more example mc questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the cause of the Earth’s geomagnetic field?

a. Convection of the mantle

b. Flow of the outer core

c. Solar storms

d. Radioactivity within the Earth

A

b. Flow of the outer core

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2
Q
  1. Describe the bulk rheology and composition of the mantle asthenosphere?

a. Solid, ductile, plastic silicate rock

b. Solid, brittle, elastic silicate rock

c. Liquid silicate rock

d. Liquid iron/nickel alloy

A
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3
Q
  1. If current plate tectonic motions continue millions of years into the future, what is likely to happen to the continent of Africa?

a. South Africa will collide with Antarctica, forming a new continental collision zone.

b. The Indian Ocean will subduct beneath East Africa, forming a new volcanic arc.

c. East Africa will split from the main part of Africa, forming a new ocean in between.

d. North Africa will separate from Europe (Eurasia), and the Mediterranean Sea will grow into an ocean

A
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4
Q
  1. Why might Vancouver experience larger shaking intensity during a Cascadia megathrust earth-quake than Victoria, even though Vancouver is situated further from the plate boundary?

a. Because more people live in Vancouver than Victoria, so the riskis higher in Vancouver.

b. Because the earthquake hypocenter (the point on the fault where the rupture starts) is likely to lie directly beneath Vancouver.

c. Because Vancouver lies closer to the Cascade arc volcanoes (e.g. Mt Baker) than Victoria, and the earth-quake will likely trigger volcanic activity.

d. Because much of Vancouver is built on soft sedimentary rocks which amplify ground shaking (site effects),whereas most of Victoria is built on harder bedrock

A
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5
Q
  1. When were the theories of Continental drift and Plate tectonics developed?

a. They were both developed in the 1910s.

b. Continental drift was developed in the 1910s, and Plate tectonics in the 1960s.

c. Plate tectonics was developed in the 1910s, and Continental drift in the 1960s.

d. Continental drift was developed during the Second World War, and Plate tectonics in the 1960s.

e. Plate tectonics was developed during the Second World War, and Continental drift in the 1960s

A
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6
Q
  1. Approximately how much more seismic moment (“energy”) is released in a Mw 6.0 earthquake than a Mw 5.0 earthquake?

a. 6/5 = 1.2 times as much

b. 106/105 = 10 times as much

c. (106/105) 1.5 =∼32 times as much

d. (106/105)10 = 100 times as much

A
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7
Q
  1. What occurs during planetary differentiation?

a. Smaller planetesimals collide to form a larger planetary bodies.

b. A meteorite bombardment adds new material to the planet.

c. The planet melts and separates into an iron-rich core and silica-rich mantle.

d. Gas condenses to dust particles, which in turn aggregate to larger grains and rocks

A
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8
Q
  1. Which best describes the relationship between stress and strain?

a. Strain causes stress.
b. Stress causes strain.
c. Stress and strain describe the same thing.
d. Stress and strain are mutually exclusive.

A
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9
Q
  1. The main mechanism for heat transfer through the mantle mesosphere and asthenosphere is:

a. convection.
b. conduction.
c. radiation.
d. all of the above contribute to heat transfer, in roughly equal proportions.

A
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10
Q
  1. If the BC government built an earthquake early warning system on Vancouver Island, what would happen to the seismic hazard and seismic risk in Victoria?

a. The hazard would decrease, but the risk would stay the same.

b. The hazard would stay the same, but the risk would decrease.

c. Both the hazard and the risk would decrease.

d. Both the hazard and the risk would stay the same.

A
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11
Q
  1. What is liquefaction?

a. When water is released into the mantle at subduction zones, leading to arc volcanism.

b. When mantle rocks undergo decompression melting at mid-ocean ridges, forming liquid magma.

c. When saturated sedimentary rocks liquefy during earthquake shaking.

d. When waste-water from fracking is buried at depth, increasing pore pressures and triggering induced earth-
quakes.

A
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12
Q
  1. What is a postglacial earthquake?

a. Any earthquake that occurred during the Holocene (i.e., since the end of the last Ice Age)

b. An earthquake caused thawing of the ground surface following the melting of ice sheets and glaciers

c. An earthquake caused by shearing stresses from the flow of glaciers over the Earth surface

d. An earthquake caused by bending stresses following the melting of ice sheets and glaciers

A
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13
Q
  1. What is the earthquake epicenter?

a. The point on the fault plane where the earthquake rupture starts.

b. The point on the fault plane where the earthquake rupture stops.

c. The point on Earth’s surface immediately above where the earthquake rupture starts.

d. The center point of the ruptured fault plane.

e. The point on Earth’s surface where the largest intensity was felt.

A
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14
Q
  1. What class of earthquake was the 2011 Mw 9.0 Tohoku (Japan) earthquake?

a. A shallow crustal earthquake
b. A subduction megathrust earthquake
c. An intermediate depth, intraslab earthquake
d. A deep earthquake

A
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15
Q
  1. What class of earthquake were the 8th September 2017 Mw 8.1 and 19th September 2017 Mw 7.1 Mexico earthquakes?

a. Shallow crustal earthquakes
b. Subduction megathrust earthquakes
c. Intermediate depth, intraslab earthquakes
d. Deep earthquakes

A
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16
Q
  1. What is isostasy?

a. The state of gravitational equilibrium between Earth’s crust and mantle

b. The flow of ice in a glacier

c. The slow drift of the continents over geological time

d. Melting of mantle rocks at mid ocean ridges

A
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17
Q
  1. What best characterizes an earthquake surface rupture?

a. A crater, similar to those observed on the Moon
b. A large, linear open fissure containing a deep chasm
c. An area criss-crossed by fissures and cracks
d. Linear offsets to cultural features (e.g. roads) and landforms (e.g. rivers)

A
18
Q
  1. In the continents, what is the normal thickness of the seismogenic layer (the brittle part of the lithosphere that is capable of hosting earthquakes)?

a. Approximately 1 km — the part of the crust comprising sedimentary rocks

b. Approximately 15 km — the upper one third to one half of the crust

c. Approximately 40 km — the whole of the crust

d. Approximately 100 km — the whole of the lithosphere

A
19
Q
  1. What best describes earthquake body waves, which travel through the Earth’s interior, in relation to surface waves, which travel around the Earth’s surface?

a. Body waves are faster and smaller amplitude.
b. Body waves are slower and smaller amplitude.
c. Body waves are faster and larger amplitude.
d. Body waves are slower and larger amplitude.
e. They are the same speed, but body waves are larger amplitude.

A
20
Q
  1. Why, in some arid countries, are human settlements often located along active faults?

a. The water table can pond against a fault, forming springs and providing a source of water.

b. Faults form valleys, along which rivers flow, providing a source of water.

c. Earthquake shaking produces sedimentary rocks, providing better conditions for farming.

d. Faulting parallels coastlines, where people live in order to trade and fish.

A
21
Q
  1. How is Earth’s age of 4.56 billion years known?

a. From radiometric dating of chondrite meteorites.
b. From radiometric dating of the oldest known oceanic crust.
c. From radiometric dating of the oldest known continental crust.
d. From calculating the time needed for Earth to cool to its present temperature from an initial molten state.

A
22
Q
  1. Describe the basic rheology and composition of the mantle mesosphere?

a. Solid, ductile, plastic silicate rock.
b. Solid, brittle, elastic silicate rock.
c. Molten silicate rock.
d. Molten iron/nickel alloy.

A
23
Q
  1. What are the main mechanisms for heat transfer through (a) the lithosphere and (b) the astheno- sphere/mesosphere?

a. (a) Convection; (b) Conduction.
b. (a) Conduction; (b) Convection.
c. (a) Convection; (b) Convection.
d. (a) Conduction; (b) Conduction.

A
24
Q
  1. What is the cause of the Earth’s geomagnetic field?

a. Plate tectonics.
b. Flow of the liquid outer core.
c. Rotation of the solid inner core.
d. Radioactivity within the Earth.
e. Solar wind.

A
25
Q
  1. What was observed happening in Siberia twice, in 1908 at Tunguska and in 2013 at Chelyabinsk?

a. Powerful geomagnetic storms caused widespread electrical power blackouts.

b. Meteors exploded a few kilometers above the surface in damaging airbursts.

c. Large meteorites slammed into the Earth generating impact craters.

d. Large intraplate earthquakes occurred in response to postglacial rebound.

A
26
Q
  1. When were the theories of Continental drift and Plate tectonics developed?
    a. They were both developed in the 1910s.
    b. They were both developed in the 1960s.
    c. Continental drift was developed in the 1910s, and Plate tectonics in the 1960s.
    d. Plate tectonics was developed in the 1910s, and Continental drift in the 1960s.
A
27
Q
  1. Which ocean is characterized by passive continental margins on both sides?
    a. The Atlantic Ocean.
    b. The Indian Ocean.
    c. The Pacific Ocean.
A
28
Q
  1. What is the earthquake epicenter?

a. The point on the fault plane where the earthquake rupture starts.

b. The point on the fault plane where the earthquake rupture stops.

c. The point on Earth’s surface immediately above where the earthquake rupture starts.

d. The midway point of the earthquake surface rupture.

e. The point on Earth’s surface where the strongest shaking was felt.

A
29
Q
  1. What best characterizes an earthquake surface rupture?

a. A crater, similar to those observed on the Moon.
b. A large, open fissure containing a deep chasm.
c. A broad area criss-crossed by fissures and cracks.
d. A linear set of offsets to cultural features (e.g. roads) and landforms (e.g. rivers).

A
30
Q
  1. In the continents, what is the normal thickness of the seismogenic layer (the brittle part of the lithosphere that is capable of hosting earthquakes)?

a. Approximately 1 km — the part of the crust comprising sedimentary rocks.
b. Approximately 15 km — the upper one third to one half of the crust.
c. Approximately 40 km — the whole of the crust.
d. Approximately 100 km — the whole of the lithosphere.

A
31
Q
  1. What best describes earthquake body waves, which travel through the Earth’s interior, in relation to surface waves, which travel around the Earth’s surface?

a. Body waves are faster and smaller amplitude.
b. Body waves are slower and smaller amplitude.
c. Body waves are faster and larger amplitude.
d. Body waves are slower and larger amplitude.
e. They travel at the same velocity, but body waves are larger amplitude.

A
32
Q
  1. How much more seismic moment (energy) is released in a Mw 6.0 earthquake than a Mw 5.0 earthquake?

a. 6/5 = 1.2 times as much.

b. 10 times as much.

c. (6/5) × 10 = 12 times as much.

d. 101.5 = ∼32 times as much.

A
33
Q
  1. Why might Vancouver experience stronger shaking during a Cascadia megathrust earthquake than Victoria, even though Vancouver is situated further from the plate boundary?

a. Because more people live in Vancouver than Victoria, so the risk is higher in Vancouver.

b. Because the earthquake hypocenter (the point on the fault where the rupture starts) is likely to lie directly
beneath Vancouver.

c. Because Vancouver lies closer to the Cascade arc volcanoes (e.g. Mt Baker) than Victoria, and the earth-
quake will likely trigger volcanic activity.

d. Because much of Vancouver is built on soft sedimentary rocks which amplify ground shaking (basin ampli-
fication), whereas most of Victoria is built on hard, volcanic bedrock.

A
34
Q
  1. What is liquefaction?

a. When water is released into the mantle at subduction zones, leading to arc volcanism.
b. When mantle rocks undergo decompression melting at mid-ocean ridges, forming liquid magma.
c. When saturated sedimentary rocks liquefy during earthquake shaking.
d. When waste-water from fracking is buried at depth, increasing pore pressures and triggering induced earth-
quakes.

A
35
Q
  1. What class of earthquake was the 11 March 2011 Mw 9.0 Tohoku (Japan) earthquake?

a. A shallow forearc crustal earthquake.
b. A subduction megathrust earthquake.
c. An intermediate depth “intraslab” earthquake.
d. A deep earthquake.

A
36
Q
  1. What class of earthquake were the 30 November 2018 Mw 7.1 Anchorage, Alaska and 28 February 2001 Mw 6.8 Nisqually, Washington earthquakes?

a. Shallow forearc crustal earthquakes. b. Subduction megathrust earthquakes.
c. Intermediate depth “intraslab” earthquakes.
d. Deep earthquakes.

A
37
Q
  1. There is a ∼12% to ∼33% chance of a megathrust earthquake on the Cascadia subduction zone in the next fifty years. This statement is an example of what?

a. An earthquake prediction.
b. An earthquake early warning.
c. An earthquake forecast.
d. A seismic retrofit.

A
38
Q
  1. Earthquake early warning relies upon what principle?

a. The fact that P waves are faster than damaging surface waves.
b. The ability of sophisticated computer models to determine earthquake probabilities.
c. The fact that some large earthquakes are preceded by smaller foreshocks.
d. The observation that animals sometimes behaved oddly immediately before an earthquake.

A
39
Q
  1. If the BC government built an earthquake early warning system on Vancouver Island, what would happen to the seismic hazard and seismic risk in Victoria?

a. The hazard would decrease, but the risk would stay the same.
b. The hazard would stay the same, but the risk would decrease.
c. Both the hazard and the risk would decrease.
d. Both the hazard and the risk would stay the same.

A
40
Q
  1. What best describes the relationship between a building’s height and its resonant frequency?

a. The resonant frequency depends only on the type of bedrock, not on the building size.
b. Tall buildings resonate at a lower frequency (fewer vibrations per second) than short buildings.
c. Tall buildings resonate at a higher frequency (more vibrations per second) than short buildings.

A