More critical care Flashcards

1
Q

online repository for free transport related safety tools

A

Vision Zero

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2
Q

Vision Zero

A

online repository for free transport related safety tools

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3
Q

what is an important component of safety culture

A

data management system full of honest meaningful information

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4
Q

FAA’s Management System

A

top down approach to measuring safety and risk

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5
Q

Just Culture

A

system used to implement organization improvement presenting a set of designated laws that influence an organization’s ability to create the effect it desires

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6
Q

4 Pillars of FAA’s Safety Managment System

A

policy
risk managment
safety assurance & promotion

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7
Q

how do you prioritize risk

A

risks are prioritized by likelihood and conse4quence severity

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8
Q

hazards

A

conditions that have the potential to cause harm/damage/decrease teh functionality of personnel

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9
Q

IIMC

A

inadvertent instrument meterological conditoins

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10
Q

problems of using lights and sirens

A

increases risk w/o increaseing outcomes

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11
Q

what must be done if you lights/sirens during transport

A

CAMTS requires that all uses of lights and sirens be reported

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12
Q

IFR

A

instrument flight rules

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13
Q

how do you determine risk

A

determien risk by asking “does the benefit exceed the risk identified by hazard assessment w/added controls”

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14
Q

what should a pilot do if he is unsure if he should accept a medical trnasport

A

call the OCC (operational control center) who will make the final go/no go call

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15
Q

3 elements of safety assurance

A

safety performance monitoring & management
management of chance
continuous improvement of safety management system

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16
Q

how do you promote safety

A

lead by example

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17
Q

rehearse exit

A

egress training

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18
Q

major cause of accidents

A

human error

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19
Q

explain the swiss cheese model

A

for every major incident, there are multiple opportunities to prevent yet those opportunities are missed b/c inadequate team interaction/communication that leads to underappreciated/underreporting/failure to detect

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20
Q

stance on helicopter shopping

A

acceptable

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21
Q

how much uninterrupted rest before flying

A

10 hours

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22
Q

what do you do immediately before take off

A

vehicle walk around

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23
Q

situational awareness

A

understanding of what is occurring in the present,
how it relates to what has happened,
how likely it is to affect the future

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24
Q

idea of AMRM

A

when you know normal operations, you can detect deviations in weather/routes/speed/slope of ascent. training gets you in the habit of speaking up

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25
Q

not speaking to the pilot during critical phases

A

sterile cockput

26
Q

Just Culture

A

program to focus organizations less on events/errors/outcomes

focus more on risk/system design and managment of behavioral change

27
Q

frequent cause of major incidents

A

poor communication

28
Q

safety culture =

A

attitude + proven policies

29
Q

5 transport physiological stressors

A

g force
transport physiology
dehydration
noise
vibration

30
Q

problem of alcohol when flying

A

risk hypoxia

31
Q

how much time in between flying and alcohol

A

12 hours

32
Q

flying after donating blood

A

72 hours
b/c
risk of 1 pint donated = 13% of blood volume lost. which decreases capacity of hte blood to carry oxygen so you feel tired

33
Q

failure to manage cumulative stress

A

= burnout

34
Q

sleep debt

A

accumulation of less than ideal sleep over time affects metabolism/endocrine leading to stroke, MI, diabetes, HTN, ulcers, depression…

35
Q

sleep latency

A

time it takes you to fall asleep in a quite environment

36
Q

sleep intertia

A

impaired alertness from the time you awake

37
Q

time it takes to fall asleep versus impaired alertness when you awake

A

sleep latency = time it takes to fall asleep
sleep inertia = impaired alertness from the time you awake

38
Q

normal AFI (L&D)

A

5-25 cm

39
Q

purpose of AFI (L&D)

A

cushions fetus and the cord
- normal fetal growth, movement, and development

40
Q

oligohydramnios

A

AFI 0-5cm
- slow amniotic leak, uteroplacental insufficincy, fetal kideny problems
- potentially poor fetal outcomes
- fetal deformity, cord compression, inadequate lung development

41
Q

instructions post amniocentesis

A

light activity for 24hrs
- uterine irritability
- increased po intake to icnrese uteroplacental circulation which will help replace losses during the procedure

42
Q

got OSCAR for LINCOLN

A

Daniel Day Lewis

43
Q

when does fetal blood circulation start

A

4th week

44
Q

PO2 of fetal blood

A

hypoxemic. PaO2 20-30

45
Q

PVR in fetus

A

PVR in fetus is high b/c alveoli are filled w/fluid

46
Q

SVR in fetus

A

SVR is low b/c substantial portion of fetal systemic venous blood enters the placenta where it is a low resistance pathway

47
Q

SVR when the fetal cord is cut

A

SVR is low in utero
SVR increases when the cord is cut and blood flow shifts from teh previous low resistence placental circuit

48
Q

what happens when a baby takes first breath

A

fluid from alveoli is expelled and absorpbed by pulmonary capillary

49
Q

PVR post delivery

A

pulmonary vascular resistances decreasss 80% post delivery but doesn’t reach normal levels until day 14-21 psot birth

50
Q

PDA closes

A

PDA closes = blood ejects from R ventricle into pulmoanry circulation which leads to decreased PVR

51
Q

complete PDA closure

A

compelte PDA closure in 2 wks but immediate closure in repsonse to increased PaO2 levels from frist breath and loss of prostaglanding function

52
Q

3 classifications of congenital heart defects

A

increased pulmonary blood flow,
decreased pulmonary blood flow,
obstruction to systemic blood flow

53
Q

acyanotic congenital cardiac defect

A

“PINK”
increased blodo flow to lugns, damages lung tissue and vaculature leading to fibrosis-pulmoanry HTN and increased pulmonary

54
Q

problem of increased PVR

A

leads to increased heart workload b/c pump against high pressure

55
Q

cyanotic congenital heart defect

A

BLUE.
low/no blood flow to lungs. might have collateral flow
R to L shunt
decreased b. flow = underdeveloped lungs
- might develop polycythemic to increase oxyugen carryign capacities

56
Q

obstructive congenital heart defect

A

lesion decreases CO to periopherial so they are dependent on an open PDA
- incerase dleft heart so the L. ventricular hypertrophy over time. heart failure

57
Q

nICP

A

noninvasive ICP monitoring
- IOP
- near infared spectorscopy. measur eblood hgb level w/light
- transcranial doppler US
- tympanic membrane displacement

58
Q

sometimes the cause of IOP

A

raised ICP
- raise in level ofoptic nerve
impaired venous drainage from orbit
shortening in length of hte eye

59
Q

NPi

A

neurology pupil index
(pupil size and reaction to light)

60
Q

HOB if head injury

A

15-30%

61
Q

general management principle of neuro emergencies

A

monitor perfusion
preserve cerebral function

62
Q
A