Most attempts Flashcards

1
Q

Atenolol

A

a beta blocker; slows AV nodal conduction to decrease the ventricular response rate to afib

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2
Q

Procainamide

A

a class 1a anti-arrhythmic; used in attempts to convert afib to a NSR; but rarely effective

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3
Q

Diltiazem

A

a Ca channel blocker and can be used to slow AV nodal conduction and ventricular response rate

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4
Q

Digoxin

A

increases vagal tone to the AV node to slow conduction and decrease HR

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5
Q

Isoproterenol

A

non-specific beta receptor agonist; increases ventricular rate in response to afib

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6
Q

In Afib, what drug should you not reach for and why?

A

Isoproterenol; itll up your ventricular rate in response to afib- which we dont need!

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7
Q

A horse ingests JIMSONWEED which contains SCOPOLAMINE- what is the tx of choice?

A

Physostigmine

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8
Q

What enzyme do you test for to diagnose selenium deficiency?

A

glutathione peroxidase

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9
Q

What is diazepam implicated in causing in cats?

A

acute fulminant hepatic necrosis; greatest risk when administered repeatedly and orally; this happens because metabolism of the drug happens in the liver and creates toxic metabolites; and if the cat is glutathione deficieny, they are at an increased risk

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10
Q

what drug has been implicated in causing acute renal failure in horses?

A

phenylbutazone; its an NSAID; another big category is aminoglycosides

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11
Q

after a tibial plateau leveling ostetomy, what will still be present

A

cranial drawer because you never have a CCL

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12
Q

what is the equation for PPV?

A

A/(A+B)

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13
Q

what is the % that blood constitutes in BW(kg) in a cow?

A

7-8%

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14
Q

how many blood groups do cattle have

A

11

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15
Q

which blood groups in cattle have the greatest clinical relevancy?

A

B and J

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16
Q

What is the causative agent of salmon poisioning (in dogs)?

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca; but it is carried by the fluke, Nanophyetus salmincola, which requires the snail, Oxytrema silicula

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17
Q

what is a major cause of miliary dermatitis in cats

A

flea allergy dermatitis

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18
Q

how would a cat look with miliairy dermatitis?

A

crusted papules along the cat’s neck and back, as well as severe pruritis

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19
Q

what agent do you use to sedate a fish; withdrawal time?

A

Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS 222); 21d withdrawal

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20
Q

Phenobarbital - most common side effect

A

sedation

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21
Q

In a Macaw- what would one expect clinically with proventricular dilation syndrome

A

regurgitation, weight loss with a good appetite, polyuria, and passage of undigested seeds

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22
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for transitional cell carcinoma at the trigone of the bladder (dogs)

A

Piroxicam and carboplatin

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23
Q

What is oligozoospermatism

A

less than the normal number of spermatozoa in semen

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24
Q

what pathologies could cause oligozoospermatism in a stallion (3)?

A

testicular degeneration, testicular hypoplasia, old age

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25
Q

what are some tx for hyperkalemia?

A

calcium gluconate, calcium chloride, insulin and glucose

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26
Q

what is the mean circulating life span of a cat RBC

A

68d

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27
Q

what is the mean circulating life span of a dog RBC

A

110d

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28
Q

You see a kid goat (10-12 blocks) that has developed a high fever, swollen and painful joints, and respiratory signs including tachypnea and dyspnea. what are we thinking?

A

mycoplasma mycoides ssp mycoides

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29
Q

what agent causes mycoplasma mastitis in cattle?

A

mycoplasma bovis

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30
Q

what would a cecal displacement or torsion feel like on a rectal exam in a cow?

A

a loaf of bread just cranial to the pelvis

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31
Q

when do we use hyposensitization treatments in dogs?

A

for atopy (environmental allergies)

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32
Q

What is the causative agent of fowl cholera

A

gram neg Pasteurella multocida

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33
Q

On postmortem exam of a chicken with fowl cholera, what could one expect to see in abd organs?

A

vascular hyperemia

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34
Q

Why does “Infectious laryngotracheitis virus” in chickens have a latent phase?

A

because its a herpesvirus! latent phase in neural tissue

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35
Q

What is the optimal treatment and management of Gasterophilus spp in equine?

A

prompt removal of feces and administer ivermectin 2x annually, once in the early summer and again in the fall

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36
Q

What signalment of rabbit do we commonly see a uterine adenocarcinoma in?

A

80% incidence among intact females–New Zealand White rabbit

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37
Q

T or F: Rabbits are induced ovulators

38
Q

What are the causative agents of gangrenous mastitis in ewes?

A

Mannheimia spp and Staph aureus

39
Q

define crichpharyngeal achalasia

A

the pharyngeoesophageal sphincter fails to relax

40
Q

what is the causative agent (bacterial) for canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?

A

Ehrlichia canis

41
Q

T or F: Some of the genes can transfer from a bird strain to a human strain, thus producing a much more virulent strain that can affect humans

42
Q

what is the tx for deep digital flexor tendon contracture?

A

distal check desmotomy and corrective shoeing

43
Q

what values would we expect to see on chemistry in a bird with egg yolk peritonitis

A

heterophilia, increased AST, CK, and fibrinogen

44
Q

what condition is associated with excess dietary calcium and vit D in young horses?

A

osteochondrosis

45
Q

what is the most common serum elecrtolyte abnormalities in a foal with uroperitoneum

A

hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypochloremia; the urine is high in potassium and low in sodium and chloride, thus when uroabdomen occurs, the electrolytes equilibrate between the serum and abd fluid

46
Q

Avian fowl pox: what are the two forms

A

A) nodules and scabs that on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent
B) diptheritic membrane in the mouth and pharynx

47
Q

what is the best treatment for a flock with avian fowl pox

A

control mosquito populations and vaccinate chicks or replacement chickens with a single immunization against avian pox

48
Q

what does activated charcoal effectively bind

48
Q

In a cow with LDA, what is expected temp, pulse, and RR

49
Q

what is the expected intraocular pressure in a dog with acute anterior uveitis? why

A

6 mmHg; in acute case;. in chronic cases, there is glaucoma and high pressures

50
Q

What kind of lesions or pathologies can we expect when cows eat lupine (ie. lukine alkaloids)

A

fetal teratogenic: “crooked calf” (arthrogryposis) or cleft palate

51
Q

what happens when cows ingest pyrrolizidine alkaloids?

A

liver shit

52
Q

what happens when cows ingest large amount of brackern fern

A

bone marrow suppression

53
Q

what is a predisposing factor for prolapse in a bird that only eats seeds?

A

calcium deficiency

54
Q

number the dog’s toes and explicity say how the counting starts (medial or lateral

A

numbered from 1 to 5 starting medially with small 1st metacarpal that is associated with the dewclaw

55
Q

what ab is contraindicated for use in guinea pigs

A

streptomycin

56
Q

what does Amphotericin B (an antifungal) act on?

A

fungal cell membrane

57
Q

what is amphotericin B (an antifungal) toxic to (organ)

58
Q

on radiographs of a SA, what would be depicted, or associated with, for a pleural effusion?

A

severe loss of detail to the thorax and retraction of the lung lobes

59
Q

what is a clinical sign of horner’s in a horse

A

sweating on the ipsilateral head and neck; and then also, enopthalmos, ptosis, and miosis, prolapsed 3rd eyelid

60
Q

a turtle’s eyelids are markedly swollen due to palpebral edema and nasal discharge. what would be really helpful to know to help determine the etiology of these clinical signs

A

the turtle’s diet; the signs are associated with Vit a deficiency; this vit is an antioxidant and is super important for proper function of the eyes, skin, and mm.

61
Q

Number and distribution of lung lobes in the D and C

A

6- L (cr, cau), R(cra, middle, cau, and acc)

62
Q

what are soft ticks associated with in horses?

A

uncommonly associated with muscle tremors; as compared to hard ticks which carry bacterial infections

63
Q

what is monitored when a dog is being treated with mitotane (op-DDD)?

A

inappetance

64
Q

Diabetes insipidus refers to lack of production or response to…

A

vasopressin; central refers to lack of RELEASE of vasopressin by the posterior pit gland, while nephrogenic refers to inappropriate response to vasopressin

65
Q

Goats: first started on pregnant does, now most of the herd is affected to varying degress; papules and nodules along the face, neck, and/or udder, non-pruritic; feed consumption and milk production remains normal. what are we thinking?

A

Demodex caprae

66
Q

what is the most common source of campylobacter infection in humans

A

undercooked chicken

67
Q

explain hyposensitization therapy for atopy

A

injecting progressively increasing amounts of known allergens into the patient in order to gradually increase their tolerance of the allergens without developing clinical signs

68
Q

What finding in blood or tissues would diagnose fowl cholera?

A

gram negative bacteria in blood or tissues; coupled with vascular hyperemia of the abdominal organs

69
Q

what do we sedate fish with?

A

MS 222 (Tricaine methanesulfonate)

70
Q

what is the underlying virus assc with psittacine beak and feather disease?

A

circovirus; PCR probe of whole blood for this

71
Q

what is hydrops allantois (hydroallantois)

A

its a disorder of the placenta; rapid accumulation of 100-200 liters of watery, clear fluid during the last trimester; prognosis for the fetus is guarded and the cow will as a result be infertile

72
Q

a 2d old jack russell terrier presents on emergency basis for lethargy and decreased suckling. what is the most likely diagnosis?

A

hypoglycemia

73
Q

what drugs can we use for a strongyle infestation in a horse?

A

ivermectin, fenbendazole, oxibendazole

74
Q

if an dog is clinically okay, but on cardiac auscultation presents with a 2/6 left systolic mumur over the heart (everything else wnl): (1) what is the likely cardiac condition and (2) does it need meds

A

myxomatous mitral valve degeneration and no, not currently

75
Q

T or F: Cats can be asymptomatic carries of ringwom

76
Q

what ratio should you asses on chemistry when suspicious of hypoadrenocorticism

A

Na:K ratio; below 27:1

77
Q

what virus causes hairy shaker lambs

A

border disease virus; a pestivirus

78
Q

if an anesthesized patient enters an acidotic state, how can one intervene?

A

increase the rate of mechanical ventilation

79
Q

How can we distinguish infectious laryngotracheitis from the diptheric form of fowl pox?

A

intranuclear inclusion bodies in the tracheal epithelium

80
Q

in what commercial species is it standard practice to use AI in?

81
Q

which fatty acid is really good at decreasing inflammation?

A

Omega-3s! (omega 6 is good for coat quality)

82
Q

what are the two common types of ureteroliths and uroliths in the horse?

A

calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate

83
Q

what is the tx for tuberculosis in cattle

A

cull/slaughter

84
Q

what are the typical clinical signs associated with infectious bovine rhinotracheitis?

A

upper resp tract signs (loud hacking cough, sneezing, fever, anorexia, open mouth breathing, and mucopurulent nasal discharge) and white plaques on the conjunctiva and nasal epithelium

85
Q

What drug is approved for treating acute respiratory disease in food animals?

86
Q

what is so scary about staph food poisoning?

A

the strains of bacteria that cause it make a heat-stable enterotoxin

87
Q

How do you rid a dairy herd of Leptospira interrogans serovar Hardjo?

A

treat all animals with tetracycline to eliminate carriers and regularly vaccinate all cattle against the serovar

88
Q

if we are suspicious of swine influenza virus, what samples should we collect ?

A

nasal swabs from aborted sows; it is not found in blood or the aborted fetuses

89
Q

what is a potential side effect of L-asparaginase?

A

anaphylaxis (vomit intractably, dx, weak, unable to get up)

90
Q

What is a potential side effect of vincristine

A

vx, dx, but takes a few days to start (as compated to l-asparaginase)