending in a state court in State A. Thus, removal was sought to the incorrect court, and the action should proceed in the state court in State A.
A is incorrect. The issue in this question is removal, not personal jurisdiction. There is no basis in the facts of this question to conclude that the court lacks personal jurisdiction.
B is incorrect. This answer correct indicates that the federal court would have diversity jurisdiction over the parties because they are of diverse citizenship (the teacher is a citizen of State A, and the librarian is a citizen of State B), and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000. However, removal is properly accomplished by filing the notice of removal in the district court for the location in which the state action is pending. Here, that is not what occurred, so the action should proceed in State A’s state court.
D is incorrect. This answer choice misstates the law. The fact that only one party was a citizen of the state where the action was filed is not alone a basis for removing to federal court. Although those facts could help empower removal based on diversity jurisdiction, the removal statute requirements would still apply and, as explained above, that includes filing a notice of removal in the district court where the state action is pending.

19
Q

Whether sanctions may be assessed against a represented party?

A

B is correct. Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 11(c)(5)(A) specifically provides that the court must not impose a monetary sanction on a represented party on the ground that the party’s attorney violated Rule 11(b)(2) by making an argument not grounded in existing law or a nonfrivolous argument for extending, modifying, or reversing existing law or for establishing new law. Thus, while the monetary penalty might be appropriate for the attorney, it cannot be imposed on the man.
A is incorrect. Rule 11(c)(3) specifically authorizes the court on its own initiative to issue a show-cause order as to why conduct specifically described in the order has not violated Rule 11(b).
C is incorrect. Although there may have been a sanctionable violation of Rule 11(b)(2) here, Rule 11(c)(5)(A) specifically provides that the court may not impose a monetary sanction on a represented party for such a violation.
D is incorrect. The issuance of a show-cause order merely provides a party with notice of a possible infraction and an opportunity to argue against it. It does not itself determine if a sanction should be imposed. Additional facts must be considered before making that determination

20
Q

What is a motion for a new trial?

A

When a trial court reduces a punitive damages award on the ground that it is unconstitutionally excessive, the appellate court reviews that determination de novo. See Cooper Industries, Inc. v. Leatherman Tool Group, Inc., 532 U.S. 424 (2001).
On new-trial motions, the trial court may weigh the evidence and the credibility of witnesses and need not view the evidence in the light most favorable to the prevailing party.
When conditioning the denial of a new trial motion on the plaintiff’s acceptance of a lower amount of damages than the jury awarded, the trial court has discretion to award any amount supported by the evidence.
D is incorrect. Remittitur is constitutional and does not interfere with the province of the jury so long as the trial court gives the plaintiff the option of proceeding with a new trial. See Dimick v. Schiedt, 293 U.S. 474, 486–487 (1935).

21
Q

What is the standard for excessive damages?

A

When a trial court reduces a punitive damages award on the ground that it is unconstitutionally excessive, the appellate court reviews that determination.
. Remittitur is constitutional and does not interfere with the province of the jury so long as the trial court gives the plaintiff the option of proceeding with a new trial. See Dimick v. Schiedt, 293 U.S. 474, 486–487 (1935).