Monopoly Flashcards
Total revenue
TR = P(Q) * Q
Average revenue
Given by the demand curve, AR = P (Q)
Marginal revenue (for a monopolist)
Additional revenue from selling one more unit
MR = dTR/dQ
R = Qp(q)
Differentiate to get
MR = QdP/dQ + p
In a monopoly, are firms price takers or makers?
Makers
Uniform pricing
No price discrimination, the monopolist’s sets the same price for everyone
What’s the difference between a firm in a perfectly competitive market & a monopoly in terms of the firm’s demand curve?
PC = firm’s demand is perfectly elastic (horizontal)
Monopoly = since they are the only firm in the market, they face the entire market’s demand curve which is typically downward sloping
Poisoning effect
by selling another unit, I “poison” all my previous sales; in order to sell another unit, I have to lower my price & then I make less profit on all of my previous sales (only in uniform pricing assumption)
Generally, how will the slopes of the MR curve and demand curve relate? (monopoly & uniform pricing)
MR curve will be steeper than the demand curve
Marginal revenue equation (in terms of elasticity of demand)
MR = p(1+1/elasticity of demand for the firm/market)
elasticity of demand in PC = negative infinity, so that’s why MR = p
Describe the relationship between elasticity of demand and marginal revenue for a monopolist
As the elasticity of demand (which is almost always negative) increases in absolute value, the marginal revenue will increase. As the elasticity of demand decreases in absolute value, the marginal revenue will decrease. If the elasticity equals -1 then marginal revenue will equal 0 and when the elasticity equals negative infinity the marginal revenue will equal p∗ .
What’s key when deciding on the profit-maximizing price for a monopolist (after finding the quantity)
You need to plug it back into the demand equation - you HAVE to respect the demand curve
Shutdown rule for monopolists
Same as PC; p > AVC
Market power
the ability to charge a price above marginal cost
Markup equation
Price - MC / price = -1/elasticity of demand
How much more you’re charging than your MC in percentage terms
Why don’t monopolists just charge whatever they want?
Still constrained by people’s ability to substitute across goods (no competition in market, but competition across markets)
Market elasticity of demand constrains monopolists - how substitutable their good is for other goods
If the market demand is less elastic, a monopolists’ markup will be….[ ]…with uniform pricing
higher
If the market demand is more elastic, a monopolists’ markup will be….with uniform pricing
lower
If the market demand is perfectly elastic, a monopolists’ markup will be….with uniform pricing
zero
Explain the relationship between elasticity of demand and markup for monopolists with uniform pricing
The markup that monopolists can charge depends upon the elasticity of market demand (Markup = -1/elasticity of market demand). According to that definition, the markup will fall as market demand becomes more elastic, rise as demand becomes more inelastic and go to zero when demand is perfectly elastic. The markup between marginal cost and price determines how much profit the monopolist will make, so profits will also fall as market demand becomes more elastic, rise as demand becomes more inelastic and go to zero when demand is perfectly elastic. Intuitively, this is true because as market demand becomes more elastic customers are more willing to substitute away from the monopolist good and into other markets. This substitution prevents monopolists from charging higher prices and reaping larger profits.
What is the relationship between monopoly and DWL?
Monopoly leads to deadweight loss
Monopolies will hold units off the market because it is more profit-maximizing to them, and therefore create a DWL
How does social welfare in a monopolist market with uniform pricing compare to social welfare in a perfectly competitive market?
In a monopoly market, producer surplus will go up because the monopolist will produce at the quantity that maximizes profit/producer surplus. Consumer surplus will go down, because the restricted quantity produced will drive some consumers out of the market and the higher price will lower the surplus for the remaining consumers. Social welfare will go down, because restricting the quantity supplied will prevent some beneficial transactions from occurring.
Perfectly price discriminating monopolist
Monopolist can charge whatever price they want to each individual consumer
They will end up at the competitive outcome because there’s no poisoning effect
How does social welfare in a monopolist market with perfect price discrimination compare to social welfare in a perfectly competitive market?
In a monopolist market with perfect price discrimination, the social welfare is the same as in a competitive market, because all the beneficial transactions still occur. The only difference is that the monopolist captures the surplus from these transactions and consumer surplus equals zero. This means that producer surplus will go up and consumer surplus will go down.
Natural monopoly
Some markets have natural cost advantages (i.e. natural resources in a specific location)
For all relevant quantities, one firm can produce at a lower average cost than any other firm can; never makes sense to bring in another firm
AC is everywhere declining (within relevant range) - high fixed costs, low marginal costs