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CT Exam Review > Mosby's CT Exam Review 1 > Flashcards

Mosby's CT Exam Review 1 Flashcards

1
Q

An average range of activated partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is….

a. 10-12 seconds
b. 17-21 seconds
c. 25-35 seconds
d. 43-55 seconds

A

c. 25-35 seconds

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2
Q

Which of the following is the correct angle of insertion for placing a butterfly needle into a vein for IV administration of a contrast agent?

a. 5 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 60 degrees

A

b. 15 degrees

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3
Q

A total volume of 125 mL of an iodinated contrast agent is administered via IV/automatic injector in 50 seconds. The flow rate for the injection is….

a. 0.75 mL/sec
b. 1.25 mL/sec
c. 1.75 mL/sec
d. 2.5 mL/sec

A

d. 25. mL/sec

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4
Q

The condition whereby the pt. suffers from a low concentration of oxygen in the blood is known as…

a. hypoxemia
b. hypotension
c. hypoxia
d. hyponatremia

A

a. hypoxemia

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5
Q

While one is obtaining a thorough history from a pt. before IV injection of iodinated contrast, which of the following topics should be included?

  1. any prior allergic reaction to contrast media
  2. presence of HIV or hepatitis infection
  3. history of asthma
    a. 1 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1,2, and 3
A

c. 1 and 3 only

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6
Q

Which of the following factors may affect a pt’s calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

  1. age 2. sex 3. race
    a. 1 and 2 only
    b. 2 and 3 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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7
Q

Which of the following IV contrast administration methods provides the greatest overall plasma iodine concentration?

a. drip infusion
b. bolus technique
c. biphasic technique
d. CT portography

A

b. bolus technique

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8
Q

A pt. in shock may exhibit which of the following symptoms?
1. tachycardia 2. rapid, shallow breathing 3. cyanosis
a, 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2, and 3

A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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9
Q

The drug SOLU-CORTEF may be classified as which of the following?

a. anticholinergic
b. bronchodilator
c. antihistamine
d. corticosteroid

A

d. corticosteroid

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10
Q

Which of the following is a nonionic contrast material?

a. iodamide
b. iothalamate
c. iohexol
d. diatrizoate

A

c. iohexol

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11
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a patient who is having difficulty breathing?

a. dyslexia
b. dyspnea
c. dysphagia
d. dysphasia

A

b. dyspnea

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12
Q

Which of the following describes the situation in which an assumption is made that an unconscious or otherwise physically unable pt. consents to medical treatment?

a. informed consent
b. witnessed consent
c. patient proxy
d. implied consent

A

d. implied consent

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13
Q

Complete cardiac diastole corresponds to which portion of the cardiac cycle on an electrocardiogram?

a. P wave
b. QRS complex
c. alpha wave
d. T wave

A

d. T wave

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14
Q

During the CT arthrography, iodinated contrast media is injected directly into the…

a. joint space
b. intrathecal space
c. subarachnoid space
d. venous bloodstream

A

a. joint space

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15
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the iso-osmolar contrast media?

a. iodixanol
b. iopamidol
c. iohexol
d. ioversol

A

a. iodixanol

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16
Q

A common site for the IV administration of iodinated contrast media is the anterior recess of the elbow, otherwise known as the….

a. brachial fossa
b. olecranon fossa
c. retroulnar space
d. antecubital space

A

d. antecubital space

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17
Q

The potentially serious decline in renal function after IV admin. of iodinated contrast material include…

a. anaphylaxis
b. brochospasm
c. contrast induced nephrotoxicity
d. urticaria

A

c. contrast induced nephrotoxicity (CIN)

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18
Q

Advantages of a saline flush immediately after the IV administration of iodinated contrast material include…

  1. reduction in required contrast agent dose
  2. reduction in incidence of CIN
  3. reduction in streaking artifact from dense contrast agent in the vasculature
    a. 1 only
    b. 3 only
    c. 2 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2 , and 3
A

d. 1, 2 , and 3

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19
Q

Which of the following medications may be administered to dilate the coronary vasculature prior to a cardiac CT exam?

a. sublingual nitroglycerine
b. a beta blocker
c. atrophine
d. albuterol

A

a. sublingual nitroglycerine

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20
Q

A normal range for the diastolic blood pressure as an adult is…

a. 40-60 mm Hg
b. 60-90 mm Hg
c. 80-120 mm Hg
d. 95-140 mm Hg

A

b. 60-90 mm Hg

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21
Q

Which of the following is a parenteral route of medication administration?

a. sublingual
b. intramuscular
c. transdermal
d. oral

A

c. transdermal

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22
Q

Which of the following types of isolation techniques protects against infection transmitted through fecal material?

a. acid-fast bacillus isolation
b. contact isolation
c. enteric isolation
d. drainage-secretion isolation

A

c. enteric isolation

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23
Q

Which of the following is considered one of the ionic radiopaque contrast media?

a. iohexol
b. iothalamate meglumine
c. iopamidol
d. ioversol

A

b. iothalamate meglumine

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24
Q

A patient who appears drowsy but can be aroused is said to be…

a. comatose
b. lethargic
c. obtunded
d. semicomatose

A

b. lethargic

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25
Q

Direct contraindications to the administration of iodinated contrast material include:

  1. prior life-threatening reaction to ICM
  2. multiple myeloma
  3. diabetes
    a. 1 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

a. 1 only

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26
Q

The acronym CTDI is used to describe which of the following?

a. a specialized CT imaging technique used to measure bone mineral density
b. a quality control test that measures the accuracy of the laser lighting system
c. the radiation dose to the pt. during CT scan
d. a high-speed Ct scanner used for cardiac imaging

A

c. the radiation dose to the pt. during Ct scan

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27
Q

Contact shields made of _________ may be used to selectively protect radiosensitive organs within the scanned region during a CT aquisition.

a. bismuth
b. aluminum
c. lead
d. molybdenum

A

a. bismuth

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28
Q

Which of the following devices is used to measure the pt. dose from a CT examination?

a. Geiger counter
b. proportional counter
c. ionization chamber
d. film badge

A

c. ionization chamber

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29
Q

Which of the following technical factors have a direct effect on pt. dose?

a. matrix size
b. algorithm
c. mAs
d. window level

A

c. mAs

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30
Q

To meet current industry standards for required dose reduction measures, a CT system must employ which of the following:

  1. AEC
  2. adult and pediatric protocols
  3. DICOM and RDSR
    a. 1 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 2 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2 , and 3
A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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31
Q

When implementing a scan protocol for a CT of the abdomen w/o contrast on a pediatric patient (40lb/18kg), which technical factor is primarily adjusted?

a. detector configuration
b. tube milliamperage (mA)
c. scan field of view (FOV)
d. reconstruction algorithm

A

b. tube milliamperage (mA)

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32
Q

Whole-body risk based upon the radiosensitivity of exposed tissues may be estimated using the unit:

a. stochastic dose
b. kerma
c. effective dose
d. CT dose index (CTDI)

A

c. effective dose

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33
Q

The use of reconstruction techniques for CT data processing results in:

  1. decreased noise on the reconstructed image
  2. decreased radiation dose to the pt.
  3. decreased image reconstruction time
    a. 3 only
    b. 1 an 2 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

b. 1 and 2 only

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34
Q

Which of the following methods may be employed to reduce the radiation dose to the pediatric patient undergoing CT?

  1. reduce mA
  2. limit phases of acquisition
  3. increase pitch
    a. 1 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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35
Q

A decrease in the focus-to-detector distance of a multidetector CT system would result in:

a. increased patient dose
b. decrease patient dose
c. magnification of the image
d. loss of contrast resolution

A

a. increased patient dose

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36
Q

The radiation dose index calculation that takes into account the variations in absorption across the field of view due to beam hardening is termed…

a. CTDIw
b. CTDI100
c. CTDIvol
d. MSAD

A

a. CTDIw

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37
Q

The radiation dose structured report (RDSR) must include which of the following details regarding a CT acquisition:

  1. tube current (mA)
  2. display field of view (DFOV)
  3. tube voltage (kVP)
  4. acquisition time (seconds)
  5. acquisition length (mm)
    a. 1 only
    b. 1, 2, and 4
    c. 1, 2, 4, and 5
    d. all (1-5)
A

c. 1, 2, 4, and 5

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38
Q

The reduction in intensity of the CT x-ray beam as it passes through patient issue may be generally termed:

a. isotrophy
b. photodisintergration
c. attenuation
d. absorption

A

c. attenuation

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39
Q

Which of the following clinical scenarios could result in an unnecessary increase in radiation dose to the patient?

  1. using in-plane bismuth shielding with longitudinal and angular tube current modulation
  2. increasing the tube potential (kVp) without a compensatory decrease in tube current (mA)
  3. increasing technical factors to produce a noise-free image
    a. 3 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 2 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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40
Q

The dose length product (DLP) of a given CT acquisition may be calculated according to which of the following?

  1. MSAD x slice width (cm) x # of slices in scan volume
  2. CTDIvol x scan length (cm)
  3. pitch x CTDIvol
    a. 3 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 1 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

b. 1 and 2 only

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41
Q

A modern CT system may employ complex collimation along the z-axis to reduce patient radiation exposure due to:

a. binning
b. beam hardening
c. overbeaming
d. interpolation

A

c. overbeaming

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42
Q

Which of the following units is used to express the total pt. dose from a helically acquired CT examination?

a. roengten (R)
b. curie (Ci)
c. R-cm (roengten per cm)
d. mGy-cm (milligrays per cm)

A

d. milligrays per cm (mGy-cm)

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43
Q

Components of a comprehensive CT stroke management protocol typically include:

  1. precontrast sequence of the brain
  2. CT angiogram (CTA) of the brain and carotids
  3. CT perfusion (CTP) of the brain
    a. 2 only
    b. 1 and 2 only
    c. 2 and 3 only
    d. 1, 2, and 3
A

d. 1, 2, and 3

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44
Q

Number 1 on the figure 6.1 corresponds to which of the following:

a. left pulmonary artery
b. ascending aorta
c. inferior vena cava
d. descending aorta

A

a. L pulmonary artery

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45
Q

Which number on the figure 6.1 corresponds to the superior vena cava?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

c. 4

46
Q

The abnormal density located in the posterior portion of the left lung field on the figure 6.1 has an average attenuation value of +5.0 Hounsfield units. The density most likely represents:

a. pneumothorax
b. hemothorax
c. atelectasis
d. pleural effusion

A

d. pleural effusion

47
Q

Simple cysts of the kidney have average attentuation values in the range of:

a. -40 to 0 hounsfield units
b. 0 to +20 hounsfield units
c. +30 to +50 hounsfield units
d. above +60 hounsfield units

A

b. 0 to +20 hounsfield uits

48
Q

After initation of rapid bolus administration of an iodinated contrast agent, the arterial phase of hepatic contrast enhancement occurs at approximately:

a. 15-20 seconds
b. 25-35 seconds
c. 60-70 seconds
d. 120-180 seconds

A

b. 25-35 seconds

49
Q

Number 2 on image 6.2 corresponds to which of the following?

a. left internal jugular vein
b. left external carotid artery
c. left internal carotid artery
d. left external jugular vein

A

c. left internal carotid artery

50
Q 
Number 5 on image 6.2 corresponds to which of the following?
a. right internal jugular vein
b. right external cartoid artery
c right internal carotid artery
d. right external jugular vein
A

a. right internal jugular vein

51
Q

Numbe 1 on image 6.2 corresponds to which of the following?

a. vocal cords
b. uvula
c. aryepiglottic fold
d. epiglottis

A

d. epiglottis

52
Q

The abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of:

a. T10
b. T12
c. L2
d. L4

A

d. L4

53
Q

The accumulation of gas within a degenerating intervertebral disc is called the:

a. aeration effect
b. vacuum phenomenon
c. oxygen saturation point
d. carbonization sign

A

b. vacuum phenomenon

54
Q

Which of the following CT studies of the head is typically performed without a contrast agent?

a. CT angiogram of the circle of willis
b. coronal scan to rule out pituitary tumor
c. CT of the brain to rule out subdural hematoma
d. CT of the brain to rule out metastatic disease

A

c. CT of the brain to r/o subdural hematoma

55
Q

Which of the following phases of renal contrast enhancement best demonstrates transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?

a. early arterial
b. corticomedullary
c. nephrographic
d. excretory

A

d. excretory

56
Q

Number 5 on image 6.3 corresponds to which of the following?

a. transverse colon
b. stomach
c. duodenum
d. hepatic flexure

A

b. stomach

57
Q

Which of the following most likely describes the pt. position during the formation of the image 6.3?

a. supine
b. prone
c. left lateral decubitus
d. right lateral decubitus

A

d. right lateral decubitus

58
Q

CT examinations of the abdomen are often performed in the position on figure 6.3 to demonstrate the relationship between the:

a. ureters and renal collecting systems
b. duodenum and pancreatic head
c. large and small colon
d. liver and gallbladder

A

b. duodenum and pancreatic head

59
Q

Number 3 on figure 6.3 corresponds to which of the following?

a. right ureter
b. inferior vena cava
c. renal calculi
d. right renal artery

A

a. right ureter

60
Q

The still viable ischemic cerebral tissue that surrounds the infarct core in a patient with an acute stroke is termed the:

a. thrombolytic zone
b. hemorrhage focus
c. ischemic penumbra
d. stroke volume

A

c. ischemic penumbra

61
Q

Complex fractures of the wrist are most common in which of the following carpal bones?

a. hamate
b. scaphoid
c. capitate
d. triquetrum

A

b. scaphoid

62
Q

A complete Ct study of the orbits should include:

a. thick section (5-10mm) axial images only
b. thick section (5-10mm) axial and coronal images
c. thin section (1-3 mm) coronal sections only
d. thin section (1-3 mm) axial and coronal sections

A

d. thin section (1-3 mm) axial and coronal sections

63
Q

High resoluation CT is most commonly used for the evaluation of the:

a. pancreas
b. brain
c. lungs
d. pelvis

A

c. lungs

64
Q

During a general CT exam of the abdomen, an IV contrast agent is indicated and is administered with the aid of an automatic injector. Which of the following flow rates should be used?

a. 0.2-1.0 ml/sec
b. 1.0-3.0 ml/sec
c. 4.0-6.0 ml/sec
d. 7.0-10.0 ml/sec

A

b. 1.0-3.0 ml/sec

65
Q

Diffuse fatty infiltration of the hepatic parenchyma may be referred to as:

a. chromatosis
b. steatosis
c. cirrhosis
d. lipomatosis

A

b. steatosis

66
Q

Which of the following corresponds to the low-attenuation area indicated by number 3 on image 6.4?

a. renal cortex
b. renal pelvis
c. renal calyx
d. renal pyramid

A

d. renal pyramid

67
Q

The data for this reformatted image 6.4 of the abdomen was most likely acquired in which of the following renal enhancement phases?

a. precontrast
b. corticomedullary
c. nephrographic
d. excretory

A

b. corticomedullary

68
Q

Number 2 on image 6.4 corresponds to which of the following?

a. hepatic vein
b. suprarenal lymph node
c. adrenal gland
d. common bile duct

A

c. adrenal gland

69
Q

Number 6 on image 6.4 corresponds to which of the following?

a. psoas muscle
b. omentum
c. piriformis muscle
d. erector spinae muscle

A

a. psoas muscle

70
Q

Ct images of the chest should be acquired with the patient:

a. at full inspiration
b. breathing quietly
c. at full expiration
d. breathing normally

A

a. at full inspiration

71
Q

During CT scanning of the head, the gantry should be angled:

a. 15 degrees above the infraorbital-meatal line (IOML)
b. 10 degrees below the IOML
c. 0 degrees
d. 20 degrees above skull base

A

a. 15 degrees above the IOML

72
Q

During Ct examination of the laryx, the pt. is often instructed to phonate the letter “E” in order to properly evaluate the:

a. epiglottis
b. uvula
c. trachea
d. vocal cords

A

d. vocal cords

73
Q

Number 2 of image 6.5 corresponds with which of the following?

a. carotid canal
b. incus
c. cochlea
d. vestibule

A

c. cochlea

74
Q

Number 4 of image 6.5 corresponds with which of the following?

a. external auditory meatus
b. internal auditory canal
c. cochlea
d. vestibule

A

d. carotid canal

75
Q

Which of the following display field of view (DFOV) values was most likely used to display image 6.5?

a. 9.6 cm
b. 18.0 cm
c. 25.6 cm
d. 51.2 cm

A

a. 9.6 cm

76
Q

Number 3 of image 6.5 corresponds to which of the following?

a. vestibule
b. semicircular canal
c. cochlea
d. incus

A

a. vestibule

77
Q

During a CT examination of a female pelvis for suspected malignancy, ascites may be present in an area posterior to the uterus and ovaries known as:

a. the cul-de-sac
b. Morison pouch
c. the space of Retzius
d. the prevesical department

A

a. the cul-de-sac

78
Q

Which of the following pathologic processes may be considered an interstitial disease of the lungs?

a. brochiectasis
b. mediastinal lymphadenopathy
c. pulmonary metastasis
d. brochogenic carcinoma

A

a. brochiectasis

79
Q

An enterovesical fistula is an abnormal communication between the bowel and the:

a. uterus
b. bladder
c. vagina
d. umbilicus

A

b. bladder

80
Q

Positioning the pt. with the knees flexed over a foam cushion during CT exam of the lumbar spine assists in:

  1. decreasing kyphotic curvature of the lumbar spine
  2. making the pt. more comfortable throughout the exam
  3. decreasing the lordotic curvature of the lumbar spine
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 3 only
    d. 2 and 3 only
A

d. 2 and 3 only

81
Q

The imagine plane that is parallel to the foot’s plantar surface is called the:

a. coronal plane
b. sagittal plane
c. axial plane
d. oblique axial plane

A

c. axial plane

82
Q

The condition of intermittent cramping pain in the lgs due to poor circulation is called:

a. varices
b. claudication
c. stenosis
d. thrombosis

A

b. claudication

83
Q

The pathologic process indicated by number 3 on figure 6.6 likely corresponds to:

a. atelectasis
b. lymphadenopathy
c. pleural effusion
d. ground-glass opacity

A

d. ground-glass opacity

84
Q

Number 1 on the figure 6.6 corresponds to which of the following?

a. right atrium
b. pulmonary trunk
c. ascending aorta
d. right ventricle

A

c. ascending aorta

85
Q

The high-resolution CT image of the chest (6.6) was most likely acquired with a section width of:

a. 1 mm
b. 5 mm
c. 7 mm
d. 10 mm

A

a. 1 mm

86
Q

Number 2 on figure 6.6 corresponds to which of the following?

a. left mainstream brochus
b. anterior segment of left upper lobe bronchus
c. posterior segment of left upper love bronchus
d. anterior segment of left lower lobe bronchus

A

b. anterior segment of left upper lobe bronchus

87
Q 
The pituitary gland is best demonstrated during CT in which of the following imaging planes?
a, axial
b. coronal
c. sagittal
d. transaxial
A

b. coronal

88
Q

The most common site of organ injury due to blunt abdominal trauma is the:

a. liver
b. kidney
c. spleen
d. pancreas

A

c. spleen

89
Q

Number 7 on figure 6.7 corresponds to which o the following?

a. duodenum
b. pancreatic head
c. jejunum
d. galbladder

A

b. pancreatic head

90
Q

Number 2 on figure 6.7 corresponds to which of the following?

a. superior mesenteric vein
b. superior mesenteric artery
c. renal artery
d. portal vein

A

a. superior mesenteric vein

91
Q

Number 8 on figure 6.7 corresponds to which of the following?

a. duodenum
b. descending colon
c. jejunum
d. ascending colon

A

d. ascending colon

92
Q

The adult spinal cord end at what vertebral level?

a. T11-T12
b. L1-L2
c. L3-L4
d. superior portion of the coccyx

A

b. L1-L2

93
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe a fibroid tumor of the uterus?

a. leiomyoma
b. cystic teratoma
c. endometriosis
d. corpus luteum

A

a. leiomyoma

94
Q

Number 1 on figure 6.8 corresponds to which of the following?

a. sphenoid sinus
b. ethmoid sinus
c. frontal sinus
d. maxillary sinus

A

b. ethmoid sinus

95
Q

The section thickness that would demonstrate the greatest detail of the paranasal sinuses is:

a. 3 mm
b. 5 mm
c. 7 mm
d. 10 mm

A

a. 3 mm

96
Q

Which number on the figure 6.8 corresponds to the zygomatic bone?

a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 6

A

c. 2

97
Q

Which of the following anatomic organs is located within the peritoneal cavity?

a. pancreas
b. kidneys
c. uterus
d. liver

A

d. liver

98
Q

Which of the following may be included as part of a routine preparation for a general contrast-enhanced CT examination of the abdomen and pelvis?

  1. NPO 4 hours prior to examination
  2. 1200 mL of oral contrast 90 minutes before examination
  3. pt. drinks 4 liters of PEG 24 hours before examination
    a. 1 only
    b. 2 only
    c. 1 and 2 only
    d. 1 and 3 only
A

c. 1 and 2 only

99
Q

During a complete CT scan of the pelvis, sections should be obtained from the:

a. iliac crests to pubic symphysis
b. kidneys through bladder
c. bottom of the kidneys to the pubic symphysis
d. iliac crests to the lesser trochanter

A

a. iliac crests to pubic symphysis

100
Q

Number 4 on image 6.9 corresponds to which of the following?

a. navicular
b. cuboid
c. calcaneus
d. talus

A

b. cuboid

101
Q

Which of the following best describes the type of image displayed in figure 6.9?

a. sagittal MIP
b. direct sagittal acquisition
c. sagittal MPR
d. volume rendered 3-D

A

c. sagittal MPR

102
Q

Number 6 on figure 6.9 coreesponds to which of the following?

a. navicular
b. cuboid
c. calcaneus
d. talus

A

a. navicular

103
Q

Number 1 on image 6.9 corresponds to which of the following?

a. navicular
b. cuboid
c. calcaneus
d. talus

A

d. talus

104
Q

Because of its inherent iodine concentration, the thyroid gland appears _________ on CT images.

a. hypodense
b. isodense
c. hyperdense
d. mottled

A

c. hyperdense

105
Q

Air trapping within the trachea and bronchial tree may be optimally demonstrated with multiplanar volume reconstructions of the thorax known as:

a. maximum intensity projections (MIP)
b. 3-D volume renderings
c. shaded-surface displays
d. minimum intensity projections

A

d. minimum intensity projections

106
Q

Which number on figure 6.10 corresponds to the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle?

a. 1
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2

A

b. 5

107
Q

Number 3 on figure 6.10 corresponds to which of the following?

a. caudate nucleus
b. thalamus
c. third ventricle
d. pineal gland

A

b. thalamus

108
Q

Which number on figure 6.10 corresponds to the septum pellucidum?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

c. 4

109
Q

Which of the following is NOT a portion of the small bowel?

a. duodenum
b. jejunum
c. ileum
d. cecum

A

d. cecum

110
Q

The specialized CT exam of the bladder in which iodinated contrast agent is directly administered under gravity into the bladder via Foley catheter is termed:

a. CT intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
b. CT urogram
c. CT enteroclysis
d. CT cystography

A

d. CT cystography

CT Exam Review (1 decks)

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