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PVM > MOOOOO > Flashcards

MOOOOO Flashcards

1
Q

what are more accustomed to handling diary or beef?

A

diary cows

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2
Q

what are reasons for humane handling of livestock

A

-safety
-animal well-being/welfare (stress alters behavior)
-production (stress decreases production)
-beef quality assurance program

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3
Q

what is the temperament of castrated males and females?

A

mild or docile in temperament

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4
Q

what is the flight zone?

A

an area surrounding an animal, a distance an animal will keep for feeling safe from predators or potential danger

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5
Q

how do you move cattle?

A

handler is between the flight zone and the point of balance

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6
Q

what should you check before moving cattle?

A

the gates are set properly

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7
Q

for standing surgery of the flank which way would you tie the head?

A

toward the side of the incision

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8
Q

where should you tie the tail tie to?

A

-always tie the tail tie to the animal or its halter
-do NOT tie it to the chute or pole

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9
Q

what are some reasons for casting a cow?

A

-dysotica
-field surgery of feet when no tilting shoot
-correcting a left displaced abomasum by toggling

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10
Q

how would you cast a cow for assisting in vaginal delivery?

A

right lateral recumbency

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11
Q

how would you cast a cow when doing a C-section when the fetus is emphysematous

A

dorsal recumbency and paramedic approach

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12
Q

what caution should be taken when casting a cow into lateral recumbency?

A

-always check for bloat
-prevent aspiration by elevating the larynx above the nose
-prevent radial nerve damage by putting cushion and stretching the bottom front leg forward

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13
Q

what are the two casting ties?

A

half hitch
casting-burley

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14
Q

reason for tail jack

A

prevent the animal from kicking
-tail bleeding
-manipulation of udder
-rumenocentesis

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15
Q

what does the udder cinch do?

A

prevents animal from kicking

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16
Q

what cow is this?

A

Jersey
diary

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17
Q

what cow is this?

A

Brown Swiss
diary

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18
Q

what cow is this?

A

holstein
diary

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19
Q

what cow is this?

A

Angus
beef

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20
Q

what cow is this?

A

red Angus
beef

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21
Q

what cow is this?

A

hereford
beef

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22
Q

what cow is this

A

polled Hereford
beef

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23
Q

what cow is this?

A

shorthorn
beef, milk

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24
Q

what continental breed is this?

A

charolais
-meat milk and work

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25
Q

what continental breed is this?

A

limousin
beef, work

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26
Q

what continental cow breed is this?

A

salers
beef, milk production, work

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27
Q

what continental cow breed is this?

A

braunvieh
-foundation for American brown Swiss
-milk, beef

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28
Q

what continental cow breed is this?

A

simmental
-rapid growth, milk production, draft

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29
Q

what continental cow breed is this?

A

gelbvieh
-milk,meat, draft

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30
Q

what continental cow breed is this?

A

belgian blue
-dual purpose breed
-terminal sires in commercial production

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31
Q

what breed of bos indicus cow is this?

A

brahman
-heat and insect tolerant

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32
Q

what type of bos indicus cow breed is this?

A

santa gertrudis
-calving ease, mothering, milk

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33
Q

what type of bos indicus cow breed is this?

A

Santa Cruz
-heat resistance, Texas, fertile, mothering

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34
Q

what type of bos indicus cow breed is this?

A

beefmaster
-fertility, weight, conformation, hardiness, milk, disposition
-cross brahman bulls with commercial Hereford- shorthorn cows

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35
Q

what composite breed is this?

A

brangus

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36
Q

what composite cow breed is this?

A

red brangus

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37
Q

what composite cow breed is this?

A

braford

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38
Q

what composite cow breed is this?

A

brahmousin

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39
Q

what composite cow breed is this?

A

charbray

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40
Q

what composite cow breed is this?

A

gelbray

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41
Q

what composite cow breed is this?

A

simbrah

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42
Q
A

texas longhorn
calving ease, adaptable

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43
Q

adult female lamb

A

ewe

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44
Q

young female lamb

A

ewe lamb

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45
Q

adult intact male lamb

A

ram

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46
Q

young intact male lamb

A

ram lamb

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47
Q

castrated male lamb

A

wether

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48
Q

term for parturition for a lamb?

A

lambing

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49
Q

adult female goat

A

doe

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50
Q

young female goat

A

doeling

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51
Q

adult intact male goat

A

buck

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52
Q

young intact male goat

A

buckling

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53
Q

castrated male goat

A

wether

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54
Q

term for parturition for a goat?

A

kidding

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55
Q

what is primiparous?

A

individual baring the first offspring

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56
Q

what is multiparous?

A

having had multiple pregnancy or babies

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57
Q

do goats or sheep have a filtrum dividing their lip?

A

sheep
-to help graze

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58
Q

do goats or sheep have scent glands near their eye?

A

sheep

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59
Q

difference between goat and sheep tail?

A

-goats have upright tail
-sheep have down pointing tail

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60
Q

do sheep or goats have a scent gland in between their hooves?

A

sheep

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61
Q

what type of sheep is this?

A

mouflon sheep
-ancestor for all modern sheep

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62
Q

what are the common breeds of wool sheep?

A

hampshire
suffolk
texel
cheviot
dorset

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63
Q

what was the wool sheep bred for?

A

bred to lose ability to shed coat

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64
Q

what are common breed of the hair sheep?

A

dorper
barbados
st. croix
katahdin

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65
Q

what are hair sheep mostly used for?

A

mostly for meat

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66
Q

are hair sheep able to shed?

A

yes and they get lice

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67
Q

what breed is this sheep?

A

merino
-neck folds, wool over entire body

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68
Q

what breed of sheep is this?

A

Lincoln
-long wool with spirals, forelock, bare nose

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69
Q

what breed of sheep is this?

A

hampshire
-white wool, back face/ears, unbroken wool cap

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70
Q

what breed of sheep is this?

A

suffolk
-bald black face, white wool, black ears/limbs

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71
Q

what are some notable traits and important info about Suffolk sheep?

A

-large meat and show breed
-most common US breed
-fast growing, feed efficiency, good carcass quality

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72
Q

what breed of sheep is this?

A

texel
-distinctive short wide face with black nose and wide short ears, all white, barer face

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73
Q

what breed of sheep is this?

A

east friesian
-thick white wool, bald face and ears, pink nose

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74
Q

what breed of sheep is this?

A

katahdin
-varible appearance, multiple colors

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75
Q

what breed of sheep is this?

A

dorper
-pure white or white with black head and neck

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76
Q

what breed of sheep is this?

A

Jacob
-black and white spotted fleece, prominent horns, black cheeks/muzzle/ears

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77
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

bezoar

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78
Q

what breed is the OG ancestor of the goat?

A

bezoar

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79
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

Angora
-thin/fine build, fiber ringlets to wavy, horns

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80
Q

traits of Angora goats

A

-LICE
-purpose fiber

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81
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

Boer
-red or black neck/face, roman nose

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82
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

spanish
-variable appearance, horns, small udder

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83
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

alpine
-tricolor, spotted, black and white, variable in appearance

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84
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

toggenburg
-white markings, females have beards

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85
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

nubian
-long ears, roman nose, variable in appearance

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86
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

saanen
-all white, upright long ears

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87
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

lamancha
-little to no pinna
-dairy

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88
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

pygmy
-meat goat

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89
Q

what breed of goat is this?

A

nigerian dwarf
-diary goat

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90
Q

where do you do routine tail docking in sheep?

A

three palpable joints

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91
Q

adult female camelid

A

hembra

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92
Q

intact male camelid

A

macho

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93
Q

castrated male camelid

A

gelding

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94
Q

neonate camelid

A

cria

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95
Q

partition term camelid

A

criating

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96
Q

berserk male syndrome of camelids

A

-aberrant behavior syndrome
-aggressive behavior, spitting, biting, rubbing against people
-when bottle fed and over socialized, incorrect imprinting

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97
Q

adult female pig

A

sow

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98
Q

maiden female pig

A

gilt

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99
Q

intact male pig

A

boar

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100
Q

castrated male pig

A

barrow

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101
Q

noenate pig

A

piglet

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102
Q

parturition term for pig

A

farrowing

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103
Q

what is the average weight of miniature pig?

A

<150 lbs

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104
Q

what is the average weight of small pig?

A

mature weight 300-500lbs

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105
Q

what is the average weight of medium pig?

A

boar 500-800lbs
sow 450-650lbs

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106
Q

what is the average weight of large pig?

A

> 900 lbs

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107
Q
A

sus scrofa
ancestor to all domestic pigs
-invasive species

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108
Q

what is the breed?

A

tamworth
-very active
-best bacon

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109
Q

what is the breed?

A

duroc
-meat/lard

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110
Q

what is the breed?

A

hampshire
-OG American

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111
Q

what breed is this?

A

Poland china
-meat

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112
Q

what is the breed?

A

landrace
-meat
-sows known for meat production

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113
Q

what is the breed?

A

yorkshire
-most common breed
-meat

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114
Q

what is the breed?

A

Yucatan
-extremely docile

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115
Q

what is the breed?

A

Sinclair
-research model for malignant melanoma

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116
Q

what breed is this?

A

Vietnamese potbellied pig
-zoo pig

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117
Q

what breed is this?

A

Juliana
-pet

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118
Q

what is the breed?

A

kunekune
-pet

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119
Q

what is the national animal identification system (NAIS) and purpose?

A

-through USDA
-track animals moving interstate
-to help rapid trace back of disease

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120
Q

What is it called when camelids lay down?

A

cushing/kushing

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121
Q

What are the current issues and concerns with the national ID system?

A

-RFID tags tend to have a small radius, which limits their usefulness with larger groups of cattle
-concern about property info being widely available
-privacy concerns

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122
Q

what are the four forms of official identification?

A
  1. national uniform ear tagging system
  2. AIN (animal ID number)
  3. flock based number plus herd management number
  4. location based number plus herd
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123
Q

Live stock ID: what is the AIN ( animal ID number)

A

3 digit country code plus a series of 12 number

124
Q

Livestock ID: what it the NUES ( national uniform ear tagging system)

A

Series of numbers that include a postal code or tribal number plus a combo of letters and numbers

125
Q

Livestock ID: what is the flock based number plus herd management number?

A

state postal code plus unique flock #
plus herd #

126
Q

live stock ID: what is the location based number plus herd management number?

A

premise ID
location ID

127
Q

What 3 things do RFID tags have on them

A

US shield
“unlawful to remove”
840 = US country code

128
Q

how long must traceability information be maintained in poultry and swine? all other livestock?

A

2 yrs
5 yrs for all other livestock species

129
Q

most common method of identification in swine

A

ear notching
RFID tags
tattoos
microchipping

130
Q

In pet pigs if using microchips where should they be implanted

A

base of left ear

131
Q

For swine ear notching what does each ear correspond to

A

Right Ear: Litter number
Left Ear: pig number

132
Q
A

piggy

133
Q

what are the requirements for moving swine into AZ for commercial breeds of swine?

A

-federal ear tag
-ear notch plus federal tag
-ear notch plus premise ID tattoo
-slaughter swine must have USDA backtags

134
Q

what are the types of cattle ID

A

tags
branding
tattoos

135
Q

why would a cow have an ear notch

A

tested for BVDV
- not a form of ID

136
Q

who is authorized to have the shield tattoo symbol and to administer the vaccine for brucellosis

A

state vet

137
Q

significance of an orange tag in the right ear of a heifer

A

vaccinated for brucellosis
( heifer must be between 4-12 mo. to receive the vx)

138
Q

describe the 3 parts of the brucellosis tattoo

A

1st symbol: R
-strain of brucella vaccine RB51
2nd symbol: veterinary shield
3rd symbol: last number of the year it was administered

139
Q

Describe silver metal tags for cattle

A

“brite tags”
- permanent ID
- can be used for all cattle not receiving the brucella vaccine

140
Q

T/F: brands are required for all cattle in Arizona

A

False- required for RANGED cattle

141
Q

common forms of identification in small ruminants

A

Scrapie tags- linked to premise of origin
Metal Ear tags
Tattoos
Microchips

142
Q

What does a white or silver scrapie tag indicate

A

normal, low risk animal

143
Q

what does a blue scrapie tag indicate

A

slaughter only/meat tags

144
Q

what does a red scrapie tag indicate?

A

positive for scrapie (SCR printed on back)

145
Q

what does yellow scrapie tag indicate

A

permanently restricted high-risk animal (HR or EX)

146
Q

Where are scrapies tags recommended for placement

A

left ear in sheep

147
Q

For lamancha goats ( no ears) where are tattoos placed

A

along the underside of the tail (bc no ears)

148
Q

describe ear tattoos in small ruminants

A

right ear : registered herd tattoo
left ear: year of birth code letter and individual animal number

149
Q

T/F: sheep are at a higher risk for scrapie than goat

A

true

150
Q

Where are microchips recommended to be placed in small ruminants

A

left side of tail web

151
Q

For a small ruminant imported into arizona that is going directly to slaughter what ID is required

A

USDA or premise ID backtag

152
Q

what is class I milk?

A

beverages
-milk

153
Q

what is class II milk?

A

soft products and frozen

154
Q

what is class III milk?

A

cheese

155
Q

what is class IV milk?

A

butter and powder products

156
Q

what drives the cost of milk

A

supply vs. demand
feed, labor, care

157
Q

nutritional needs of heifer calves

A

-bottle fed 10-15% BW
-ad lib water
-ad lib grain/grass hay (develop rumen)

158
Q

what infectious diseases are you most worried about in calves this young?

A

diarrhea

159
Q

when do you wean calves?

A

around 8 weeks old (2 months)

160
Q

when do you vaccinate calves ?

A

around 6 weeks before weaning

161
Q

what disease are you most worried about in weaned calves?

A

bovine resp disease

162
Q

when do you aim to breed heifers

A

65% of mature weight
-700-800 lbs for holsteins

163
Q

what is the goal age you want heifers to calve

A

22-24 months

164
Q

what does the term freshening mean

A

that lactation starts at calving
- peak lactation occurs 6 weeks after
-just calved

165
Q

What is the time frame for late lactation in cows

A

200-305 days

166
Q

what is the time frame when a cow has peak milk production in their lactation cycle?

A

45-90 days post calving

167
Q

when is the closed up period in the lactation cycle?

A

21 days before calving

168
Q

what is the time frame for the dry off period in action cycle

A

305-365 days
to get prepared for next calving

169
Q

during what period of the action cycle should you monitor for disease?

A

during peak lactation period

170
Q

Describe udder preparation

A

wipe off dirt
pre dip
fore strip
wipe off dip
attach clusters
post dip

171
Q

how many days is lactation standardized to in the US diary industry

A

305 days

172
Q

what are health issues commonly seen during lactation?

A

mastitis
negative energy balance
milk fever

173
Q

What BCS should cows be at calving?

A

3.25-3.5

174
Q

what is a key to profit for dairy cattle

A

low feed costs!!
right cows
decreased morbidity and mortality
cleanliness
good record keeping

175
Q

why would you breed new heifers 1 month prior to breeding mature?

A

bc newer heifers are more likely to have dysotica births and you need time to help them

176
Q

what is the ideal length for a calving season?

A

60 days

177
Q

what makes good quality colostrum

A

age of dam
health of dam
nutritional status of dam
breed

178
Q

how do you measure pelvic breeding

A

pelvimeter

179
Q

what is the role of the stocker industry

A

inc weight of cattle
inc age of cattle
improves quality of cattle

180
Q

at a feedlot, what is the most common health issue we see?

A
  1. respiratory disease
    parasites
181
Q

What is the role of the feedlot/finishing

A

get animal ready for harvest
adjustment time- acclimate to now environment
feed concentrate diet

182
Q

what clinical signs are pen riders looking for?

A

isolation- not coming up to feed bunk
coughing
lying down
open mouth breathing
noses

183
Q

what is dressed weight price based on ( beef production)

A

hot carcass weight at harvest

184
Q

what is grid pricing based on (beef production)

A

quality grade, yield grade, and other premium discounts

185
Q

what are the 3 possible inspection dispositions

A

Passed for slaughter
Suspect
Condemned

186
Q

what is the most widely eaten meat in the world?

A

pork

187
Q

farrow to finish

A

raise pigs from birth to slaughter

188
Q

farrow to feeder

A

piglets born
weaned
fed until feeder
solid to finisher

189
Q

what determines the operation types?

A

labor needs
facility designs
feed costs
population size

190
Q

which operation requires the most labor and feed costs?

A

farrow to finish

191
Q

what pig breed is known for being lawn mowers and does well on pasture diet?

A

kunekune

192
Q

what is the common practice in most swine herds

A

all in all out facility use
- reduces the role of the environment as a reservoir for pathogens on pig farms

193
Q

Gestation period for pigs

A

3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days

194
Q

When do most piglet deaths occur

A

during the first four days of life
-crushing

195
Q

purpose of farrowing crates

A

protect the piglets from crushing

196
Q

Describe the grower/finisher stage of pig production

A

“feeder pigs”
- fed to ~280 lbs
- no difference in management of growers and finishers

197
Q

temperature requirement for newborn piglets?

A

90-95F
sows require 65-75F

198
Q

when are piglets weaned?

A

3-4 weeks

199
Q

describe a nursery for piglets

A

2-3 litters
~ 15-30 piglets
-gradual transition from milk to grain based diet
- raised to 40-60 lbs

200
Q

why are piglets in the nursery stage so susceptible to disease?

A

stress from weaning
decrease Ig from colostrum
commingling of groups
dietary changes

201
Q

key to profit on pig production

A

high level of biosecurity
good management
low feed costs

202
Q

Ruminant Classification: soluble fibers, berries, fruit

A

concentrated selectors

203
Q

Ruminant classification: most advance to foregut utilization

A

grass/roughage feeders

204
Q

ruminant classification: more fiber components and adaptable to both concentrated and low-quality feeds

A

intermediate selectors

205
Q

adult cattle strongly reject

A

bitter tastes (alkaloids)

206
Q

what percent does feed cost represent in ruminant production

A

45-60

207
Q

Ruminant production systems and the diets they consume are _________.

A

diverse

208
Q

what activity is higher and which is lower in concentrate selectors

A

amylase
cellulolytic

209
Q

Cold temperature and lactation stress does what to feed intake

A

increases feed intake

210
Q

pregnancy ( last trimester), heat stress, and increased fat do what to feed intake

A

decrease intake

211
Q

Feed management factors related to feed intake

A

Accessibility
Presentation
Frequency

212
Q

“Other” management factors related to feed intake

A

Social interactions
Hormone implants
Ionophores

213
Q

relative efficiency of fermentation is dependent on what

A

Diet NDF ( neutral detergent fiber)

214
Q

what toxin does tryptophan turn into

A

3-methyl indole

215
Q

what toxin does non structural carbohydrates turn into

A

lactic acid

216
Q

fermentation in the rumen in mostly

A

Sugars from polysaccharides

217
Q

Which isomer is inhibitory to milk fat synthesis

A

CLA Isomer ( trans-10, Cis-12-18:2)

218
Q

How much colostrum do dairy calves need within 24 hours of birth

A

10% of BW
- at least 1/2 within 3 hrs of birth

219
Q

feeding what provides better performance in milk and meat production

A

TMR (total mixed ration)
- bc of rumen environment consistency

220
Q

When feeding feedlot cattle what % of TMR should be concentrates and fiber

A

Concentrates : 80-90%
Fiber: 10-20%

221
Q

the two types of bloat

A

-frothy - microscopic bubbles coalesce in the rumen and for a foam
-free gas

222
Q

which two legumes are prone to cause bloat

A

Alfalfa and Clovers ( 100% digestible)
-bloat tendency depends on rate of fermentation

223
Q

What is the major cause of lactic acidosis the number one feedlot problem

A

excessive highly fermentable carbohydrates

224
Q

what is starch fermented by

A

streptococci and lactobacilli
- produce lactic acid that is normally neutralized by conversion to lactate

225
Q

Effects of rumen osmotic pressure increasing in lactic acidosis

A

Thick blood
Increased fluidity of ruminal contents
Diarrhea
Dec Urine pH

226
Q

Lesions confined to brain tissue caused by severe thiamin deficiency following ruminal acidosis

A

Polioencephalomalacia (PEM)

227
Q

which two animals are prone to copper deficiency

A

sheep and cattle

228
Q

which animals are prone to hypomagnesemia

A

cows, ewes, does

229
Q

what are concerns about RFID tags

A

tend to have a small signal radies, limits their usefulness with larger groups of cattle

230
Q

environmental management factors related to feed intake

A

stress
handing and care
housing conditions
day length

231
Q

what is the basic routine care for goat/sheep

A

-deworm
-ectoparasites
-vax CD&T
-shear 2x year
-hoof trim 2x year

232
Q

how soon should you disbud a goat?

A

4-14 days old

233
Q

describe the routine care for commercial piglets

A

castration
tail dock
clip needle teeth

234
Q

routine care for pet pigs

A

-tusk trim/dental
-hoof trim

235
Q

there is a decrease in smaller diaries and decrease in fluid milk intake

A

a fact you should know

236
Q

where are heifers put once weaned

A

hutches

237
Q

when should you breed heifers by?

A

breed 14-15 months bc you want them to calve at 22-24 months old

238
Q

cow-calf production

A

herd of beef cows –> raising claves until weaning

239
Q

fed-cattle production

A

grain-fed beef
steers and heifers from cow-calf productions–> slaughter

240
Q

what are the three programs that add value to beef cattle

A

background
stocker
preconditioning

241
Q

when do you wean beef cattle

A

6-7 months

242
Q

what is the stocker program for beef cattle

A

graze on grass for 3-4 months post wean
sold as heavier weight

243
Q

what is the preconditioning program

A

30-60 days shorter period of time with vet work like deworming/dehorning/vax/castration

244
Q

what is the backgrounder program

A

90-120 days longer period of time without the vet work

245
Q

where do the most expenses come from in a cow facility

A

feed

246
Q

what are nursery or feeder pigs

A

weaned pigs raised until ~40 lbs then sold to finishing

247
Q

what is the difference between the orange and silver tags in cattle?

A

-orange means vaxed for brucellosis
-silver is ID

248
Q

what is CMT and what is the reason for conducting it?

A

california mastitis test for subclinical mastitis

249
Q

where do you perform a TB test

A

-caudal tail fold
-intradermal skin test
-1ml syringe

250
Q

what is the ideal area to administer IM ink?

A

scapula for meat quality assurance purposes

251
Q

which of the following is the most appropriate feed type for mid-lactating diary cow?

A

TMR
high energy high grain

252
Q

what is the expected normal ruminal pH of cattle that are on pasture?

A

6.5-7.0
(for diary it is slightly lower)

253
Q

what is no covered under the humane methods of slaughter act

A

methods for poultry

254
Q

why test urine in cattle

A

check ketones for negative energy balance

255
Q

what is the purpose of looking at gut fill from behind

A

to see the outline of the rumen, checking for bloat

256
Q

BCS for beef vs diary

A

beef 1-9
diary 1-5

257
Q

what does ping check for

A

gas fluid interspace
checking for abdominal displacement

258
Q

what is succus

A

checking for sloshing

259
Q

what is ballot in PA

A

tactile
checking for layering of the rumen

260
Q

landmarks for outline of the lungs

A

-11th rib down to point of blow up to the 13th rib
or
-5,7,9,11 rib spaces

261
Q

when doing PA of right side what are you looking at

A

heart lungs
lymph nodes
ping and succuss
withers test

262
Q

what is withers test checking for

A

-hardware disease
-to see if there is pain in the reticulum if they don’t go down NOT NORMAL
-cranial abdominal pain
-caudal thoracic pain

263
Q

name all lymph nodes in the cow

A

parotid
submandibular
pre scapular
pre femoral
supramammary

264
Q

what do you check for in neonates PA

A

cleft palate
suckle reflex
colostrum intake
diarrhea
umbilicus, if infected can cause sepsis so check joints

265
Q

when an animal consumes too much alfalfa what kind of stones form?

A

calcium stones

266
Q

when an animal consumes too much grain what kind of stones can that form?

A

survite stones

267
Q

which stones can be dissolved?

A

calcium

268
Q

what kind of feed does a dry cow get?

A

dry TMR feed

269
Q

what kind of feed does a lactating cow get?

A

wet more fermented TMR feed

270
Q

which direction should the head of the cattle be pointed when using a halter for a standing surgery?

A

toward the site of the incision

271
Q

how do you test for subclinical mastitis?

A

california mastitis test

272
Q

how does one test for haemonchus contortus (parasite)?

A

FAMACHA test (not a definite test for the parasite)

273
Q

how much of their body weight should diary calves be feeding on colostrum in the first 24 hours? and how much should they consume in the first 3 hours?

A

-in the first 3 hours they should be consuming about half their body weight in colostrum
-in the first 24 hours should consume 10% of their BW

274
Q

what is the most important consideration production of a lactating cow?

A

no residues (charm tests for milk)

275
Q

normal TPR for bovine

A

100.5-102.5
50-80
12-36

276
Q

how many chamber pseodoruminants have?

A

three compartments
-first two stomachs resemble rumen and reticulum
-third compartment has glandular has glandular tissue similar to ruminants abomasum

277
Q

what agency takes over at the point of slaughter to ensure integrity of food supply of livestock/

A

USDA FSIS

278
Q

which ear should official ID’s go for livestock?

A

right ear

279
Q

USDA distributing small RFID tags as an alternative to official metal tags which ear does it go in?

A

left

280
Q

buckling come in and one has bloody diarrhea and the other has blood in the stool what is something you can give immediately?

A

antitoxin

281
Q

ruminant production system are ____

A

diverse

282
Q

cold you eat more
hot you eat less

A

know that

283
Q

what are some management factors related to feed intake?

A

feeds
environment
social interactions
hormone implants
ionophores

284
Q

what are good things that can be converted to bad things produced by rumen microbes

A

-nitrates–>nitrites
-urea–>ammonia
-nonstructural carbs –> lacatic acid
-tryptophan–> 3-methyl indole

285
Q

what do you call proteins that are not extensively degraded in the rumen?

A

bypass proteins

286
Q

what isomer is inhibitory to milk fat synthesis?

A

CLA isomer

287
Q

what is the advantage od TMR feeding?

A

provides better performance in milk and meat production bc rumen environment consistency

288
Q

concentrates make up how much percent of TMR?

A

80-90%

289
Q

what causes pulmonary edema as a rumen metabolic disorder?

A

caused by tryptophan due to switching form dry forage to lush green pasture

290
Q

excessively highly fermentable carbs is a major cause of what?

A

lactic acidosis
#1 feedlot problem

291
Q

What causes Polioencephalomalacia (PEM) or cerebrocortical necrosis (CNN)?

A

Lesions confined in brain tissue due to vitamin B/thiamin deficiency (important for metabolism of glucose in brain)
** Occurs following ruminal acidosis

292
Q

where is thiamine normally synthesized?

A

rumen bacteria

293
Q

PEM happens/follows after what condition?

A

ruminal acidosis

294
Q

What are some reasons for tail docking lambs?

A

fly strike
cosmetic

295
Q

how long should the tail be when docking?

A

at least 3 palpable joints
-too short increases risk for rectal prolapse

296
Q

what is the trend of diary operations?

A

decreases smaller dairys
increased larger dairys

297
Q

what is heterosis?

A

term for hybrid vigor

298
Q

what is the percentage of feed for each class of cattle?

A

cow calf 99% forage
dairy calf 75% concentrate 25% forage
beef cow 90% concentrate 10% forage

299
Q

what are some toxic compounds the rumen is able to detoxify

A

oxalates
cyanide
alkaloids

300
Q

how does digestibility intake change with fat content?

A

decreases with increased fat content

301
Q

what can cause pulmonary edema?

A

switching from dry forage to lush green pasture
increases tryptophan which is converted by microbes to 3-methyl indole which has a toxic metabolite

302
Q

what causes ruminal lactic acidosis?

A

excessive highly digestible carbs
-too many lactic acid producing bacteria and not enough lactic acid using bacteria

303
Q

what are the consequences of ruminal lactic acidosis?

A

lactic acid spills over to the blood rumen osmotic pressure increases
-thick blood and diarrhea lactic acid metabolized dropping urine pH

304
Q

what is ketosis?

A

negative energy balance forces body to utilize fat for energy producing ketones in the liver

305
Q

what can be caused by a severe thiamin deficiency?

A

polioenchephalomalacia or cerebrocortical necrosis
-seen after lactic acidosis bc microbes is off

306
Q

what causes hypocalcemia?

A

high Ca2+ demand for milk production
alkaline pH decreases PTH activity
-failure to mobilize Ca2+ from bone

PVM (2 decks)

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