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GPhC Exam > More random past paper qs > Flashcards

More random past paper qs Flashcards

1
Q

Paediatric paracetamol dosing (under 6)

A

120 mg/5 mL

2-12 months - 2.5 mL
12-24 months - 5 mL
2-4 years - 7.5 mL
4-6 years - 10 mL

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2
Q

Paediatric paracetamol dosing (over 6)

A

250 mg/5 mL

6-8 years - 5 mL
8-10 years - 7.5 mL
10-12 years - 10 mL

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3
Q

Paediatric ibuprofen dosing (for general pain/fever)

A

100 mg/5 mL

3-6 months - 2.5 mL
7-12 months - 2.5 mL up to FOUR times a day
1-3 years - 5 mL
4-6 years - 7.5 mL 
6-9 years - 10 mL
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4
Q

Paediatric ibuprofen dosing (post-immunisation pyrexia)

A

For all children aged 3 and up:
2.5 mL of 100 mg/5 mL, followed by 2.5 mL 6 hours later if required

(If second dose doesn’t work, see GP)

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5
Q

Which administrative route should be avoided when using vinca alkaloids?

A

Intrathecal

should only be administered via IV

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6
Q

What can be given to treat cellulitis (first-line) if the infection is NOT on the face?

A

Flucloxacillin
Clarithromycin/doxycycline if pen allergic
Erythromycin if pregnant

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7
Q

What can be given to treat cellulitis (first-line) if the infection IS on the face (near eyes/nose)?

A

Co-amoxiclav

If unsuitable: clarithromycin with metronidazole

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8
Q

What cautionary label(s) are needed on lansoprazole?

A

Do not take indigestion remedies 2 hours before or after you take this medicine (2)
Take 30 to 60 minutes before food (22)
Swallow this medicine whole. Do not chew or crush (25) - for GR caps only

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9
Q

What is required on a dispensing label for it to be legal?

A 
Patient name
Drug name
Instructions for administration
Name and address of dispensary
Date of dispensing
Warning labels
KOOSAROC
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10
Q

What drugs interact with emergency hormonal contraceptives?

A

CYP inducers can reduce their efficacy
Remember: BS CRAP GPS

Barbiturates
St John's Wort
Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic)
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Protease inhibitors
Sulfonylureas/Smoking
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11
Q

Which beta-blockers are hydrophilic? What does this mean for their pharmacokinetics and side-effect profile?

A

Celiprolol
Atenolol
Nadolol
Sotalol

Renally excreted (doses should be adjusted in renal impairment)
Less likely to cross the BBB, and therefore less likely to cause nightmares
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12
Q

How many days after UPSI is levonorgestrel (Levonelle) most effective?

A

3 days

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13
Q

How many days after UPSI is ulipristal (EllaOne) effective?

A

5 days

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14
Q

What are some symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease?

A

Sore throat
Not wanting to eat
Fever

Followed by mouth ulcers and blisters/rashes on palms and soles of feet

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15
Q

How is hand, foot and mouth disease treated?

A

Plenty fluids and OTC paracetamol/ibuprofen

Viral infection so NO antibiotics

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16
Q

What are the monitoring requirements for lithium?

A

Before initiation:
Renal, cardiac and thyroid function
BMI, U&Es, FBC
ECG if pt has CVD/risk factors

Every 6 months:
BMI, U&Es, eGFR, FBC
(more often if evidence of impairment)

Cardiac function - regular

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17
Q

How soon after a lithium dose should levels be taken? What is the target range?

A

12 hours,

0.4 - 1 mmol/L

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18
Q

What should people taking lithium be aware of?

A 
Look out for:
Lithium toxicity
Hypothyroidism
Renal dysfunction
Benign intracranial hypertension

May impair skilled tasks

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19
Q

Why shouldn’t thiazide diuretics and lithium be used together?

A

Thiazides can
→ increase risk of HYPOkalaemia
→ increase the plasma conc. of lithium

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20
Q

Are faxed Rxs valid?

A

No - not indelible ink

Pharmacist can use their discretion to mitigate risks and supply, unless CD Sch 2 or 3 (illegal to supply)

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21
Q

What is Zika virus?

A

A disease spread by mosquitos lasting 2-7 days; mild and not harmful (unless pregnant)

NOT a notifiable disease

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22
Q

What electrolyte balances can loop diuretics cause?

A

HYPO everything (K, Na, Mg, Ca)

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23
Q

What electrolyte balances can thiazide diuretics cause?

A

HYPOkalaemia

At higher doses, it can also disrupt:
Na+, uric acid, glucose and lipids

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24
Q

What electrolyte balances can thiazide-like diuretics cause?

A

HYPERcalacaemia

HYPO K, Na and Mg

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25
Q

What electrolyte imbalances can aldosterone antagonists cause?

A

HYPERkalaemia

HYPO Mg and Na

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26
Q

What are levels of renal function as determined by eGFR (mL/min/1.73 m²)?

A 
>90 - high
60-89 - mild
45-59 - mild/moderate
30-44 - moderate/severe
15-29 - severe
<15 - renal failure
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27
Q

Who can receive free NHS prescriptions?

A 
Aged > 60
Aged < 16
Aged 17/18 and in full-time education
On benefits/low income scheme
Receiving war pension
Medical exemption certificate 
Pre-paid certificate
Pregnant (w/ a maternity exemption certificate)
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28
Q

Who can receive the flu jab for free?

A 
Aged >50
High-risk due to comorbidities
Pregnant
Live with immunocompromised person(s)
Care home residents
Healthcare workers
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29
Q

What are some risk factors of osteoporosis?

A 
Post-/ early menopause
Long-term use of steroids
Old age
Low BMI
Smoking/drinking
Parental Hx of fractures
Co-morbidities e.g. RA, diabetes
30
Q

BMI ranges :/

A

<18.5 - underweight
18.5-24.6 - heathy 🤨
25-29.9 - overweight
30-39.9 - obese

31
Q

What happens when naproxen is taken with sertraline?

A

Increased risk of bleeding

Increased likelihood of hypoNa

32
Q

What happens when naproxen is taken with steroids?

A

Increased risk of GI bleeding - caution (avoid with [methyl]prednisolone)

33
Q

When are bisphosphonates contraindicated?

A

Oesophageal abnormalities
Hypocalcaemia
Factors which delay emptying e.g. stricture
ClCr < 35 mL/min

34
Q

When should bisphosphonate use be reviewed?

A

Every 5 years (3 years with zoledronate)

35
Q

What are the major side effects of amiodarone?

A

P BITCH 🤭

Photosensitivity
Breathing (pulmonary toxicity)
Irregular HR (arrhythmia)
Thyroid dysregulation
Corneal microdeposits
Hepatotoxicity
36
Q

What interacts with amiodarone?

A

It’s a CYP inhibitor!

Warfarin - can increase INR so dose needs to be reduced by 1-2 thirds; monitor
Digoxin - can cause toxicity so dose needs to be halved; monitor
Also:
drugs that cause hypoK/QT prolongation
grapefruit juice
simvastatin
beta-blockers

37
Q

Which statin does not need to be taken at night?

A

Atorvastatin, due to its longer half life

38
Q

What is oxybutinin?

A

An antimuscarinic used for urinary frequency, urgency or incontinence

39
Q

Which antidiabetics cause weight gain?

A

Remember: eating PISza makes you biggger

Pioglitazone
Insulin
Sulfonylureas (gli-)

40
Q

Which antidiabetics cause weight loss?

A

Remember: Gotta Lose Some Gravity

GLP-1s (-glutide)
SGLT2 inhibitors (-flozin)
41
Q

Which antidiabetics have a high[er] risk of hypoglycaemia?

A

Insulin

Sulfonylureas (higher in older people)

42
Q

What are some symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

Remember: Plasma SHugar Drops SPLAT

Palpitations
Sweating
Hunger
Dizziness
Shaky/trembling
Pale skin
Lips - tingly
Anxiety
Tiredness
43
Q

Why are beta-blockers cautioned in diabetes?

A

They can mask symptoms of hypoglycaemia

44
Q

Which antipsychotics are more likely to cause weight gain and glucose intolerance?

A 
2nd generation (-pine, -one):
quetiapine, clozapine, asenapine, olanzapine
risperidone, paliperidone, aripiprazole
45
Q

Which antipsychotics are more likely to cause EPSEs and hyperprolactinaemia?

A 
1st generation (-zine, -ol)
chlorpromazine, levomepromazine, prochlorperazine
haloperidol, flupentixol

NOT promethazine (an antihistamine)!

46
Q

How long should a record of a veterinary POM supply be kept for? What needs to be recorded?

A

5 years

Name of medicine
Date of receipt/supply
Batch no.
Name and address of receiver/supplier
[Also, keep copy of Rx]
47
Q

What is cabergoline?

A

A dopamine receptor agonist, used to treat hyperprolactinaemia

48
Q

What is donepezil?

A

An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used in treatment of dementia

49
Q

A patient who was recently initiated on phenytoin develops a rash. What should you do?

A

Withdraw; encourage them to seek medical attention

[Possible leucopenia - patients should be made aware of symptoms of blood/skin disorders (flu-like symptoms) and report ASAP]

50
Q

Criteria for gradual withdrawal of steriods

A

> 40 mg OD for ≥ 1 week
Repeat evening doses
3 weeks of treatment
Recently repeated courses
Short course within 1 year of stopping long term Tx
Other possible causes of adrenal suppression

51
Q

Which antiemetic is suitable for use in Parkinson’s?

A

Domperidone (doesn’t cross BBB, less EPSEs)

52
Q

What are some MOA inhibitors?

A

Remember: Mr PITSR

Moclobemide
Phenelzine
Tranylcypromine
Selegiline
Rasagiline
53
Q

What antibiotics can be taken with/after food?

A

Remember: Molly’s Nice Cheesy PIzza

Metronidazole
Nitrofurantoin
Clarithromycin
Pivmecillinam

54
Q

What antibiotics should be taken on an empty stomach?

A

Remember: POFAT

Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Oxytetracycline
Flucloxacillin
Azithromycin caps
Tetracycline
55
Q

What are some examples of aminoglycosides?

A

Remember: NTAGS

Neomycin
Teicoplanin
Amikacin
Gentamicin
Streptomycin
56
Q

What is the target plasma concentrations for gentamicin and amikacin?

A

Peak:
5-10 mg/L (3-5 mg/L for endocarditis)

Trough
>2 mg/L (1 mg/L for endocarditis)

57
Q

Which medicines are ototoxic?

A

Remember: My Great Cousin [is] Very Very Loud

Macrolides
Gentamicin
Cisplatin
Vancomycin
Vinca alkaloids
Linezolid
58
Q

What medicines can increase the concentration of lithium?

A

Remember: Lily And Stacey Need Managing

Loop diuretics
ACEis
Spironolactone
NSAIDs
Methotrexate
59
Q

Which medicines can cause blood disorders?

A

Remember: Take Care, Sally-Mae

Tacrolimus
Co-trimoxazole
Sulfasalazine
Mesalazine

60
Q

Which cephalosporins are 1st gen?

A

Remember: cefa-

Cefalexin
Cefadroxil
Cefradine

61
Q

Which cephalosporins are 2nd gen?

A

Remember: 2 FOXes FOR tea

Cefuroxime
Cefaclor

62
Q

Which cephalosporins are 3rd gen?

A

Remember: contains T except cefixime

Cetriaxone
Cetfotaxime
Ceftazidime
Cefixime

63
Q

How long should a patient wait before drinking alcohol after a course of metronidazole?

A

48 hours

64
Q

What two drug classes can increase the risk of side effects of quinolones?

A

NSAIDs - increase the risk of seizures

Steroids - increase the risk of tendon damage

65
Q

Outline antibiotic treatment for UTIs.

A

Men:
nitrofurantoin OR trimethoprim, 7 days

Pregnant women:
nitrofurantoin, 7 days
waiting for culture? - cefalexin, 7 days

Non-pregnant women:
nitrofurantoin OR trimethoprim, 3 days

Avoid nitro if eGFR < 45

66
Q

Can trimethoprim be taken in renal impairment?

A

Yes - dose needs to be halved after 3 days if eGFR = 15-30

67
Q

Outline antibiotic treatment for human/animal bites.

A

1st line: co-amoxiclav
PA/CI’d: metronidazole AND doxycycline

3 days for prophyx
5 days for Tx

68
Q

Outline treatment for acute otitis media.

A

1st line: amoxicillin
PA/CI’d: clarithromycin/erythromycin

2nd line: co-amox

Tx should last 5-7 days

69
Q

Outline treatment for otitis externa.

A

1st line: acetic acid 2%, 7 days
OR topical neomycin, 7-14 days
Cellulitis? - flucloxacillin, 7 days

70
Q

What is the maximum length of time parenteral aminoglycosides can be used for?

A

7 days

71
Q

Outline treatment for C. difficile infection.

A

1st line: vancomycin
2nd line: fidaxomicin
3rd line: vanc +/- metronidazole

10 days

72
Q

Trimethoprim interactions

A

ACEis, ARBs, NSAIDs, diuretics, ciclosporin - increased risk of hyperK
Aciclovir - nephrotoxicity
SSRIs, NSAIDs, carbamazepine, amitriptyline - increased risk of hypoNa
Methotrexate - risk of haematologic SEs e.g. bone marrow suppression

GPhC Exam (10 decks)

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