Mosby

Question 1

There are several tooth numbering systems, some used more than others, and some used by dental specialties or by special organizations. The so-called universal system consists of:

A. Two-digit sets of numbers for each tooth in each arch quadrant (e.g., 18 to 11).
B. Single sequential number for teeth repeated in each quadrant (e.g., 8 to 1).
C. A sequential alphabeth letter for each tooth in an entire dentition (e.g., A to T).
D. Different symbols for each numbered tooth in each quadrant (e.g., 8⎪ to 1⎪).

Answer 1

C. A sequential alphabet letter for each tooth in an entire dentition (e.g., A to T).

Question 2

From the occlusal perspective, which tooth in the primary dentition varies the most in form of which tooth in the permanent dentition varies the most?

A. Maxillary first primary molar.
B. Maxillary second primary molar.
C. Mandibular first primary molar.
D. Mandibular second primary molar.

Answer 2

A. Maxillary first primary molar.

Question 3

The primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics?

A. It is larger in all dimensions than the primary maxillary second molar.
B. All three roots can be seen from mesial perspective.
C. Bifurcation of roots begins almost immediately at the site of the cervical line (CEJ).
D. The mesial root is considerably shorter than the distal one.

Answer 3

C. Bifurcation of roots begins almost immediately at the site of the cervical line (CEJ).

Question 4

From a mesial perspective, the crown of the primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics?

A. Pronounced convexity on the buccal outline of the cervical third.
B. The cervical line mesially shows some curvature in an apical direction.
C. The dimension at the occlusal third is the same as at the cervical third.
D. The mesiobuccal cusp is longer and sharper than the mesiolingual cusp.

Answer 4

D. The mesiobuccal cusp is longer and sharper than the mesiolingual cusp.

Question 5

From the lingual perspective, the crown of the primary maxillary second molar shows which of the following?

A. Small, well-developed mesiolingual cusp.
B. Distolingual (DL) cusp smaller than the maxillary primary first molar DL cusp.
C. There is no supplemental cusp apical to them mesiolingual cusp.
D. Developmental groove separating the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps.

Answer 5

D. Developmental groove separating the mesiolingual and distolingual cusps.

Question 6

The primary mandibular first molar has which of the following characteristics?

A. Resembles other primary and permanent teeth.
B. From the occlusal perspective, has a heart-shaped outline.
C. The mesiobuccal cusp is smaller than the distobuccal cusp.
D. No developmental groove is evident between the buccal cusps.

Answer 6

D. No developmental groove is evident between the buccal cusps.

Question 7

A comparison occlusally between the primary mandibular second molar and the permanent mandibular first molar shows which of the following differences?

A. The mesio-, distobuccal, and distal cusps of the primary molar are almost equal in size; the distal cusp of the permanent molar is smaller than the other two cusps.
B. The primary molar crown is wider buccolingually (in comparison with its mesiodistal measurement) than is the permanent molar.
C. The primary molar outline is somewhat hexagonal; the permanent molar is rhomboidal.
D. The ratio of the crown/root length of both molars is the same.

Answer 7

A. The mesio-, distobuccal, and distal cusps of the primary molar are almost equal in size; the distal cusp of the permanent molar is smaller than the other two cusps.

Question 8

In comparing permanent and primary teeth, which of the following differences are noted?

A. Crowns of anterior primary teeth are narrower mesiodistally (in comparison to their crown length) than the permanent teeth.
B. Comparatively, the roots of primary anterior teeth are narrower and longer.
C. Cervical ridges of enamel of the primary anterior teeth are less prominent.
D. Buccal and lingual surfaces of primary molars are less flat above the cervical curvature than those of permanent molars

Answer 8

B. Comparatively, the roots of primary anterior teeth are narrower and longer.

Question 9

The overall length of the primary teeth that are given here are the average range of dimensions with one exception. Which range for what tooth is not correct?

A. Maxillary central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
B. Mandibular central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
C. Maxillary lateral incisor, 16 to 17 mm.
D. Mandibular lateral incisor, 15 to 17 mm.

Answer 9

B. Mandibular central incisor, 16 to 17 mm.

Question 10

For each type of tooth, the primary teeth consistently show which of the following characteristics?

A. Greater mesiodistal diameter relative to crown height than permanent teeth.
B. An elongated appearance of the primary crowns and roots.
C. Crowns that are translucent white in color.
D. Root trunk length is one-half of the crown height.

Answer 10

A. Greater mesiodistal diameter relative to crown height than permanent teeth.

Question 11

Which primary tooth is generally accepted as the first to erupt, and at about what mean age?

A. Maxillary central incisor, 8 to 12 months.
B. Maxillary central incisor, 7 to 9 months.
C. Mandibular central incisor, 6 to 10 months.
D. Mandibular central incisor, 8 to 10 months.

Answer 11

C. Mandibular central incisor, 6 to 10 months.

Question 12

A most favorable sequence of eruption for the permanent dentition is which of the following (right side)? (Eruption sequence given by numbers in parentheses.)

A. (1) 3, 30; (2) 8, 25; (3) 7, 26; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4; (6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.
B. (1) 3, 30; (2) 8, 25; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 6; (5) 28, 5; (6) 29, 4; (7) 31, 2.
C. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4; (6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.
D. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 6; (5) 28, 5; (6) 29, 4; (7) 2, 31.

Answer 12

C. (1) 30, 3; (2) 25, 8; (3) 26, 7; (4) 27, 5; (5) 28, 4; (6) 29, 6; (7) 31, 2.

Question 13

Which primary tooth generally erupts last?

A. Mandibular second molar.
B. Maxillary second molar.
C. Maxillary canine.
D. Mandibular canine.

Answer 13

B. Maxillary second molar.

Question 14

Comparing the overall length of primary central incisors (E⎪F) with permanent maxillary central incisors (8⎪9), which is the correct ratio expressed as a percentage?

A. About 50%.
B. About 60%.
C. About 70%.
D. About 80%.

Answer 14

C. About 70%.

Question 15

At what time is the crown completed for the tooth indicated?

A. Primary maxillary central incisor, 3 weeks.
B. Permanent maxillary central incisor, 2 to 3 years.
C. Primary maxillary lateral incisor, 2 to 3 months.
D. Permanent maxillary lateral incisor, 2 to 3 years.

Answer 15

C. Primary maxillary lateral incisor, 2 to 3 months.

Question 16

When are the crowns of the primary maxillary second molars completed?

A. 11 months.
B. 10 months.
C. 9 months.
D. 8 months.

Answer 16

A. 11 months.

Question 17

Which of the following is NOT a type trait of the permanent maxillary second premolar?

A. Buccal view: narrow shoulders (margins of crown; mesio- and disto-occlusal angles).
B. Occlusal table outline: ovoid.
C. Mesiomarginal groove interrupts mesial marginal ridge.
D. Lingual view: buccal profile is not visible

Answer 17

C. Mesiomarginal groove interrupts mesial marginal ridge.

Question 18

Which of the ff is not a type of trait of the permanent maxillary molars?

A. Buccal view.
First: Widest molar
Second: Intermediate width
Third: Smallest molar

B. Distolingual cusp.
First: Same size as M2
Second: Same size as M1
Third: Smallest size

C. Occlusal view.
First: Square/ Rhomboid
Second: More Rhomboid
Third: Traingle/ Heart-Shaped

D. Mesio-buccal root apex.
First: In line with the cusp tip
Second: In line with crown center
Third: Roots displaced

Answer 18

B. Distolingual cusp.
First: Larger than M2
Second: Smaller than M1
Third: Smallest size

Question 19

Which of the following is not an arch trait of the maxillary canine?

A. In the same dentition, the crown is larger than the mandibular canine.
B. The incisal margin of the crown occupies at least one third to one half of crown height.
C. Labial aspect: mesial and distal marginal ridges converge toward cervix.
D. Marked symmetry of mesial/distal halves when viewed from incisal.

Answer 19

D. Marked symmetry of mesial/distal halves when viewed from incisal.

Question 20

Which one of the following morphological characteristic is representative of all posterior maxillary teeth?

A. Marked mesial concavity on crowns and roots.
B. Tips of cusps are well within the confines of the root trunks.
C. From mesial/distal aspect, crowns are rhomboidal in shape.
D. From mesial/distal aspect, all maxillary posterior crowns are trapezoidal with shortest uneven side toward occlusal surface.

Answer 20

D. From mesial/distal aspect, all maxillary posterior crowns are trapezoidal with shortest uneven side toward occlusal surface.

Question 21

In terms of vertical dimension, where is the mental foramen found most frequently?

A. At the apices of the premolars.
B. Coronal to the apices.
C. Below the apices.
D. No particular location predominates.

Answer 21

C. Below the apices.

Question 22

A major anatomical variant of the two-rooted mandibular molar is a tooth with an additional distolingual and third root. What is the prevalence of these three-rooted mandibular first molars?

A. May exceed 10% in Caucasians.
B. Less than 1% in Eurasian and Asian populations.
C. Greater than 5% (even up to 40%) in populations with Mongolian traits.
D. Greater than 8% in African populations.

Answer 22

C. Greater than 5% (even up to 40%) in populations with Mongolian traits.

Question 23

Which jaw activity does not involve one of the following muscles?

A. Clenching, superior heads of lateral pterygoid muscles (LPM).
B. Clenching, inferior heads of LPM.
C. Ipsilateral jaw movements, inferior heads of LPM.
D. Simple jaw opening, deep masseter muscle.

Answer 23

D. Simple jaw opening, deep masseter muscle.

Question 24

If jaw opening is divided into phases, and it is assumed that the surfaces of the articulating
bones and disc are associated throughout jaw
opening, what is the relationship of the disc and condyle in the following phases?

A. In the very earliest phase, the condyle moves forward before the disc.
B. In the early phase, the disc and condyle move anteriorly in concert.
C. In an intermediate phase, the condyle moves forward at a slower rate.
D. In the final phase, the disc moves forward at a faster rate.

Answer 24

B. In the early phase, the disc and condyle move anteriorly in concert.

Question 25

Occlusal interferences can be defined by all of the following except: A. Occlusal contact relations that interfere with function. B. Interference to jaw closure into the intercuspal position. C. Interferences to laterotrusive movements. D. Interferences to jaw opening.

Answer 25

D. Interferences to jaw opening.

Question 26

If posterior teeth on the left side contact occlusally during a right lateral excursion of the mandible, the left side occlusal contact would be referred to as: A. Laterotrusive contact. B. Protrusive contact. C. Mediotrusive contact. D. Centric relation.

Answer 26

C. Mediotrusive contact

Question 27

Which one of the following is considered a primary ligament of the TMJ? A. Stylomandibular. B. Sphenomandibular. C. Stylohyoid. D. Temporomandibular.

Answer 27

D. Temporomandibular.

Question 28

Mandibular movement resulting from occlusal contacts of the teeth from retruded contact position (CRC) to intercuspal position (slide in centric) may show all except one of the following directional components when viewed only in the horizontal plane. Which is the exception? A. Vertical component. B. Horizontal component. C. Lateral component. D. Protrusive component.

Answer 28

A. Vertical component.

Question 29

Where is the height of contour located relative to the following teeth (viewed from the mesial)? A. Facial surfaces of all molars, middle third. B. Lingual surfaces of all premolars and molars, cervical third. C. Lingual surfaces of molars and premolars, cervical or middle third. D. Anterior teeth, cervical or middle third.

Answer 29

C. Lingual surfaces of molars and premolars, cervical or middle third.

Question 30

The occlusal surface of a primary mandibular first molar often has a prominent faciolingual ridge. This transverse ridge connects which two cusps? A. Buccal and distolingual. B. Mesiolingual and distobuccal. C. Mesiobuccal and mesiolingual. D. Distobuccal and distolingual.

Answer 30

C. Mesiobuccal and mesiolingual.

Question 31

Which premolar would be the most likely to have a single pulp horn? A. Maxillary first. B. Mandibular first. C. Mandibular second. D. Maxillary second.

Answer 31

B. Mandibular first.

Question 32

Which one of the following is not a normal anatomical feature of mandibular incisors? A. Bifurcated roots. B. Inconspicuous cingula. C. Four developmental lobes. D. Incisal edges placed slightly lingually

Answer 32

A. Bifurcated roots.

Question 33

The heights of contour of the distal surfaces of permanent mandibular central incisors are located in which coronal third? A. Middle. B. Cervical. C. Occlusal. D. Incisal.

Answer 33

D. Incisal. Max: IJ, JM, JM, M Mand: II, II, IM, M

Question 34

On average, approximately what is the dimension of the permanent maxillary canine at the widest mesiodistal diameter of the crown? A. 5.5 mm. B. 6.5 mm. C. 7.5 mm. D. 8.5 mm.

Answer 34

C. 7.5 mm.

Question 35

Which one of the following is found on the crown of permanent mandibular first molars but is not found on the crowns of mandibular second molars? A. MB cusp. B. Distobuccal groove. C. Lingual groove. D. DB cusp

Answer 35

B. Distobuccal groove.

Question 36

The Y-shaped central developmental groove is most likely found on which of the following premolars? A. Maxillary first. B. Mandibular first. C. Maxillary second. D. Mandibular second.

Answer 36

D. Mandibular second.

Question 37

In a cusp–embrasure relationship, the maxillary first premolar is most likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth? A. First premolar only. B. First molar only. C. Canine and first premolar. D. First and second premolars.

Answer 37

D. First and second premolars.

Question 38

Equal contracture of the lateral pterygoid muscle bilaterally produces which of the following mandibular movements? A. Retrusive. B. Elevation. C. Protrusive. D. Lateral

Answer 38

C. Protrusive.

Question 39

A 35-year-old woman presents with a painful limitation of jaw opening (28 mm), a painful tooth on the right side, and swelling at the angle of the jaw. She has a history of temporomandibular disease (TMD) and conservative treatment. Medical history reveals that the patient is being treated for tuberculosis with combination antituberculosis drugs including rifampin (Rifadin). She is also being treated with an anticoagulant, warfarin (Coumadin), a low level of aspirin, and paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. The intraoral examination shows extensive teeth wear from bruxism, diagnosed by a sleep specialist as sleep bruxism. Tooth 32 has a deep carious lesion and, on radiographic examination, a periapical radiolucency. The incidence of tuberculosis is increasing as a result of an association with AIDS. Oral infections of tuberculosis (TBC) do occur but are uncommon. Diagnosis of oral lesions may present several challenges, as set forth in all of the following statements except one. Which one of the following statements is false? A. Lesions secondary to HIV may be present. B. Isolation of M. tuberculosis by culture requires 4 to 6 weeks or longer. C. Mycobacteria can be demonstrated by special stains in only 27% to 60% of cases. D. Molecular tests (e.g., polymerase chain reaction) show slow turn around times.

Answer 39

D. Molecular tests (e.g., polymerase chain reaction) show slow turnaround times.

Question 40

All the following side effects have been reported to be related to the use of rifampin except one. Which is the exception? A. Green bodily fluids—sweat, tears, urine. B. Hepatotoxicity. C. Thrombocytopenia. D. Rashes

Answer 40

A. Green bodily fluids—sweat, tears, urine. (ORANGE)

Question 41

Which of the following modes of action does not relate to rifampin? A. Inhibits RNA synthesis. B. Binds tightly to eukaryotic RNA polymerase. C. Tuberculocidal to intracellular and extracellular organisms. D. Reduces activity of hepatic mixed-function oxidases.

Answer 41

B. Binds tightly to eukaryotic RNA polymerase. Binds tightly to PROKARYOTIC RNA polymerase.

Question 42

Exacerbation of bruxism has been reported to occur with all the following agents except one? Which is the exception? A. Paroxetine (Paxil). B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. C. Naproxen (Naprosyn). D. Amphetamine derivative (“Ecstasy”).

Answer 42

C. Naproxen (Naprosyn).

Question 43

Migraine is a form of headache that is currently thought to be best understood on the basis of all the following with one exception. The exception is which of the following? A. As a dysfunction of brainstem pathways or diencephalic nuclei. B. As a primary disorder of the brain. C. As similar in mechanism to tension headaches. D. As a neurovascular headache

Answer 43

C. As similar in mechanism to tension headaches.

Question 44

Three key factors in the pathogenesis of pain in migraine are usually considered. Which of the following is not considered to be a key factor? A. Cranial blood vessels. B. β-amyloid-containing plaques in the brain. C. Trigeminal innervation of the vessels. D. Reflex connection of trigeminal system with cranial parasympathetic outflow.

Answer 44

B. β-amyloid-containing plaques in the brain— for Alzheimer's

Question 45

The treatment of the patient with low levels of aspirin is done for which of the following reasons? A. To reduce the likelihood of platelet aggregation. B. To stimulate cyclo-oxygenase in the platelets. C. To increase the formation of thromboxane. D. To cause platelets to regenerate cyclooxygenase.

Answer 45

A. To reduce the likelihood of platelet aggregation.

Question 46

When there is a pulpal-periodontal infection of a mandibular third molar, which of the following listed facial and cervical spaces is most likely to have become infected when there is swelling at the angle of the jaw? A. Retromolar space. B. Submaxillary space. C. Submasseteric space. D. Parotid space

Answer 46

B. Submaxillary space.

Question 47

Lymphatic drainage from tooth 32 will first involve which of the following node groups? A. Lateral upper deep cervical node. B. Medial upper deep cervical node. C. Lateral lower deep cervical node. D. Submaxillary node.

Answer 47

A. Lateral upper deep cervical node.

Question 48

All but one the following are considerations relevant to the diagnosis and treatment of tuberculosis. Which of the following statements is not true? A. Increase in the prevalence of TB. B. Oral TB lesions occur most frequently on the gingival. C. Emergence of multidrug-resistant strains. D. High risk of M. tuberculosis infection in patients infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

Answer 48

B. Oral TB lesions occur most frequently on the gingival. Oral TB lesions occur most frequently on the TONGUE.

Question 49

Extraction of tooth 32 revealed attached soft tissue. Which of the following is most important for a presumptive diagnosis of tuberculosis? A. Caseous necrotic areas. B. Acid-fast bacilli. C. Epithelioid histiocytes. D. Langerhans giant cells.

Answer 49

B. Acid-fast bacilli.

Question 50

Which one of the following disorders is the least likely to be a differential diagnostic factor in the patient’s limited jaw opening? A. Exacerbation of TMJ and TMD. B. Trismus secondary to TMJ pain. C. Myalgia secondary to TMD. D. Myositis secondary to bruxing.

Answer 50

D. Myositis secondary to bruxing.

Question 51

The patient is on an anticoagulant drug (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin]) as well as rifampin. What is the effect of rifampin on the anticoagulation effect of warfarin (Coumadin)? A. Increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. B. Increases the cyclic conversion of vitamin K epoxide reductase. C. Anticoagulation effect is inhibited. D. Decreases its metabolic clearance by inducing activity of hepatic oxidases.

Answer 51

C. Anticoagulation effect is inhibited.

Question 52

A transverse ridge is: A. The combination name for joining oblique and triangular ridges B. A combination name for joining buccal and lingual cusp triangular ridges C. Characteristically found on all primary and permanent molars D. Found occasionally on maxillary primary first molar

Answer 52

B. A combination name for joining buccal and lingual cusp triangular ridges

Question 53

From the occlusal aspect, the primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics EXCEPT? A. Crown outline diverges lingually and distally. B. Small traverse ridge frequently present called an oblique ridge. C. Four cusps are present. D. Mesial marginal ridge is thin and poorly developed.

Answer 53

A. Crown outline diverges lingually and distally.

Question 54

From the lingual perspective the primary maxillary first molar has which of the following characteristics? A. Distolingual cusp is the most prominent cusp. B. Mesiolingual cusp poorly defined. C. Distobuccal cusp cannot be seen from lingual aspect. D. Crown converges considerably in a lingual direction.

Answer 54

D. Crown converges considerably in a lingual direction.

Question 55

The primary maxillary second molar has what characteristics? A. Does not have a well-defined mesial triangular fossa. B. Oblique ridge absent or not well developed. C. Development (central) groove is well defined. D. A tubercle of Carabelli (Supplementary cusp) is well developed.

Answer 55

C. Development (central) groove is well defined.

Question 56

From the occlusal aspect the primary maxillary second molar has which of the following characteristics? A. Somewhat rhomboidal in form. B. Three well developed cusps. C. Two supplemental cusps, including tubercle of Carabelli. D. Poorly defined mesial triangular fossa.

Answer 56

A. Somewhat rhomboidal in form.

Question 57

From the occlusal aspect, the primary mandibular second molar has which of the following characteristics? A. Somewhat rectangular in form. B. The outline of the crown converges mesially. C. Three buccal cusps are dissimilar in size. D. Cusps do not have well defined triangular ridges.

Answer 57

A. Somewhat rectangular in form.

Question 58

A comparison of the pulp chambers and root canals of maxillary primary and permanent second molars shows which of the following? A. Enamel cap of primary tooth is relatively thick but less consistent in depth. B. Comparatively less thickness of dentin at the occlusal fossa of primary molars. C. Pulp chambers are proportionally larger in primary molars. D. Pulp horns are lower in primary molars, especially distal horns.

Answer 58

C. Pulp chambers are proportionally larger in primary molars.

Question 59

In a comparison of maxillary, primary and permanent second molars, which of the following differences are noted? A. Enamel rods at the cervix slope gingivally in the primary molar. B. Enamel rods at the cervix slope occlusally in the permanent molar. C. Buccal cervical ridges are less pronounced in the primary molar. D. Roots of primary teeth are longer and more slender in comparison with crown size than those of permanent teeth.

Answer 59

D. Roots of primary teeth are longer and more slender in comparison with crown size than those of permanent teeth.

Question 60

Based on average MD diameters of the crowns of primary teeth, the range for average overall length of the primary maxillary arch is about what dimension? A. 60–68 mm. B. 68–76 mm. C. 76–84 mm. D. 84–92 mm

Answer 60

B. 68–76 mm.

Question 61

What is the average height of curvature of the cervical line (CEJ) on the mesial and distal of the permanent maxillary and mandibular incisors? A. About 3.5 mm on the mesial of the maxillary central incisor. B. About 1.5 mm on the distal of the maxillary central incisor. C. About 2.0 mm on the mesial of the mandibular central incisor. D. About 1.0 mm on the distal of the mandibular central incisor.

Answer 61

A. About 3.5 mm on the mesial of the maxillary central incisor.

Question 62

Considering the period of 21⁄2months to about 6 years of age which of the following is true? A. Not all the primary teeth have attained their occlusal level. B. Parts of both jaws containing primary teeth change noticeably in size. C. A significant increase in intercanine width occurs shortly before and during the time the primary teeth are lost and the permanent teeth emerge. D. Dental arch form is more or less constant and practically no dimensional changes take place in depth or width after 9 months of age.

Answer 62

D. Dental arch form is more or less constant and practically no dimensional changes take place in depth or width after 9 months of age

Question 63

Which sequence of eruption of permanent teeth occurs most often? (8-7-6-5-4-3-2-1= M3-M2-M1-P2-P1-C-LI-CI). First #, #’s in each series is considered to be the first to erupt. A. 6-1-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Maxilla). B. 6-1-2-3-4-5-7-8 (Maxilla). C. (6-1)-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Mandible). D. 1-6-2-4-5-3-7-8 (Mandible).

Answer 63

C. (6-1)-2-4-3-5-7-8 (Mandible).

Question 64

The first evidence of calcification (weeks in utero) in the primary dentition occurs in which of the following teeth at about what age? A. Maxillary central incisor—14 (13–16) weeks. B. Mandibular central incisor—12 (10–13) weeks. C. Maxillary lateral incisor—14 (13–16) weeks. D. Mandibular lateral incisor—14 (13–15) weeks.

Answer 64

A. Maxillary central incisor—14 (13–16) weeks.

Question 65

A most characteristic feature of the primary maxillary central incisor is which of the following? A. Faciolingual breadth of the crown. B. Mesiodistal width of the crown. C. Mesial and distal margin outlines in line with profiles of root. D. Root/crown ratio.

Answer 65

B. Mesiodistal width of the crown.

Question 66

When is the crown of the permanent mandibular second molar completed? A. About 7–8 years. B. About 8–9 years. C. About 9–10 years. D. About 10–11 years.

Answer 66

A. About 7–8 years.

Question 67

Which of the following is NOT a type trait of the permanent maxillary first premolar? A. Occlusal table outline, trapezoidal. B. Generally two roots – mesial and distal. C. Central groove is long. D. Supplementary grooves are rare.

Answer 67

B. Generally two roots – mesial and distal. Generally two roots – buccal and lingual.

Question 68

Which of the ff is not a type of trait of the permanent mandibular first and second premolars? A. Buccal view. First: Crown bilaterally assymmetrical Second: bilaterally symmetrical B. Lingual aspect. First: Entire buccal profile visible Second: Buccal profile not seen C. Lingual aspect. First: Most of occlusal surface visible Second: Little, if any, seen D. Lingual aspect. First: Contour height— Middle third Second: Cervical third

Answer 68

D. Lingual aspect. First: Contour height— Middle third Second: Cervical third Lingual Height of Contour of the Posterior teeth is in the Middle Third.

Question 69

Which of the ff is not a type of trait of the permanent canines? A. Crown size. Max: Larger (same dentition) Mand: Smaller (same dentition) B. Lingual pits and grooves. Max: Common Mand: None C. Labio-Lingual diameter. Max: Near cervix (same as Mand) Mand: Near cervix (same as Max) D. Incisal view, mesial and distal halves. Max: Symmetrical Mand: Marked asymmetry

Answer 69

C. Labiolingual diameter. Max: Near cervix (same as Mand) Mand: Near cervix (same as Max) The Labiolingual diameter of the maxillary canine is GREATER than the mandibular canine.

Question 70

Which of the ff is not a type of trait of the permanent maxillary central and lateral incisors? A. Labial view (Mesial Contact). CI: Incisal third LI: Junction of incisal and middle third B. Labial view (Distal Contact). CI: Junction of incisal and middle third LI: Middle C. Mesial view. CI: Within incisal third LI: Junction of incisal and middle third D. Labial: Mesioinsal angle CI: Slightly rounded LI: Sharp right angle

Answer 70

D. Labial: Mesioinsal angle CI: Sharp right angle LI: Slightly rounded

Question 71

Which position of the mental foramen relative to the mandibular premolars and first molar occurs most frequently? A. Between the first and second premolars. B. In line with the second premolar. C. Distal to the second premolar. D. In line with the mesial root of the first molar.

Answer 71

C. Distal to the second premolar.

Question 72

The maxillary sinus overlies the alveolar processes in particular what teeth? A. First and second maxillary molars. B. All maxillary molars. C. First and second premolars. D. First and second premolars and first and second molars.

Answer 72

A. First and second maxillary molars.

Question 73

The masseter muscle, which has a complex of internal components, includes all the following EXCEPT? A. Pennation. B. Structural composition permitting regional activation. C. Multiple internal aponeuroses. D. Internal aponeuroses that do not move or deform.

Answer 73

D. Internal aponeuroses that do not move or deform.

Question 74

Sleep bruxism can be characterized by which of the following? A. Episodes of massive, bilateral clenching. B. Tooth grinding that may last for up to 20 minutes. C. Often coincides with passage from lighter to deeper sleep. D.Occurs approximately every 20 minutes in the sleep cycle.

Answer 74

A. Episodes of massive, bilateral clenching.

Question 75

Recent focus on causative factors in bruxism include ALL of the following Except? A. Occlusal interferences. B. Part of a sleep arousal response. C. Pathophysiological factors. D. Neurotransmitters in the central nervous system.

Answer 75

A. Occlusal interferences.

Question 76

ALL of the following are supporting cusps EXCEPT? A. Buccal cusp of Tooth #29. B. Lingual cusp of tooth # 4. C. ML cusp of tooth #3. D. ML cusp of tooth # 19.

Answer 76

D. ML cusp of tooth # 19.

Question 77

Measurement of horizontal overlap (over jet) of the teeth is easily done by which of the following methods? A. Measure from the facial surface of a mandibular incisor to the facial surface of a maxillary incisor with the subject in intercuspal position. B. With the subject intercuspal position, mark the position of the maxillary incisal edge on the facial surface of the mandibular incisor with a pencil. Then have the subject open the mouth and measure from the mark that you made to the incisal edge of the mandibular incisor. C. Measure from the midline between the maxillary central incisors to the midline of the mandibular central incisors. D. Measure from the incisal edge of a maxillary incisor to the incisal edge of a mandibular incisor with the mandible in the maximum open position

Answer 77

A. Measure from the facial surface of a mandibular incisor to the facial surface of a maxillary incisor with the subject in intercuspal position.

Question 78

In a cusp-fossa occlusal relationship, the maxillary second premolar is most likely to articulate with which of the following mandibular teeth? A. First premolar only. B. Second premolar only. C. Canine and first premolar. D. First and second premolars.

Answer 78

B. Second premolar only.

Question 79

Which of the following contributes primary sensory innervation to the temporomandibular joint? A. Auriculotemporal nerve. B. Infraorbital nerve. C. Branch of the lingual nerve. D. Facial nerve.

Answer 79

A. Auriculotemporal nerve.

Question 80

The smallest cusp on the crown of a 5 lobed mandibular second premolar is the: A. Buccal cusp. B. Distobuccal cusp. C. Distal cusp. D. Distolingual cusp.

Answer 80

D. Distolingual cusp.

Question 81

A typical primary mandibular first molar has how many pulp horns? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.

Answer 81

D. 4.

Question 82

Rest position (RP) is defined: A. As any position of the mandible that lacks contact of the teeth. B. As the centric relation position of the condyles with the teeth apart. C. As a mandibular position with masticatory muscles at complete rest. D. As a clinical mandibular position in relation to the interocclusal space.

Answer 82

D. As a clinical mandibular position in relation to the interocclusal space.

Question 83

Name the point angle which represents the junction of the cutting edge of an incisor with the surface that is toward the tongue and the surface that is away from the midline. A. Distoproximoincisal. B. Distolabioincisal. C. Distolinguoincisal. D. Labioincisolinguo.

Answer 83

C. Distolinguoincisal.

Question 84

Root bifurcation would be a more likely finding in which of the following permanent teeth? A. Maxillary canine. B. Mandibular canine. C. Maxillary central incisor. D. Mandibular lateral incisor.

Answer 84

B. Mandibular canine.

Question 85

What is the correct schematic outline of the following teeth? A. Mandibular premolars, viewed from occlusal, rhomboidal. B. Maxillary central incisors, viewed from facial, triangles. C. Maxillary lateral incisors, viewed from mesial, trapezoidal. D. All mandibular posterior teeth, distal aspect, rhomboidal.

Answer 85

D. All mandibular posterior teeth, distal aspect, rhomboidal. Mandibular premolars, viewed from occlusal, 1PM: Diamond 2PM: Square. Maxillary central incisors, viewed from facial, trapezoidal. Maxillary lateral incisors, viewed from mesial, triangles.

Question 86

A distinct central developmental groove, prominent buccal triangular ridge, two cusps and distinct mesial and distal occlusal pits would be most characteristic of: A. Mandibular first premolars. B. Primary mandibular first molars. C. Primary mandibular second molars. D. Mandibular second premolars.

Answer 86

A. Mandibular first premolars.

Question 87

From the incisal view, a greater mesiodistal measurement than faciolingual measurement can be seen in which of the following permanent anterior crowns? A. Maxillary central incisor. B. Maxillary canine. C. Mandibular canine. D. Mandibular central incisor

Answer 87

A. Maxillary central incisor.

Question 88

Maximum rotation and translation of both condyles takes place at: A. Maximum opening. B. Maximum protrusive. C. Right and left lateral excursive movements. D. Hinge movement.

Answer 88

A. Maximum opening.

Question 89

A mother brings her 12-year-old boy to the dentist to ask about her son grinding his teeth and about some white “spots” located on the smooth-surfaced enamel of several of his anterior teeth and premolars. Among other questions about the cause of the defects, the mother then asks when a systemic disturbance occurred that may have caused the “spots.” The patient has excessive tooth wear from bruxing and clenching. The dentist measures the cervical-incisal length of the permanent maxillary central incisor (10.5 mm). Also measured is the distance from the CEJ to the midpoint of the defect (5.5 mm). Given that the crown is completed over a period of 4 to 5 years it is possible to estimate the age at which the hypoplasia occurred using 6 months or yearly periods in the following formula: ADF = ACF − (yrs. of formation/crown height × distance of defect from CEJ) Using an average age of crown formation (ACF) of both 4 and 5 years, the age of defect formation (ADF) is estimated to be about what time? A. 7–9 months in utero. B. 0–1 years of age. C. 1–2 years. D. 2–3 years

Answer 89

D. 2–3 years

Question 90

The increase of fluorosis of permanent teeth in both nonfluoridated and optimally fluoridated populations points to the need for dentists to caution parents with children about potential causes of fluorosis in children. Which of the following cautions about fluoride is correct, but the age or implied age is NOT Correct? A. Excess (> 1 ppm) fluoride in the drinking water during enamel formation. B. Excessive (> pea-sized amount) use of fluoride toothpaste under 6 years of age. C. Use of fluoride toothpaste for children under 4 years of age. D. Use of a 1.1% sodium fluoride toothpaste or gel by pediatric patients only when 6 years of age and older.

Answer 90

C. Use of fluoride toothpaste for children under 4 years of age. Excess (> 1 ppm) fluoride in the drinking water during enamel formation— Correct Excessive (> pea-sized amount) use of fluoride toothpaste under 6 years of age— Correct Use of a 1.1% sodium fluoride toothpaste or gel by pediatric patients only when 6 years of age and older— depends on manufacturer's recommendations.

Question 91

Systemic etiologic factors that are said to be associated with enamel defects such as hypoplasia occur generally in what period of time? A. Before birth. B. Generally after birth and before the age of 6 years. C. During the first year postpartum for Hutchinson’s incisors. D. During birth.

Answer 91

B. Generally after birth and before the age of 6 years.

Question 92

The differential diagnosis of white “spots” of the enamel of primary and permanent teeth should include disorders that have a substantiated cause. Which of the following DO NOT have an evidence-based causal relationship with enamel hypoplasia? A. Rickets. B. Congenital syphilis. C. Measles. D. Fluorosis

Answer 92

C. Measles.

Question 93

Clenching and grinding of teeth involves contraction of skeletal type muscles. Several types of myofilaments are present in the contractile elements of skeletal muscles. Which statement about muscle filaments IS NOT true? A. Myosin forms the thick filament of muscle. B. Actin is a major protein of thin filaments. C. Titin is a protein of elastic filament. D. Connectin is a protein of intermediate filament.

Answer 93

D. Connectin is a protein of intermediate filament. Connectin is a protein of elastic filament. Connectin= Titin (other name)

Question 94

The clinical examination of the patient reveals extensive wear of the right canines, and somewhat less wear of the lateral incisors. Also there is tenderness of the jaw closing muscles, particularly on the right side. The muscle(s) that would be involved primarily in providing most of the force for anterior tooth clenching include which of the following masticatory muscles? A. Inferior lateral pterygoid muscle. B. Superior lateral pterygoid muscle. C. Anterior temporalis muscle. D. Masseter muscle

Answer 94

D. Masseter muscle

Question 95

Sleep bruxism (SB) is defined by many but not all of the following characteristics. Which is the EXCEPTION? A. Stereotypical movement disorder. B. Grinding and clenching of the teeth during sleep. C. More frequent in the younger generation. D. Individuals who brux during the daytime inevitably brux at night.

Answer 95

D. Individuals who brux during the daytime inevitably brux at night.

Question 96

Recent physiologic evidence suggests that central and/or autonomic nervous systems rather than peripheral sensory factors play a dominant role in the genesis of sleep bruxism (SB). Which statement about the central genesis of SB is NOT true? A. During sleep the mouth is usually open due to motor repression. B. Tooth contact most likely occurs in association with sleep arousal. C. Some peripheral sensory factors may exert an influence on SB through their interaction with sleep-awake mechanisms. D. Sequential change from autonomic (cardiac)/brain cortical activities follows SB-related jaw motor activity

Answer 96

D. Sequential change from autonomic (cardiac)/brain cortical activities PRECEDE SB-related jaw motor activity

Question 97

Aggravation of bruxism has been suggested to occur secondarily to all of the following occlusal relationships except one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Occlusal interferences in centric relation. B. Occlusal interferences in the intercuspal position. C. Iatrogenic occlusal relations that interfere with bruxism. D. Angle Class III malocclusion (prognathism).

Answer 97

D. Angle Class III malocclusion (prognathism).

Question 98

The differential diagnosis of enamel hypoplasia should take into account suggested differences between non-fluoride and fluoride opacities. Which of the following statements does not suggest a basis for diagnosis of non-fluoride (NF) enamel hypoplasia? A. Levels of F in drinking water that range from 0.2 to 0.34 ppm have been reported to be associated with prevalences of NF enamel opacities ranging from 22% to 35 %. B. At a level of 1 to 1.5 ppm of F in drinking water, only few F opacities occur. C. Most NF enamel opacities appear as white, opaque spots in smooth surface enamel; areas of mild dental fluorosis are lusterless, opaque white patches. D. Fluorosis and NF opacities are clinically significantly different.

Answer 98

D. Fluorosis and NF opacities are clinically significantly different. Fluorosis and NF opacities are difficult to diagnose clinically.

Question 99

During muscle contraction what physical change DOES NOT occur relative to muscle fiber contraction? A. Sarcomeres—shorten. B. Thick and thin filaments—shorten. C. I Band—shortens. D. H zone—shortens.

Answer 99

B. Thick and thin filaments—shorten. They do not change in length.

Question 100

Regarding the superior and inferior heads of the lateral pterygoid muscle (SHLP and IHLP), which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? A. Hypothetically, SHLP and IHLP can be considered to be parts of one muscle. B. Distributions of SHLP and IHLP activities are shaded according to biochemical demands of tasks. C. SHLP stabilizes the condyle and disk against the articular eminence in a wide range of jaw movements and forces. D. IHLP plays a major role in the generation and fine control of horizontal forces

Answer 100

C. SHLP stabilizes the condyle and disk against the articular eminence in a wide range of jaw movements and forces. SHLP helps stabilize the head and condyle against the eminence in a clenching.