Mortgages Flashcards
Purchase Money Mortgage
= the mortgage that the property owners got to obtain the money for initially purchasing the property
*this first mortgage always gets priority over any additional mortgages on the property
Redemption
= when owner pays off debt to prevent foreclosure
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TWO types of Redemption:
- (1) Equitable Right of Redemption &
- (2) Statutory Redemption
Equitable Right of Redemption
= the time period FROM NOTICE of foreclosure TO SALE of the foreclosed property
*Equitable Right of Redemption may NOT be waived–property owner ALWAYS has this chance–EVEN IF mortgage documents say you can’t
Statutory Redemption
= additional period of time AFTER foreclosure SALE when you have chance to pay off the debt on the property
*the amount of time is determined by statute – you don’t get it automatically (unlike Equitable Right of Redemption, which IS automatic)
Lien Theory vs. Title Theory
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Lien Theory jurisdiction: *majority rule & Georgia law
- Bank only has a LIEN
- Owner holds the TITLE
- *Owner CAN sell
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Title Theory jurisdiction: *minority rule
- Bank holds the TITLE
- Owner only has an equitable interest
- *Owner canNOT sell
In a Lien Theory state, what happens if members of a Joint Tenancy take out a mortgage on their property?
→ the mortgage does NOT sever their Joint Tenancy – b/c the bank just gets a lien, not the actual title
In a Title Theory state, what happens if members of a Joint Tenancy take out a mortgage on their property?
→ the mortgage SEVERS their Joint Tenancy into a Tenancy in Common – b/c the bank gets the actual title from them, and this is a conveyance, which severs the parties’ interest in a Joint Tenancy
Assuming a Mortgage
= new owner (Buyer) takes over original owner’s (Seller) mortgage and continues making payments
*Buyer is primarily liable for payment issues, BUT Seller is secondarily liable – UNLESS Seller & Bank execute a novation
“Subject to” the Mortgage
= original owner (Seller) still liable for / must make mortgage payment
*BUT Bank CAN foreclose on the house with new owner (Buyer) in it – UNLESS novation
E.g., Jon bought house for $100k with a $100k mortgage. Market crashes. Paul buys house from him for $50k. But b/c that’s less than Jon’s $100k mortgage amount, Paul buys the house “subject to” the remaining $50k of mortgage that Jon owes on it.
Deed in Lieu of Foreclosure
= where owner just signs deed over to Bank & skips foreclosure proceedings
In a foreclosure, what happens to the mortgages that were taken out after the mortgage that’s being foreclosed on?
→ these junior mortgages are wiped out – SO LONG AS: (1) give junior mortgage holders Notice of the foreclosure sale, AND (2) they’re joined in the suit
In a foreclosure, what happens to the mortgages that were taken out before the mortgage that’s being foreclosed on?
→ these senior mortgages stay in place, and the Buyer takes the property “Subject to” those existing mortgages
Deficiency Judgment
= Bank can collect the remaining mortgage balance that was not recovered by foreclosure sale from the owner who originally took out the mortgage
E.g., Doug bought house for $200k with a $200k mortgage. Neighborhood goes downhill. Betty buys house from him for $150k. But b/c that’s less than Doug’s $200k mortgage amount, Betty buys the house “subject to” the remaining $50k of mortgage that Doug owes on it. → Bank can go after Doug for a Deficiency Judgment of $50k