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VTNE > Most Difficult Questions > Flashcards

Most Difficult Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What does a double contrast cystogram involve?

A

Soluble positive-contrast media and air injected directly into the bladder

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2
Q

For a centrifuge, the relationship between revolutions per minute (RPM) and relative centrifugal force (g or RCF) can be calculated based on what?

A

Radius of the centrifuge head

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3
Q

Typically, when should a dog or cat be offered food following gastrointestinal surgery?

A

12-24 hours after surgery

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4
Q

What purpose is the administration of the drug Guaifenesin typically used for in horses?

A

Muscle relaxation

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5
Q

What is true regarding Schiff-Sherrington posture?

A

It causes paralysis of the hind limbs

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6
Q

What kind of test amplifies DNA?

A

PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) test

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7
Q

What is the shock dose for cats? And for dogs?

A

45 ml/kg; 90 ml/kg both crystalliods

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8
Q

What are the steps to take best care of surgical instruments?

A
  • Pre-rinse the instruments immediately after surgery to remove residues
  • Place in ultrasonic cleaner for approximately 10 minutes
  • Place in surgical milk
  • Remove from surgical milk and let instruments dry
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9
Q

What maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells?

A

The sodium-potassium pump

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10
Q

What does periodontal disease affect?

A

The periodontum, which includes the gingiva, the alveolar bone, the periodontal ligament and cementum of the tooth

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11
Q

What is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?

A

To adjust light intensity

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12
Q

What is true about an adenoma?

A

It is a benign tumor that is not cancerous

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13
Q

What medication should be delivered through a filter?

A

Mannitol because it forms crystals in a solution

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14
Q

What makes tungsten an ideal material for the filament and target of an x-ray machine?

A

It has a very high melting point

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15
Q

Which drug is a commonly used sedative for horses?

A

Xylazine and Detomidine, both of these drugs are alpha 2-adrenergic agonists used for their sedative and analgesic effects

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16
Q

What are nutraceuticals?

A

Phytochemicals, chemicals or foodstuffs derived from plants (and occasionally animals) in the form of a supplement; these are not typically regulated by the government

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17
Q

Lufenuron, Fipronil, Selamectin and Imidacloprid are all used in treatment of what?

A

Fleas

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18
Q

Which species is not susceptible to “hoof-and-mouth” disease?

A

Horses, it only affects cloven hoofed animals

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19
Q

How long after birth can foals and calves absorb protective maternal antibodies?

A

18-24 hours

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20
Q

Feline toxoplasmosis most often presents with which type of symptoms?

A

Neurologic, but fever, loss of appetite, and lethargy can also be symptoms

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21
Q

What is the function of the condenser on the microscope?

A

It’s function is to focus light on the object, and when it is not set appropriately, rings of light or haloes appear around objects.

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22
Q

What retractors are not considered self-retaining?

A
  • The Senn Rake retractor is not self-retaining and is considered a hand-held retractor
  • It’s main use is for retracting small muscle bellies, ligaments, and tendons
  • Other examples include the Army-Navy, Myerding, and malleable retractors
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23
Q

What is the biggest risk when giving an animal fluids or medications via an orogastric or a nasogastric tube?

A

Placing tube into the lungs, so the tube goes down the trachea instead of the esophagus, which can lead to subsequent pneumonia and can have fatal consequences

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24
Q

Potassium citrate is most often given to dogs for what reason?

A

It is often supplemented in the diet to help prevent formation of calcium oxalate bladder stones

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25
Q

The veterinarian is performing an orthopedic exam and says a dog has positive Ortolani sign, what is this?

A

Hip dysplasia

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26
Q

Stimulation of the Vagus nerve results in what?

A

Vagal stimulation slows the heart rate

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27
Q

Before a patient can be anesthetized for full stabilization, what kind of bandage can be place for temporary stabilization of a fracture?

A

Temporary stabilization with a Robert-Jones compression bandage would be best

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28
Q

In order for oxygen to diffuse from the alveoli into the capillaries, the partial pressure of the oxygen in the alveoli in the lungs must be:

A

Higher in the lungs than in the capillaries

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29
Q

What is the measure of red blood cell size on a complete blood count?

A

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

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30
Q

What is a UMIC?

A

A UMIC is a urine minimum inhibitory concentration, it basically indicates which bacteria are present and to which antibiotics those organisms are susceptible

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31
Q

Where is the mediastinum located?

A

In the central compartment of the chest, it is located between the right and left pleura and extends from the sternum to the vertebral column, it contains all the thoracic organs except the lungs

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32
Q

Barium for an upper GI radiograph series should not be given to a patient with what?

A

Patients with aspiration pneumonia or who are at risk for aspiration pneumonia should not be given oral barium for an upper GI series due to the risk of aspiration of the barium

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33
Q

What animals can develop dental caries?

A

Rabbits, chinchillas, and dogs develop dental caries

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34
Q

What are the four layers of the small intestine?

A

From inside to outside: mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa

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35
Q

What is a ranula?

A

A fluctuant swelling of connective tissue consisting of collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct; they are found under the tongue

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36
Q

What is DIC?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the condition in which coagulation factors are excessively consumed, this prevents additional clots from being formed and also impairs the breakdown of existing clots

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37
Q

Prior to placement of an endotracheal tube, you should measure the tube so you know about how far in to place it. Where should your measurement be?

A

In between the larynx and the thoracic inlet

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38
Q

What kind of inhalent anesthetic is the most potent?

A

Drugs with low minimum alveolar concentrations (MAC) are the most potent

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39
Q

To what anatomical landmark should a multi-lumen jugular catheter be inserted to for CVP monitoring?

A

Third thoracic vertebrae

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40
Q

An injury to what region of the brain is most likely to result in respiratory arrest?

A

The brain stem, which consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata; the pons contains important respiratory centers, he medulla also influences the respiratory rate as well as heart rate

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41
Q

What instrument would be used to elevate muscle attachments from bone or periosteum?

A

Periosteal elevator

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42
Q

What instruments would be effective at cutting or removing bone from a patient?

A
  • Curettes are great for removing small amounts of bone such as when obtaining a bone graft
  • Gigli wire is still used for cutting through bone
  • With an osteotome and mallet, precise bone cuts can be made by the experienced surgeon
  • Michel trephine is used to obtain core samples of bone, which is commonly used to help diagnose neoplasia involving the bone
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43
Q

Gas exchange occurs between air and blood by diffusion through which structure?

A

Alveoli

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44
Q

Patients that have received prednisone chronically need to be tapered off slowly to avoid what disease?

A

Hypoadrenocorticism

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45
Q

A fistulogram involves taking a radiograph after a contrast agent is administered into what location?

A

Draining tract

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46
Q

A purse-string suture would be been placed for what kind of surgery?

A

A cystotomy; the purse-string suture is a surgical suture passed as a running stitch in and out along the edge of a circular region (as seen with the anus), so that when the ends of the suture are drawn tight the region is closed like a purse

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47
Q

What kind of suture patter runs horizontal to the incision site?

A

Horizontal mattress, which is used in areas where there is tension at the incision site

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48
Q

What kind of retractor would you hand a surgeon if he/she needs to be able to retract the liver out of the way?

A

Malleable retractors are bendable in multiple directions and have no sharp edges, his makes them ideal to use in areas such as the abdomen to gently push delicate organs out of the way

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49
Q

What is a Balfour retractor used for?

A

They are only used to retract the body wall

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50
Q

When taking a lateral thoracic radiograph of a dog, where should the field be centered?

A

5th rib and caudal border of the scapula

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51
Q

A Gram stain causes Gram-negative bacteria to turn which color?

A

Pink/red

52
Q

A Gram stain causes Gram-positive bacteria to turn which color?

A

Blue/purple

53
Q

Which antibiotic often used for diarrhea has potential to cause a neurologic side effect?

A

Metronidazole is used frequently for treating diarrhea and it can cause neurologic symptoms in some sensitive patients or at higher dosages

54
Q

What is the treatment for metronidazole toxicity?

A

Supportive care, including Diazepam as a main treatment

55
Q

What is a “ventral slot” incision?

A

An incision made on the underside of the neck, typically for cervical disk surgeries

56
Q

Which organization establishes standards for label information and the description of ingredients on pet food sold in the United States?

A

AAFCO is the Association of American Feed Control Officials and is the organization that sets these standards

57
Q

MRI-compatible equipment might be made of which of the following metals?

A

Aluminum

58
Q

Which of the following can potentially infect and cause dermatitis in a child walking barefoot through a field?

A

Ancylostoma caninum, the dog hookworm, can infect a human by penetrating skin

59
Q

Which feline disease is most commonly transmitted via saliva sharing, such as through food or water bowls, grooming, etc.?

A

FeLV

60
Q

Which medication is commonly given to patients with organophosphate toxicity?

A

Atropine

61
Q

What is true regarding non-screen film in comparison to screen x-ray film in radiography?

A

Non-screen film is more sensitive to x-rays

62
Q

Accumulations of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria along the teeth are known as what?

A

Plaque

63
Q

What is dental calculus or tartar?

A

Mineralized plaque that can lead to persistent inflammation

64
Q

What is the typical minute volume of a cat?

A

Tidal Volume x Breathing Rate

65
Q

What antimicrobial medications should NOT be administered to young, growing animals?

A

Enrofloxacin (Fluoroquinolones)

66
Q

What is the most common location for placement of an arterial catheter (a-line) in a dog?

A

Dorsal metatarsal artery

67
Q

When applying a bone plate to fix a fracture, which of the following instruments would be least useful?

A

Trocar

68
Q

What effect will Propanolol have on the heart?

A

Slows the heart rate, it is a Beta-1 and Beta-2 blocker, therefore it blocks the sympathetic nervous system which allows for the parasympathetic effects on the heart to dominate

69
Q

Which nerve would most likely be damaged if a dog has sustained a humeral fracture?

A

The radial nerve innervates the extensor and supinator muscles located in the forelimb and provides distal sensation, this is the most commonly injured nerve in a forelimb fracture

70
Q

Which suture type is non-absorbable and would be ideal for placing skin sutures in a laceration?

A

Ethilon is nylon suture which are non-absorbable and are often used for skin sutures that will be removed

71
Q

What type of organism is typically detected with an acid-fast stain?

A

Mycobacteria and Nocardia species are usually detected with an acid-fast stain

72
Q

A pet that is exhibiting the symptom of ptyalism has which clinical sign?

A

Drooling

73
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

A penis that is stuck protruding from the prepuce

74
Q

What is true about a dog with polycythemia?

A

The dog has an increase in the absolute number of circulating red blood cells, which results in an increased HCT or PCV

75
Q

In ultrasonography, what term refers to tissues that reflect more sound back to the transducer than to surrounding tissues?

A

Hyperechoic

76
Q

What mouth rinsing agent has the best antibacterial properties?

A

Chlorhexidine gluconate

77
Q

Antibodies belong to a class of what?

A

Proteins

78
Q

The analgesic effects of NSAIDs occur mainly because of their ability to what?

A

Inhibit the production of prostaglandins

79
Q

What are the appropriate colored tanks for anesthetic agents?

A
  • Green = O2
  • Blue = Nitrous Oxide
  • Gray = CO2
  • Black = Nitrogen
  • Brown = Helium
  • Yellow = Compressed Air
80
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae do cats and dogs have?

A

7

81
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

Two different sized pupils

82
Q

How many ml does 1 oz equal?

A

30 ml = 1 oz

83
Q

What position is best for maxillary rads?

A

Have the animal in a sternal position

84
Q

What is the best position for caudal mandible dental rads?

A

Have the animal in a dorsal position

85
Q

What position is best for rads of the premolars and molars of the mandible?

A

Lateral position is best

86
Q

What hormones do the adrenal glands produce?

A

Cortisol, epinephrine and aldosterone

87
Q

What does a Coomb’s test detect?

A

It’s a laboratory test for detection of autoantibodies associated with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia

88
Q

What affects x-ray quality?

A

kVP and filtration

89
Q

What are the shock organs of the dog? And the cat?

A

The dog’s shock organ is the liver and the cat’s is the lungs, both of their GI tracts can also be affected by shock

90
Q

What are the side affects of ketamine?

A

It can lead to muscle tightness and agneustic breathing

91
Q

Why might a heartworm patient be given aspirin?

A

Because it can be used to decrease the risk of clot formation

92
Q

What would you use for supraventricular EKG abnormalities?

A

Digoxin

93
Q

What would be used to treat ventricular EKG abnormalities?

A

Lidocaine

94
Q

What is the generic name of a drug also called?

A

The non-proprietary name

95
Q

What kind of drug is ketamine?

A

A dissociative anesthetic often used for induction of anesthesia; it is an NMDA receptor antagonist and also binds to opioid receptors, which provides analgesic effect

96
Q

What principle will always improve radiographic image quality?

A

Use the highest milliampere (mA) setting and lowest time (s) setting possible to achieve the desired mAs

97
Q

A Golden retriever ingests several tablespoons of antifreeze. This will cause the most damage to what organ system?

A

Ethylene glycol (EG), the primary ingredient in antifreeze, causes damage to the renal system (kidneys); EG causes damage to the renal tubular epithelium, causing build up of oxalate crystals in the renal tubules and metabolic acidosis

98
Q

Oxidative damage to red blood cells commonly causes formation of what?

A

Heinz bodies are round structures seen in red blood cells that represent denatured hemoglobin caused by oxidative damage

99
Q

What are the clinical signs of a pyometra?

A

Clinical symptoms include decreased appetite, lethargy, fever, and polyuria/polydipsia

100
Q

What is the maximum amount of time a catheter bandage should stay on?

A

4 hours

101
Q

What is the negative aspect of a direct smear to identify parasites?

A

Small sample size

102
Q

There is an enzyme in about 40% of rabbits that neutralizes a common drug. What drug is not used in rabbits because of this?

A

Atropine

103
Q

How is tularemia transmitted (what is the vector)?

A

Ticks

104
Q

The fetlock joint of a horse refers to what structure?

A

Metacarpophalangeal joint

105
Q

A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following?

A

Chylothorax

106
Q

Which of the following drugs would be the most likely to cause a nephrotoxicity?

A

Gentamicin

107
Q

What is the term to describe eating non-food items?

A

Pica

108
Q

If an animal ingest xylitol, what toxicity syndrome could they develop?

A

Hypoglycemia, treat with supportive care and Dextrose

109
Q

What is the usual vector of western equine encephalitis?

A

Mosquito

110
Q

What is agonal breathing?

A

It is characterized by shallow, slow, irregular inspirations followed by irregular pauses

111
Q

A dog with bradycardia and a low albumin on a high rate of IV fluids is at risk for developing what?

A

Pulmonary edema

112
Q

What should be given to treat a cat with diabetes and a low/acidic pH of 6.4?

A

Sodium bicarbonate will help increase the blood pH

113
Q

Pre-anesthetic drugs are used for all of the following reasons except what?

A

To decrease blood pressure

114
Q

What medication is considered a gastric “band-aid”?

A

Sucralfate (Carafate) acts as a sticky paste that binds with proteins found in ulcers and adheres there like a band-aid to aid in protection and healing

115
Q

Several Heinz bodies have been identified on a blood smear of a sick dog. What is this an indication of?

A

Heinz bodies are seen whenever oxidative damage occurs to the red blood cell; they can be seen with immune mediated hemolytic anemia or ingestion of certain toxins (onions)

116
Q

What drug is contraindicated in a patient with chronic AV block?

A

Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor) is an alpha 2 agonist of which the major side effect is bradycardia; patients with 1st degree AV block are often already bradycardic, and the AV block could be made worse by giving an alpha 2 agonist

117
Q

What is the effect of administering a diuretic, such as furosemide?

A

Diuretics work to flush out excess water and sodium from the body (which would decrease blood pressure) and thus increase urine output; they are most commonly used in treating congestive heart failure as the goal is to control pulmonary edema

118
Q

What is a normal CVP reading?

A

0-10 cm H2O, central venous pressure is the blood pressure of the thoracic vena cava and is helpful in monitoring the hydration status of a patient

119
Q

What disease can cause a severe bradycardia that could be life-threatening?

A

Addison’s disease

120
Q

What drug is NOT approved for the use in cattle?

A

Xylazine

121
Q

Where would you find Anaplasma marginale?

A

Erythrocytes of cattle

122
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

A variation in cell size, not shape

123
Q

What is anisokaryosis?

A

A variation in the amount of cytoplasm present in a cell and not necessarily shape or size

124
Q

What is poikilocytosis?

A

It describes a variation in cell shape

125
Q

How many milligrams are in 100 ml of a 3% solution?

A
  • A 3% solution is equal to 30 mg/mL

- Now take 100 mL X 30 mg/mL = 3000 mg = 3 grams

126
Q

What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host of a parasite?

A

The parasite does not undergo development on the animal

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