Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Mordor / NPTE > Mordor / NPTE > Flashcards

Mordor / NPTE Flashcards

1
Q

Weakness of elbow flexion, wrist extension, and diminished brachioradialis reflex?

A

C6 Myotome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Medial/superior winging of scapula, absent upward rotation of scapula?

A

Spinal Accessory Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sensory loss over webspace of thumb and weak supination?

A

Radial Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Weakness with shoulder abduction and ER?

A

Axillary Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Weakness with shoulder abduction and sensory loss of anterior forearm, diminished biceps reflex?

A

C5 Nerve Root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

No tip to tip pinch of 1st and 2nd fingers?

A

AIN Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Weakness with elbow extension and diminished triceps reflex?

A

C7 or Radial Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Deep shoulder pain, weakness with ER?

A

Suprascapular Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ape Hand

A

Median Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a Lisfranc injury and what are they typically caused by?

A

mets separating from tarsus, caused by crush injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the diaphragm innervated by?

A

phrenic nerve through C3-C5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What sensations does the DCML give rise to?

A

monofilament (fine touch), vibration, proprioception (MVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What sensations does the ALS give rise to?

A

pain and temp (what “ails” you)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For adhesive capsulitis, what motion will be most limited?

A

lateral/ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a common comorbidity of adhesive capsulitis?

A

DMII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is atelectasis and what are appropriate treatments for it? Is it obstructive or restrictive?

A

A partial or collapsed lung or fluid captured in a lung. It’s obstructive.

  1. Segmental Breathing - prolongs inspiration
  2. Incentive Spirometry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What nerve is the saphenous nerve a branch of and where is it located?

A

femoral, medial lower limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What nerve is implicated if your patient has weak dorsiflexion, sensory loss over the 1st webspace of the foot?

A

Deep peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What nerve is implicated is you have weak plantar flexors, paresthesia over your heel/posterior leg?

A

S1 nerve root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What nerve is implicated with a +1 patellar tendon reflex, weak hip flexion, and a loss of sensation on the medial malleolus?

A

Femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What nerve is implicated if you have weak eversion?

A

Superficial peroneal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What nerve is implicated if you have weak toe flexion and lateral foot paresthesia?

A

Tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A patient has sustained an injury that has severed the musculocutaneous nerve. What muscles are MOST likely to be used to assist with elbow flexion?

A

Pronator Teres (median nerve) and Brachioradialis (radial nerve).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If your patient presents with an inability to externally rotate or adduct their hip, what nerve may be implicated?

A

Obturator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What nerve supplies the gluteus medius, minimus?

A

Superior gluteal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What nerve supplies the glute max?

A

Inferior gluteal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of tarsal tunnel syndrome?

A

medial arch pain / pain with passive eversion, weak foot intrinsics / weak toe flexors, pronated foot, calcaneal valgus from impingement of posterior tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which ions used in iontophoresis are negative and therefore will they require a cathode or anode for delivery?

A

ISAD - iodine, salicylate, acetate, dexamethasone

Cathode will be needed because it’s negative and like charges repel each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If a patient is able to open their jaw to the RIGHT much more than LEFT what is this called and what is the appropriate intervention?

A

LEFT TMJ hypermobility and RIGHT TMJ hypomobility, inferior glide manipulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What metabolic abnormalities are associated with adrenal insufficiency?

A

Hyponatremia, hyPERkalemic (think weakness), hypoglycemic, and may have acidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 3 stages of lyme disease characterized by?

A

Stage 1 - weeks, inflammation
Stage 2 - palsy/meningitis/heart palpitations
Stage 3 - mths-yrs, neuralgia, myalgia, cognitive effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a positive Stemmer’s sign?

A

Implicated in cases of lymphedema by inability to pull up skin on the base of the second toe or finger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two different common obstetric brachial plexopathies? What other syndrome can also be present with one of these?

A

Erb DUchenne’s, C5-C6 (upper), caused by traumatic birth, waiter’s tip presentation

Klumpke’s, C8-T1 (lower), climbing a tree / birth, presents with claw hand
- can also involve Horner’s - eye dilation, eyelid droop / ptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is tenderness at McBurney’s point and what is this indicative of?

A

RIGHT lower quadrant tenderness, indicative of appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

pain and tenderness over the RIGHT costovertebral angle indicative of acute cholecystitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What level indicates a severe limitation for Gross Motor Classification for CP? What kind of PT goals can we expect at other levels?

A

Level 5 = severe

Level 1 = jumping/climbing
Level 3 = stair training
Level 3 or 4 = MWC use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is decerebrate posture? Decorticate?

A

extension x 4, 2/2 or Joe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the range of the Glasgow Coma Scale and what does the lowest level indicate?

A

3-15, a 3 is comatose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What intervention may be used in a patient with emphysema and why? Is this pathology obstructive or restrictive?

A

Pursed Lip Breathing because this increases the resistance to airways on exhalation which increases pressure which prevent airway collapse.

Emphysema is obstructive, air sacs are weak which essentially creates collapse / makes is hard to get air out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is loose packed position for the humeral/ulnar joint?

A

70 deg of elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the definition of these wound descriptors: purulent, serosanguinous, maceration?

A

foul smelling / yellow-green
some blood
softening of tissues / white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the obturator sign and what is it used for?

A

FADIR, indicative of an inflamed appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is ROVSING’s sign?

A

referred pain to RLQ with palpation of LLQ indicative of appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the Psoas Sign?

A

LEFT side lying w/ R hip extension indicative of appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What number is indicative of good reliability? What number is indicative of poor?

A

Above 0.75 = good

Below 0.5 = poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of stroke may present as contralateral hemiplegia w/ the LE affected more than the upper?

A

ACA

47
Q

What type of stroke may present w/ visual impairment, pain, involuntary movements (with the possibility of hemiplegia)?

A

PCA

48
Q

What type of stroke is likely present with hemiplegia greater in the UE than LE?

A

MCA

49
Q

What kind of stroke may present w/ herniation/coma/death due to massive infarct in MCA/ACA?

A

Internal Carotid

50
Q

Will a patient w/ Guillain-Barre present more like someone with obstructive or restrictive lung disease?

A

Restrictive

51
Q

If I have an increased inspiratory to expiratory ratio AND increased subcostal angle what kind of lung disease do I have?

A

Obstructive

52
Q

What are normal-ish ranges for maximal inspiratory pressures and maximal expiratory pressures?

A

85-125 and 150-230 respectively

53
Q

FEV1/FVC <70% is indicative of which type of lung disease?

A

Obstructive

54
Q

FEV1/FVC >80% is indicative of which type of lung disease?

A

Restrictive

55
Q

What is normal platelet count and what is it called?

A

150k-450k

<150 = thrombocytopenia
>450 = thrombocytosis
56
Q

What is the capsular pattern of the hip?

A

IR, hip flex, AB (in order of most limited to least)

57
Q

Myopathy is characterized by what principal feature and what medication is associated with risk of this?

A

Proximal muscle weakness, Statins

58
Q

What are some central features of myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. 20-30yr. old females or 50-60yr. old male
  2. AI which diminishes nerve signals (LMN!)
  3. associated w/ hyperthyroidism
  4. bilateral UE and LE proximal weakness
  5. mild ptosis
    - no fever, no stiffness
59
Q

What are some defining features of ALS?

A
  1. distal to proximal weakness
  2. asymmetric
  3. will have LMN and UMN involvement w/o sensory loss
60
Q

What are some defining features of Guillain-Barre?

A
  1. Usually follows a respiratory infection of some kind
  2. distal to proximal weakness
  3. glove/stocking
  4. can have fever
61
Q

Where is an individual most likely to experience gout and what will be elevated in their labs?

A

1st MTP, knee, wrist

uric acid

62
Q

How many PVCs in a row must be thrown in order to qualify for ventricular tachy?

A

> 3

63
Q

What is the central pathology of a Boutonniere deformity?

A

extensor digitorum rupture through trauma or disease which yields volar slippage of lateral bands

64
Q

What are a positive head jolt test and Kernig’s sign indicative of?

A

meningeal irritation

  • positive head jolt - cervical rot 2-3x/sec
  • kernig’s - supine/hip flexed and then knee straightened
65
Q

What is agnosia?

A

inability to recognize something

66
Q

What is ideational apraxia?

A

can’t perform a familiar motor task automatically or on command

67
Q

What is anosognia?

A

Denial of one’s paralysis

68
Q

What will you hear with a pneumothorax?

A

Absent breath sounds

69
Q

Where two vessels does lymph travel towards? And how much?

A

75% thoracic duct, 25% right lymphatic duct from RIGHT upper body

70
Q

When performing manual lymphatic massage where should the PT begin first?

A

Proximal to distal bc the lymph load in proximal areas must be relieved first.

71
Q

What are the 4 stages of lymphedema?

A

Stage 1: abnormal flow, but no sx
Stage 2: sx, but resolve w/ elevation
Stage 3: sx, but no change w/ elevation
Stage 4: elephants

72
Q

What is a common side effect of statins?

A

Muscle pain (rhabdo), liver

73
Q

Describe ASIA levels.

A

A: complete - no motor/sensory in sacral segments.
B: incomplete - sensory, but not motor in sacral segments.
C: incomplete - motor preserved but at <3/5
D: incomplete - motor preserved but at > or equal to 3/5
E: normal

74
Q

What are the four wound stages?

A
  1. can’t be blanched
  2. partial thickness/blister
  3. full thickness, crater, CAN’T SEE BONE/MUSCLE/TENDON
  4. full thickness plus now you can see it
75
Q

What is the difference between a prospective cohort and case control study?

A

prospective looks forward in time, a case control is retrospective

76
Q

What are US parameters for deep tissue?

A

1MHz for anything greater than 2cm deep

77
Q

What muscles are used in mouth opening?

A

Lateral pterygoid, ant head of digastric, suprahyoid

78
Q

What is a max score on the FABQ and what does it mean?

A

96, highest fear

79
Q

What does a 100% on the Oswestry indicate?

A

Bed bound disability

80
Q

How do you distinguish between lymphedema, CVI, CHF, and lipedema?

A

lymphedema is not necessary bilateral while the other 3 are

CVI is characterized by varicose veins w/ pain and achiness along those veins

CHF = cardio sx and hypoxic skin changes

lipedema - no swelling in feet/hands

81
Q

What is the scale of the Rancho Los Amigos?

A

I - not responsive to X which is modI

82
Q

For FIM levels, what might a 1 indicate? a 7?

A 
1 = total assistance
7 = complete independence
83
Q

What glides should use to increase wrist extension? Wrist flexion?

A

PA - to increase extension

AP - to increase flexion

84
Q

If someone has spasticity, what might forceful PROM put them at risk for?

A

HO

85
Q

What is an early sign of RIGHT ventricular failure?

A

Dependent edema due to backlog of blood

86
Q

To increase calcaneal eversion, what direction should you mobilize in?

A

medial

87
Q

What are the current recommendations for pressure relief for patients w/ SCI?

A

10-15 sec, every 15-20 min

88
Q

What is Reiter’s syndrome characterized by?

A

“Can’t see, pee, climb a tree.”

89
Q

What is Paget’s Disease characterized by?

A

increased temp over the long bones, usually of the pelvis

90
Q

What is hypothyroidism characterized by?

A

muscle ache / myalgia, cold intolerance, bradycardia, obesity, constipation

91
Q

What is hyperthyroidism characterized by?

A

heat intolerance, tachy, eye bulging, hyperreflexia, diarrhea

92
Q

What is hypoglycemia characterized by?

A

“like you’re drunk”

tachy, sweating, pallor, hunger, blurred vision

93
Q

What is hyperglycemia characterized by?

A

increased thirst “high and dry”, dim pulse, acetone breath

94
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Low adrenal activity, postural hypertension (fall risk), dehydration, hypoglycemia

95
Q

What is Cushing’s syndrome?

A

High adrenal activity “crush”: HTN, Na+ and water retention, osteoporosis, moon face, kyphosis, hypokalemia, hypergylcemia

96
Q

What is hyperparathyroidism characterized by?

A

Increased secretion of PTH leads to hypercalcemia, LMN reflexes, OP fx risk (due to osteoclast activity)

97
Q

What are some contraindications to aquatic therapy?

A

Vital Capacity <1L
Severe Peripheral Disease
Severe Kidney Disease

98
Q

What glide should you perform to increase wrist flexion?

A

dorsal

99
Q

What glide should you perform to increase pronation of the proximal radio-ulnar joint?

A

PPL (if supination SAM) - for distal, flipped

100
Q

What glide should you perform to increase ulnar deviation?

A

radial glide

101
Q

What’s the differential diagnosis between osteosarcoma and Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

osteosarcoma - 10-25y.o. w/ pain around the lump

Ewing’s - 5-16 y.o., fever, usually in long bones/pelvis

102
Q

What is the amount of standard deviations of decrease in bone mass a patient has to have to qualify for osteoporosis diagnosis?

A

> 2.5

103
Q

What is order of radiolucence to radiopacity on a radiograph?

A

air, fat, soft tissue/water, bone, metal

104
Q

What’s the difference between Trigeminal Neuralgia and Bell’s Palsy?

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia involves CN V vs. Bell’s Palsy which involves CN VII - neuralgia is painful, bell’s palsy involves paralysis “whistle, wink, wrinkle”.

105
Q

What presentation will we see with a patient w/ Brown Sequard Syndrome?

A

loss of pain/temp on the contralateral side

loss of fine touch, proprio + motor on the ipsilateral side

106
Q

What presentation will we see for a patient w/ Central Cord Syndrome?

A

cervical/thoracic impact (these are more central), UE probs > LE, distal problems will be worse than proximal

107
Q

What presentation will we see for a patient w/ Anterior Cord Syndrome?

A

they will lose motor, pain, and temp but retain DCML (fine touch/proprio)

108
Q

What type of syndrome might occur with a bilateral loss of proprioception?

A

Posterior Cord Syndrome

109
Q

When should you not complete PT for a PaO2 level?

A

<60mmhg

110
Q

When is a SaO2 level ok for patients with COPD?

A

88-92mmhg

111
Q

What platelet level should you NOT ambulate a patient with?

A

<10k

112
Q

What are the norms for potassium levels and what can happen if your patient is abnormal?

A

3.5-5.0, arrythmias

113
Q

At what level or INR should you exercise caution with a patient?

A

> 4 (>5 is a serious bleed risk)

Mordor / NPTE (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions