Monitoring Detailed Flashcards

1
Q

How can oxygenation be monitored in anesthesia practice?

A

Through clinical observation, pulse oximetry, and ABGs as indicated.

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2
Q

What are the methods used for monitoring ventilation in anesthesia practice?

A

Auscultation, chest excursion assessment, ETCO2 measurement, pressure monitors as indicated, and RR monitoring every 5 minutes.

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3
Q

What are the cardiovascular monitoring standards during anesthesia?

A

Include electrocardiogram, BP and HR checks every 5 minutes, and auscultation as needed.

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4
Q

How is thermoregulation monitored during anesthesia?

A

By monitoring for clinically significant changes in body temperature.

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5
Q

When should neuromuscular monitoring be emphasized during anesthesia practice?

A

Especially when neuromuscular blocking agents are administered.

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6
Q

What factors determine additional monitoring standards in anesthesia practice?

A

Patient needs, surgical techniques, or specific procedures.

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7
Q

Why is it important to chart any omission of monitoring with a reason?

A

To ensure transparency, accountability, and a complete record of care provided.

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8
Q

What is pulse oximetry used for in anesthesia practice?

A

To monitor oxygen saturation levels in the blood.

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9
Q

What is the Absorbance of Light principle in monitoring standards?

A

It involves light transmission through matter and measurement of light absorption at specific wavelengths.

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10
Q

What are the operating principles of monitoring adult blood in anesthesia practice?

A

Involves co-oximetry with 4 wavelengths, measuring different hemoglobin types like Oxyhemoglobin, Reduced Hb, Methemoglobin, Carboxyhemoglobin.

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11
Q

How does 660 nm light behave in pulse oximetry?

A

It is absorbed more by deoxyhemoglobin than oxyhemoglobin.

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12
Q

What is the role of 940 nm light in pulse oximetry?

A

It is absorbed more by oxyhemoglobin than deoxyhemoglobin.

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13
Q

How does the pulsatility of arterial blood flow help estimate SaO2 in pulse oximetry?

A

The pulsatile expansion of the artery increases the length of the light path, enhancing absorbency.

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14
Q

Why is the ratio of AC and DC light absorption important in pulse oximetry?

A

It allows for the differentiation of the pulsatile component (arterial blood) from the non-pulsatile component.

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15
Q

How does carboxyhemoglobin affect SpO2 readings in pulse oximetry?

A

Carboxyhemoglobin absorbs light like oxyhemoglobin, leading to falsely elevated SpO2 readings.

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16
Q

What impact does a 1% increase in COHb have on SpO2 readings?

A

Each 1% increase in carboxyhemoglobin leads to a 1% increase in SpO2 readings.

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17
Q

What are the causes of signal artifact in pulse oximetry?

A

Signal artifact in pulse oximetry can be caused by ambient light interference, low perfusion, and venous blood pulsations.

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18
Q

How can signal artifacts be resolved in pulse oximetry?

A

Signal artifacts can be resolved by using alternating red/infrared light, detecting venous O2Hb saturation, and incorporating additional light absorbers.

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19
Q

What is the advantage of pulse oximetry in terms of accuracy?

A

Pulse oximetry is accurate within +/- 2% when compared to arterial blood gases (saturation > 70%).

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20
Q

What are some advantages of pulse oximetry in terms of monitoring?

A

Pulse oximetry offers noninvasive and continuous monitoring, indicating decreased cardiac output and being convenient with various probe options.

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21
Q

What are the disadvantages of pulse oximetry related to poor perfusion?

A

Pulse oximetry poorly functions with poor perfusion, leading to inaccuracies in oxygen saturation readings.

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22
Q

How does pulse oximetry perform with dysrhythmias?

A

Pulse oximetry shows erratic performance in the presence of dysrhythmias, affecting the accuracy of oxygen saturation readings.

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23
Q

What can cause inaccuracy in pulse oximetry readings related to hemoglobin?

A

Pulse oximetry may show inaccuracy with different types of hemoglobin, affecting the precision of oxygen saturation measurements.

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24
Q

What is a potential issue for pulse oximetry with dyes?

A

The presence of dyes can interfere with pulse oximetry readings, leading to inaccuracies in the measurement of oxygen saturation.

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25
Q

Why can nail polish and coverings pose a problem for pulse oximetry?

A

Nail polish and coverings can cause issues with pulse oximetry readings by obstructing accurate measurement of oxygen saturation.

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26
Q

What is a common challenge in pulse oximetry related to motion?

A

Motion artifact poses a challenge in pulse oximetry, potentially causing inaccuracies in oxygen saturation readings.

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27
Q

Why should the device not be placed on the index finger during pulse oximetry?

A

It is advised to avoid placing the pulse oximetry device on the index finger to avoid corneal abrasion from patient rubbing eyes upon emergence.

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28
Q

Where might one get more reliable pulse oximetry readings with epidural blocks?

A

Toes may provide more reliable pulse oximetry readings, especially in the context of epidural blocks.

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29
Q

What areas are less affected by vasoconstriction and reflect desaturation quicker in pulse oximetry?

A

The tongue, cheek, and forehead are less affected by vasoconstriction and can reflect desaturation quicker in pulse oximetry.

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30
Q

What information can be found in the reference materials for blood pressure monitoring?

A

Reference materials like Ehrenwerth and Miller provide detailed information on blood pressure monitoring techniques.

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31
Q

What causes the production of Korotkoff sounds during blood pressure measurement?

A

Korotkoff sounds are produced by turbulent flow beyond the partially occluded cuff during blood pressure measurement.

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32
Q

How is mean arterial pressure calculated using Korotkoff sounds?

A

Mean arterial pressure is calculated by adding DBP with one-third of the difference between the systolic pressure and diastolic pressure.

MAP= DBP + 1/3 (SBP - DBP)

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33
Q

What can affect the accuracy of blood pressure auscultation?

A

Conditions like shock, vasoconstriction, vessel compliance changes, edema, and atherosclerotic vascular changes can impact the accuracy of blood pressure readings.

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34
Q

What guidelines should be followed for cuff placement in blood pressure monitoring?

A

Cuff bladder size should be 40% of arm circumference and 80% of upper arm length, centered over an artery for accurate blood pressure measurement.

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35
Q

What challenge does obesity present in blood pressure monitoring?

A

Obesity can make obtaining accurate blood pressure readings challenging due to cuff size limitations and potential inaccuracies.

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36
Q

What is the maximal amplitude of oscillations referred to as in oscillometry?

A

It is referred to as MAP.

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37
Q

How are SBP and DBP calculated in oscillometry?

A

They are calculated using algorithms.

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38
Q

In oscillometry, which blood pressure component shows the least agreement with invasive blood pressure?

A

SBP shows the least agreement.

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39
Q

What are some factors that can introduce errors in oscillometry readings?

A

Errors can be introduced by atherosclerosis, edema, obesity, and chronic hypertension.

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40
Q

What happens if the cuff used in oscillometry is too large?

A

It results in a low blood pressure reading.

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41
Q

What is the specified average difference criteria in oscillometry readings?

A

The average difference must be less than +/- 5 mm Hg.

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42
Q

When is the forearm considered a preferable site for blood pressure estimation?

A

The forearm may be preferable in obese individuals.

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43
Q

What are some advantages of automatic non-invasive techniques like oscillometry?

A

Advantages include eliminating clinician subjectivity, improving quality, and being noninvasive.

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44
Q

In invasive blood pressure monitoring, what are the indications for its use?

A

Indications include continuous monitoring, pharmacologic manipulation, blood sampling, volume responsiveness, and IABP timing.

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45
Q

What is the most common site for invasive blood pressure monitoring?

A

The radial artery is the most common site.

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46
Q

What is the procedure for Allen’s Test?

A

The examiner compresses radial and ulnar arteries, and the patient exsanguinates the palm by making a fist and then releases the ulnar artery.

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47
Q

What is the normal outcome of Allen’s Test?

A

Normal response: Color of palm should return in seconds.

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48
Q

What is the abnormal outcome of Allen’s Test?

A

Abnormal response: Severely reduced collateral flow if color change takes more than 10 seconds.

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49
Q

What is the accuracy of Allen’s Test?

A

Approximately 80% accurate.

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50
Q

How do pulse oximetry and ultrasound affect the accuracy of Allen’s Test?

A

They do not improve accuracy.

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51
Q

What are the key steps in the Transfixion Technique?

A

Similar to Allen’s Test preparation, intentionally puncturing front and back walls with a needle to advance a catheter with pulsatile blood flow.

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52
Q

Are there frequent complications associated with the Transfixion Technique?

A

It is not associated with more frequent complications.

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53
Q

What are the functions of an arterial line?

A

Provides automatic flush to the nervous system, prevents thrombus formation with an infusion rate of 1 - 3 ml/hr, and requires lack of dextrose and heparin.

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54
Q

How is calibration of an arterial line performed?

A

Zeroing references pressures against atmospheric air, and leveling ensures accurate readings.

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55
Q

What optimization strategies are recommended for arterial line placement?

A

Positioning in the aortic root for waveform maximization, using non-distensible tubing, and limiting stopcocks and tubing length.

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56
Q

What are the components of arterial waveforms?

A

Include systolic upstroke, systolic peak pressure, systolic decline, dicrotic notch, diastolic runoff, and end-diastolic pressure.

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57
Q

What are the characteristics of distal pulse amplification?

A

Arterial pressures vary at different sites with distinct morphologies, influenced by impedance and harmonic resonance along the vascular tree.

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58
Q

What changes occur in the pressure wave as it moves towards the periphery?

A

Arterial upstroke becomes steeper, systolic peak increases, dicrotic notch delays, and end-diastolic pressure decreases.

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59
Q

How are arterial waveforms generated?

A

Through the summation of sine waves, combining fundamental and harmonic waves, utilizing Fourier analysis for waveform analysis.

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60
Q

What are the characteristics of underdamped systems in arterial pressure dynamics?

A

Underdamped systems exhibit elevated systolic pressure.

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61
Q

What are the characteristics of overdamped systems in arterial pressure dynamics?

A

Overdamped systems exhibit decreased systolic pressure, absence of dicrotic notch, loss of detail in pressure waveform, and falsely narrowed pulse pressure with MAP accuracy.

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62
Q

How does age affect pressure gradients in clinical settings?

A

Age-related reduced distensibility impacts pressure gradients.

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63
Q

In what way does atherosclerosis influence pressure gradients in clinical settings?

A

Atherosclerosis alters peripheral vascular resistance affecting pressure gradients.

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64
Q

What impact do septic shock and hypothermia have on pressure gradients?

A

Septic shock and hypothermia can influence pressure gradients in clinical settings.

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65
Q

What are some potential complications associated with arterial lines?

A

Complications include distal ischemia or pseudoaneurysm, hemorrhage, hematoma, arterial embolization, local infection, and peripheral neuropathy.

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66
Q

Why is pressure waveform analysis important in clinical settings?

A

It helps identify residual preload reserve, understand cyclic arterial blood pressure variations, and assess effects of positive pressure ventilation on lung volume changes.

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67
Q

How does positive pressure ventilation (PPV) affect pressure during the inspiratory phase?

A

PPV increases intra-thoracic pressure, impacts LV afterload, lung volume, LV preload, stroke volume, CO, systemic arterial pressure, systemic venous return, RV preload, afterload, and PVR.

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68
Q

What effects does positive pressure ventilation (PPV) have on pressure during the expiratory phase?

A

Expiratory phase effects include decreased RV stroke volume, reduced LV filling, stroke volume, and systemic arterial blood pressure, introducing Systolic Pressure Variation (SPV).

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69
Q

What is the normal range for Systolic Pressure Variation (SPV)?

A

The normal SPV range is 7 - 10 mm Hg, with the ‘Up’ component ranging from 2 - 4 mm Hg and the ‘Down’ component ranging from 5 - 6 mm Hg.

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70
Q

What does an increased Systolic Pressure Variation (SPV) indicate in mechanically ventilated patients?

A

An increased SPV suggests volume responsiveness or residual preload reserve, and it can be an early indicator of hypovolemia.

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71
Q

How do critically ill patients often exhibit Systolic Pressure Variation (SPV)?

A

Critically ill patients may show a dramatic increase in SPV, especially in the Down component.

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72
Q

What does Pulse Pressure Variation (PPV) measure?

A

PPV uses the maximum and minimum pulse pressures across the respiratory cycle, with a normal range below 13 - 17%.

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73
Q

What does a Pulse Pressure Variation (PPV) value of >13 - 17% indicate?

A

PPV >13 - 17% suggests a positive response to volume expansion in mechanically ventilated patients.

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74
Q

How is Stroke Volume Variation (SVV) calculated?

A

SVV is calculated as (SV max - SV min) / SV mean, with a normal range of 10 - 13% in determining volume responsiveness.

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75
Q

What factors does Stroke Volume Variation (SVV) correlate with in mechanically ventilated patients?

A

SVV correlates with resistance and compliance based on age, gender, and hemodynamic status.

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76
Q

What conditions are necessary for predicting accurate results with hemodynamic parameters in mechanically ventilated patients?

A

Accurate predictions require mechanical ventilation with 8 to 10 mL/kg tidal volume, 5 mm Hg PEEP, regular cardiac rhythm, normal intra-abdominal pressure, and a closed chest.

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77
Q

What is the purpose of gas mixture analysis in gas sampling systems?

A

Gas must be transported to the analyzer for analysis.

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78
Q

How does a side-stream or diverting analyzer function in gas sampling systems?

A

The analyzer is brought to the gas in the airway.

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79
Q

Provide an example of a mainstream or non-diverting analyzer in gas sampling systems.

A

One example is the fuel cell oxygen analyzer.

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80
Q

What does ‘total response time’ refer to in gas sampling systems?

A

It refers to the transit time, which is the time lag for the gas sample to reach the analyzer.

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81
Q

Define ‘rise time’ in the context of gas sampling systems.

A

It is the time taken by the analyzer to react to the change in gas concentration.

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82
Q

What factors influence side-stream responses in gas sampling systems?

A

Side-stream responses are dependent on sampling tubing inner diameter, length, and gas sampling rate.

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83
Q

What challenges are associated with mainstream gas sampling systems?

A

Challenges include dealing with water vapor, secretions, blood, and more interfaces for disconnections.

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84
Q

What are some challenges faced in side-stream gas sampling systems?

A

Challenges involve kinking of sampling tubing, water vapor, failure of sampling pump, leaks in the line, and slow response time.

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85
Q

Explain Dalton’s Law and its relevance in gas mixtures.

A

Dalton’s Law states that the total pressure of a gas mixture equals the sum of the partial pressures exerted by each gas in the mixture.

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86
Q

What units of measurement are used for anesthetic gases at sea level?

A

At sea level, anesthetic gases are measured in total pressure (760 mm Hg), partial pressure (mm Hg), and volumes %.

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87
Q

How is the oxygen content in room air expressed in units of measurement?

A

Oxygen in room air has a partial pressure of 160 mm Hg, equivalent to 21 volumes %.

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88
Q

How is concentration determined in Mass Spectrometry?

A

Concentration in Mass Spectrometry is determined based on mass/charge ratio.

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89
Q

What does Abundance Analysis in Mass Spectrometry determine?

A

Abundance Analysis in Mass Spectrometry determines the fractional composition of gas mixtures at specific mass/charge ratios.

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90
Q

How many different gases can Mass Spectrometry calculate concentrations for?

A

Mass Spectrometry is capable of calculating concentrations of up to eight different gases.

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91
Q

What is the principle behind Raman Spectroscopy?

A

Raman Spectroscopy involves a high powered argon laser generating photons that interact with gas molecules in a sample.

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92
Q

How are scattered photons used in Raman Spectroscopy?

A

Scattered photons in Raman Spectroscopy are analyzed in a spectrum to identify each gas and its concentration.

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93
Q

What gases can be detected using Infrared Analysis?

A

Infrared Analysis can measure CO2, nitrous oxide, water, and volatile anesthetic gases due to their absorption characteristics.

94
Q

Why can’t O2 be detected using Infrared Analysis?

A

O2 cannot be detected using Infrared Analysis as it does not absorb infrared radiation.

95
Q

What does the unique infrared transmission spectrum absorption band indicate for each gas?

A

The unique infrared transmission spectrum absorption band serves as a spectral fingerprint for each gas.

96
Q

How does the measurement process work for detecting gases based on infrared absorption bands?

A

In the measurement process, infrared light is transmitted through a gas sample across various frequencies, filtered using a narrow-band pass filter.

97
Q

What relationship exists between the gas concentration and the infrared light intensity in gas analysis?

A

The relationship is that the amount of infrared light reaching the detector is inversely proportional to the gas concentration, where lower light intensity indicates higher gas concentration.

98
Q

What are the typical values reported by side-stream analyzers?

A

Side-stream analyzers typically report ambient temperature and pressure dry (ATPD) values.

99
Q

What are the recommeneded conditions that oxygen analyzers should ideally report results?

A

Analyzers should report results at body temperature and pressure saturated (BTPS) values.

100
Q

What is the equivalent saturated H2O vapor pressure at 760 mmHg?

A

The saturated H2O vapor is equivalent to 47 mm Hg at 760 mmHg.

101
Q

How can you calculate the partial pressure of O2 at a certain concentration using a specific formula?

A

To calculate the partial pressure of O2 at a certain concentration (e.g., 30%), use the formula: (760 - 47) * (0.3) = 214 mm Hg.

102
Q

What are the two types of cells oxygen analyzers can use?

A

Oxygen analyzers can utilize a fuel or galvanic cell to measure the current generated as oxygen diffuses across a membrane.

103
Q

What is the relationship between the current produced and the partial pressure of oxygen in fuel or galvanic cell analyzers?

A

The current produced is directly proportional to the partial pressure of oxygen in the fuel or galvanic cell.

104
Q

What are some characteristics of oxygen analyzers utilizing fuel or galvanic cells?

A

These analyzers have a short lifespan (months) depending on oxygen exposure and exhibit a slow response time of approximately 30 seconds.

105
Q

Where is it advisable to monitor O2 concentration for optimal results with oxygen analyzers?

A

It is advisable to monitor O2 concentration in the inspiratory limb for optimal results with oxygen analyzers.

106
Q

Why is oxygen considered a highly paramagnetic gas?

A

Oxygen is considered a highly paramagnetic gas due to the magnetic energy of unpaired electrons in its outer shell orbits.

107
Q

How do paramagnetic analyzers detect changes in O2 concentration?

A

Paramagnetic analyzers detect changes in sample line pressure caused by the attraction of oxygen to switched magnetic fields.

108
Q

What is the significance of signal variations during switching in paramagnetic analyzers?

A

The signal variations during switching in paramagnetic analyzers are directly related to the O2 concentration being measured.

109
Q

Where are paramagnetic oxygen analyzers commonly used and for what purposes?

A

Paramagnetic oxygen analyzers are commonly used in side-stream sampling multi-gas analyzers for rapid response and breath-by-breath monitoring.

110
Q

Why is oxygen monitoring considered arguably the most important monitor in anesthesia?

A

Oxygen monitoring is crucial for maintaining proper oxygen levels which are essential for patient safety and wellbeing during anesthesia.

111
Q

Why is calibration for high and low concentrations important in oxygen monitoring?

A

Calibration ensures the accuracy of oxygen concentration readings, which is vital for adjusting oxygen delivery as needed.

112
Q

How does sampling inside the inspiratory limb ensure proper oxygen delivery?

A

Sampling inside the inspiratory limb allows for analysis of the oxygen content being delivered to the patient during inspiration.

113
Q

What does analyzing hypoxic mixtures in oxygen monitoring aim to achieve?

A

It aims to maintain optimal oxygen levels in the inspired air to prevent hypoxia and ensure adequate oxygenation of the patient.

114
Q

Why is sampling inside the expiratory limb essential in oxygen monitoring?

A

It ensures complete pre-oxygenation denitrogenation by monitoring the oxygen content being exhaled by the patient.

115
Q

What ET O2 level is considered adequate during anesthesia?

A

An ET O2 level above 90% is considered adequate to ensure proper oxygenation of the patient.

116
Q

Why is it not recommended to have oxygen monitoring at auxiliary sites?

A

Oxygen monitoring should be centralized to critical locations to ensure accurate and reliable readings for patient safety.

117
Q

Why is a low O2 alarm crucial in oxygen monitoring?

A

It is essential to promptly alert healthcare providers of low oxygen levels to prevent hypoxemia and its associated risks.

118
Q

What issues can lead to a low O2 alarm in oxygen monitoring?

A

Pipeline crossover, incorrectly filled tanks, and failure of a proportioning system are some factors that can trigger a high O2 alarm.

119
Q

What special considerations are needed for premature infants in oxygen monitoring?

A

Premature infants require extra caution in oxygen monitoring due to their unique physiological characteristics and sensitivity to oxygen levels.

120
Q

Why is airway pressure monitoring a key component in anesthesia?

A

It is crucial for assessing ventilation during anesthesia, helping detect and prevent complications related to airway pressure.

121
Q

What issues can be detected using airway pressure monitoring?

A

Circuit disconnections, ETT occlusions, kinking in the inspiratory limb, leaks, sustained high circuit pressure, and scavenging system pressures.

122
Q

What are the characteristics of mechanical pressure gauges used in airway pressure monitoring?

A

They are reliable, require no power source, lack data recording and alarm systems, but serve the purpose effectively.

123
Q

How do electronic pressure gauges differ from mechanical pressure gauges in airway pressure monitoring?

A

Electronic pressure gauges are integrated into machines, sensitive to small changes, and equipped with built-in alarm systems for immediate alerts.

124
Q

Why is continuous scanning necessary for both mechanical and electronic pressure gauges in airway pressure monitoring?

A

Continuous scanning ensures real-time monitoring of airway pressure changes to promptly identify and address any ventilation issues.

125
Q

What is the primary purpose of a breathing circuit low-pressure alarm in airway pressure monitoring?

A

It aims to detect circuit disconnections or leaks that could compromise proper ventilation, ensuring patient safety.

126
Q

Where do the majority of disconnections occur that need to be monitored by a low-pressure alarm in airway pressure monitoring?

A

The majority of disconnections occur at the Y-piece junction, emphasizing the importance of monitoring this area for leaks or issues.

127
Q

What does a sub-atmospheric pressure alarm measure and alert?

A

It measures and alerts negative circuit pressure and the potential for reverse gas flow.

128
Q

What are the effects of negative pressures as indicated by sub-atmospheric pressure alarms?

A

Negative pressures can cause pulmonary edema, atelectasis, and hypoxia.

129
Q

List some causes of sub-atmospheric pressure alarms.

A

Causes include malfunctioning suction systems, patient inspiratory effort against blockages, inadequate gas flow, suction to misplaced tubes, and moisture in CO2 absorbent.

130
Q

How are high-pressure alarms activated?

A

They are activated when the pressure exceeds a specified limit.

131
Q

In what cases are high-pressure alarms particularly valuable?

A

High-pressure alarms are particularly valuable in pediatric cases.

132
Q

Name some causes that may trigger high-pressure alarms.

A

Causes include obstructions, reduced compliance, coughing/straining, kinked ETT, and endobronchial intubation.

133
Q

When are continuing pressure alarms triggered?

A

They are triggered when circuit pressure exceeds 10 cm H2O for more than 15 seconds.

134
Q

What happens when continuing pressure alarms are activated?

A

Fresh gas continues to enter the circuit but cannot leave.

135
Q

Provide some causes that can lead to the triggering of continuing pressure alarms.

A

Causes may include malfunctioning pressure relief valves, scavenging system occlusion, oxygen flush system activation, and malfunctioning PEEP valves.

136
Q

What types of monitoring are included in peripheral nerve monitoring?

A

It includes electrical nerve stimulation and magnetic monitoring.

137
Q

How does muscle fiber response differ from whole muscle response in monitoring?

A

Muscle fiber response follows an all-or-none pattern, while whole muscle response depends on the activation of muscle fibers.

138
Q

What are the sites of nerve stimulation mentioned?

A

Ulnar, median, posterior tibial, common peroneal, and facial nerves.

139
Q

How is the ulnar nerve described in terms of accessibility for stimulation?

A

Easily accessible, with the adductor pollicis muscle being easily reachable.

140
Q

What are the advantages of the nerve stimulation sites discussed?

A

They are easily accessible, allow quantitative monitoring, and help avoid direct muscle stimulation.

141
Q

Which muscle is highlighted as the most resistant to neuromuscular blocking drugs?

A

The diaphragm is the most resistant to depolarizing and nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs.

142
Q

How does the muscle response of sites like the corrugator supercilii compare to peripheral muscles in terms of onset and recovery?

A

They have a shorter onset and quicker recovery compared to peripheral muscles.

143
Q

What specific advantage does the corrugator supercilii muscle have over the adductor pollicis muscle?

A

Corrugator supercilii better reflects neuromuscular block of laryngeal adductor and abdominal muscles.

144
Q

Describe the single twitch pattern in nerve stimulation.

A

It is the earliest and simplest pattern with single stimuli applied from 1.0 Hz to 0.1 Hz.

145
Q

What is the importance of the single twitch pattern in nerve stimulation?

A

It provides a reference value necessary before administering neuromuscular blocking drugs (NMBDs).

146
Q

How many supramaximal stimuli are involved in a Train of Four stimulation pattern?

A

Four supramaximal stimuli are used every 0.5 seconds in a Train of Four pattern.

147
Q

What does the Train of Four evaluation assess in muscle response?

A

It evaluates the TOF count or fade in muscle response.

148
Q

How is the TOF ratio calculated in a Train of Four scenario?

A

It is calculated as the 4th response divided by the 1st response in a Train of Four stimulation.

149
Q

How does the TOF ratio change in a partial nondepolarizing block?

A

In a partial nondepolarizing block, the TOF ratio decreases (fade) and is inversely proportional to the block degree.

150
Q

When does a Phase II Block develop according to the Train of Four assessment?

A

A Phase II Block develops if fade is observed during the Train of Four evaluation.

151
Q

What is Double Burst Stimulation (DBS) in neuromuscular blockade assessment?

A

It involves 2 short bursts of 50 Hz tetanic stimulation separated by 750 ms, used for comparison of muscle contractions.

152
Q

Explain the DBS 3,3 mode in neuromuscular blockade assessment.

A

It consists of 3 impulses in each of the 2 bursts during Double Burst Stimulation.

153
Q

Describe the DBS 3,2 mode used in neuromuscular blockade assessment.

A

In this mode, the 1st burst contains 3 impulses, while the 2nd burst has 2 impulses for comparison.

154
Q

How are muscle contractions observed in Double Burst Stimulation?

A

Two short muscle contractions are seen with fade in the 2nd burst, enabling comparison.

155
Q

What is the clinical usage of Double Burst Stimulation?

A

It is less commonly used in clinical practice compared to other stimulation patterns.

156
Q

What is Tetanic Stimulation and how is it administered?

A

It involves administering 50 Hz stimulation for 5 seconds, inducing muscle contractions with specific characteristics.

157
Q

Differentiate the effects of Tetanic Stimulation for non-depolarizers and depolarizers.

A

Non-depolarizers lead to a strong sustained muscle contraction with fade, while depolarizers result in sustained contraction without fade.

158
Q

What characterizes Phase II Block in Tetanic Stimulation?

A

It is characterized by fade after stimulation, but its value for recovery assessment is limited due to pain.

159
Q

In what instances is Tetanic Stimulation less frequently employed in clinical practice?

A

Tetanic Stimulation is less frequently used compared to other methods due to its limited utility and practical considerations.

160
Q

What is Post-tetanic Stimulation and how is the stimulation pattern defined?

A

It involves tetanic stimulation followed by 10 to 15 single twitches after a specific time gap, used for deep blockade assessment.

161
Q

What factors influence the response during Post-tetanic Stimulation?

A

Response is affected by the degree of blockade, tetanic stimulation frequency/duration, and gap between tetanic and post-tetanic stimulation.

162
Q

What is the suggested frequency for utilizing Post-tetanic Stimulation in blockade assessment?

A

It is recommended to be performed every 6 minutes for effective assessment of deep and surgical blockade.

163
Q

Describe an intense blockade in non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade during anesthesia.

A

It involves a period of no response, occurring 3-6 minutes after the intubating dose, where neostigmine reversal is impossible and high-dose sugammadex is needed.

164
Q

Explain deep blockade in non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade in anesthesia.

A

Deep blockade is characterized by the absence of TOF responses but at least one response to post-tetanic count stimulation, with neostigmine reversal usually impossible and requiring sugammadex.

165
Q

What is moderate blockade in non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade and anesthesia?

A

Moderate blockade is indicated by the gradual return of the 4 responses to TOF stimulation, allowing for neostigmine reversal after 4/4 TOF or with a dose of sugammadex.

166
Q

Define Phase I in depolarizing blockade during anesthesia.

A

Phase I is marked by a lack of fade or tetanic stimulation, all 4 responses being reduced and disappearing simultaneously in TOF, and normal plasma cholinesterase activity.

167
Q

Describe Phase II in depolarizing blockade in anesthesia.

A

Phase II involves fade in response to TOF and tetanic stimulation, post-tetanic facilitation, and abnormal plasma cholinesterase activity, resembling non-depolarizing blockade.

168
Q

What are some considerations for using neuromuscular blockade in clinical practice?

A

Keep the patient warm, attach electrodes before induction, ensure moderate blockade for surgery, reverse at 4/4 TOF responses, and check for neuromuscular recovery post-reversal.

169
Q

What are reliable clinical signs for assessing neuromuscular recovery?

A

Sustained head lift, leg lift, handgrip for 5 sec, tongue depressor test, and maximum inspiratory pressure.

170
Q

What does the summation of excitatory and inhibitory post-synaptic potentials in the cerebral cortex indicate in EEG concepts?

A

It signifies the electrical activity within the brain and is a fundamental concept in EEG interpretation.

171
Q

How are electrodes positioned in EEG to relate to cortical regions?

A

Electrodes are strategically placed to capture electrical signals from specific areas of the brain’s cortex.

172
Q

How many channels of information are typically utilized in EEG?

A

At least 16 channels of information are employed to gather comprehensive data from different brain regions.

173
Q

What are some of the states identified by EEG, in terms of consciousness and brain activity?

A

EEG can identify consciousness, unconsciousness, seizure activity, stages of sleep, coma, and detect inadequate oxygen delivery to the brain.

174
Q

What aspects of a signal does EEG description typically include?

A

EEG signal description includes amplitude (voltage size), frequency (oscillation rate), and time (duration of signal sampling).

175
Q

How does EEG help in detecting inadequate oxygen delivery to the brain?

A

EEG can identify inadequate oxygen delivery by recognizing patterns associated with hypoxemia or ischemia in the brain’s electrical activity.

176
Q

What is the main purpose of EEG in peri-operative settings?

A

In peri-operative settings, EEG helps identify inadequate blood flow to the brain, guides anesthetic-induced reduction of cerebral metabolism, predicts neurologic outcomes, and measures hypnotic depth.

177
Q

What brain states do Beta, Alpha, Theta, and Delta waves in EEG represent?

A

Beta waves (> 13 Hz) indicate an awake and alert brain, Alpha waves (8-13Hz) signify eyes closed or anesthetic effects, while Theta (4-7 Hz) and Delta (< 4Hz) indicate depressed brain states.

178
Q

What is the significance of processed EEG in neurological monitoring?

A

Processed EEG helps differentiate unilateral from bilateral changes, detects artifacts, and can be used for conditions like regional ischemia or anesthetic effects.

179
Q

How many channels of information does processed EEG typically use, and why is this number significant?

A

Processed EEG uses less than 4 channels, with 2 channels per hemisphere, allowing for the assessment of both brain hemispheres for certain conditions.

180
Q

What are some examples where processed EEG can provide insights not easily observable in traditional EEG?

A

Processed EEG can reveal regional ischemia due to carotid clamping (unilateral) and EEG depression from anesthetic drug bolus (bilateral).

181
Q

What is the key difference between EEG and processed EEG?

A

While EEG uses multiple channels for detailed brain activity monitoring, processed EEG focuses on simplified analysis with fewer channels, often for specialized evaluations.

182
Q

What is the availability of studies comparing EEG and processed EEG?

A

There are limited studies comparing EEG (considered the gold standard) with processed EEG, highlighting the need for further research in this area.

183
Q

What is the Bispectral Index (BIS) used for?

A

It processes EEG signals to estimate anesthetic depth using a computer-generated algorithm.

184
Q

What was the initial purpose of suggesting the Bispectral Index (BIS) technique?

A

It was suggested as a technique to prevent intraoperative awareness.

185
Q

How does the Bispectral Index (BIS) compare with end-tidal agent concentration monitoring?

A

Comparison did not show superiority over end-tidal agent concentration monitoring.

186
Q

Why are neither the Bispectral Index (BIS) nor end-tidal agent concentration monitoring completely reliable in cases of intraoperative awareness?

A

These techniques were found to be not completely reliable in preventing intraoperative awareness.

187
Q

What are Sensory-Evoked Responses commonly monitored for intraoperatively?

A

They are commonly monitored for CNS responses to electric, auditory, or visual stimuli.

188
Q

How are responses recorded in Sensory-Evoked Responses along the sensory pathway to the cerebral cortex?

A

Responses are recorded at various sites along the sensory pathway to the cerebral cortex.

189
Q

What are the two types of responses in Somatosensory-Evoked Potentials (SSEPs)?

A

Short-latency and long-latency waveforms are the two types of responses.

190
Q

What factors can alter the appearance of SSEPs?

A

Factors such as induction, neurological conditions, age, and electrode locations can alter SSEP appearance.

191
Q

What is the purpose of monitoring Brainstem Auditory-Evoked Potentials (BAEPs) in intraoperative neurophysiological monitoring?

A

To assess auditory pathway integrity by monitoring responses to click stimuli delivered along the auditory pathway.

192
Q

How are click stimuli delivered in Brainstem Auditory-Evoked Potentials (BAEPs)?

A

Click stimuli are delivered via foam ear inserts.

193
Q

What is the key characteristic of Visual-Evoked Potentials (VEPs) in intraoperative neurophysiological monitoring?

A

It evaluates visual pathway function through responses to flash stimulation of the retina using embedded LEDs.

194
Q

How is flash stimulation delivered in Visual-Evoked Potentials (VEPs)?

A

Flash stimulation is administered through closed eyelids or contact lenses.

195
Q

What aspect of Motor-Evoked Potentials (MEPs) is assessed through Transcranial MEPs?

A

Transcranial MEPs evaluate the integrity of motor tracts via electrical stimulation over the motor cortex.

196
Q

What is the primary purpose of Electromyography (EMG) in intraoperative neurophysiological monitoring?

A

EMG monitors responses of cranial and peripheral motor nerves for early detection of nerve damage and assessment of function.

197
Q

What is the role of the hypothalamus in temperature control during intraoperative monitoring?

A

The hypothalamus serves as the primary thermoregulatory control center.

198
Q

What types of receptors are involved in thermoregulation involving temperature control?

A

Unmyelinated C fibers for heat and warmth receptors, and Alpha-delta fibers for cold receptors.

199
Q

What are the thermoregulatory response characteristics associated with temperature control?

A

Threshold (temperature triggering response), gain (intensity of response), and responses like sweating, vasodilation, vasoconstriction, and shivering.

200
Q

List some factors that can affect the thermoregulatory response during temperature control monitoring.

A

Factors include anesthesia, age, menstrual cycle, drugs, alcohol, and circadian rhythm.

201
Q

What is the rate of rapid decrease in temperature with General Anesthesia (GA)?

A

Approximately 0.5 to 1.5°C initially.

202
Q

How does anesthesia-induced vasodilation affect heat loss in the body?

A

It leads to increased heat loss due to the redistribution of body heat.

203
Q

What is the slow linear reduction in temperature per hour over 30 minutes with General Anesthesia?

A

Approximately 0.3°C per hour.

204
Q

How does General Anesthesia affect the metabolic rate?

A

It decreases the metabolic rate by 20-30%, causing heat loss to exceed production.

205
Q

When does a plateau phase occur after anesthesia with General Anesthesia?

A

Around 1-2 hours after anesthesia, reaching thermal steady state with equal heat loss and production.

206
Q

What occurs 3-4 hours post-anesthesia with General Anesthesia to prevent core heat loss?

A

Vasoconstriction occurs to prevent core heat loss, while peripheral heat continues to be lost.

207
Q

How does hypothermia induced by neuraxial anesthesia differ in terms of thermal discomfort?

A

It does not typically cause significant thermal discomfort, and patients may not complain of feeling cold.

208
Q

How does neuraxial anesthesia affect central thermoregulatory control?

A

It inhibits central thermoregulatory control, reducing the triggers for peripheral vasoconstriction and shivering.

209
Q

What autonomic thermoregulatory defenses are impaired by neuraxial anesthesia?

A

Vasodilation, sweating, vasoconstriction, and shivering are impaired.

210
Q

Why may the initial decrease in core temperature not reach a plateau with neuraxial anesthesia?

A

Due to the inhibition of peripheral vasoconstriction.

211
Q

How is the threshold for vasoconstriction altered under neuraxial anesthesia?

A

The threshold for vasoconstriction is centrally altered under neuraxial anesthesia.

212
Q

What is the significance of infants in relation to heat loss through radiation?

A

Infants are vulnerable due to their high body surface area to body mass ratio, contributing to approximately 40% of heat loss.

213
Q

How does convection contribute to heat loss, and how can it be mitigated?

A

Convection involves the loss of heat to the air immediately surrounding the body, which can be decreased by wearing clothing or using drapes.

214
Q

What is the main pathway for heat loss through evaporation?

A

Sweating is the main pathway for heat loss through the evaporation of water, representing approximately 8-10% of total heat loss.

215
Q

Describe heat loss through conduction and provide an example.

A

Heat loss through conduction occurs via direct contact of body tissues or fluids with a colder material, such as skin contact with an operating room table.

216
Q

How does hypothermia contribute to an increase in the need for transfusions and blood loss?

A

Hypothermia impairs platelet aggregation and coagulation cascade enzymes, leading to a 22% increase in transfusion needs and 16% more blood loss.

217
Q

What are the implications of hypothermia-induced coagulopathy on oxygen delivery and wound healing?

A

Coagulopathy decreases oxygen delivery to tissues, increases the risk of wound infection, decreases tissue healing, and raises the incidence of morbid cardiac outcomes.

218
Q

How does shivering impact oxygen demand and drug metabolism during hypothermia?

A

Shivering increases oxygen demand, decreases drug metabolism, and prolongs neuromuscular blockade, leading to post-operative thermal discomfort.

219
Q

What benefits does hypothermia offer in protecting against cerebral ischemia and metabolism reduction?

A

Hypothermia is protective against cerebral ischemia, reduces metabolism by 8% per degree Celsius, and improves outcomes during recovery from cardiac arrest.

220
Q

In what medical context is hypothermia found to be beneficial, particularly related to brain tissue ischemia?

A

Hypothermia is beneficial in neurosurgery where brain tissue ischemia is expected, providing a protective effect against malignant hyperthermia trigger.

221
Q

Why do infants and children require more attention to temperature management during procedures?

A

They have higher metabolic rates and smaller body masses, making them more prone to heat loss.

222
Q

Why is warm IV fluid and blood administration crucial during procedures?

A

It helps prevent cooling and maintains the patient’s body temperature.

223
Q

What are examples of procedures where cutaneous warming techniques are essential?

A

Liver transplants, major trauma cases, and pediatric surgeries.

224
Q

How can insulation methods like using a single blanket help in temperature management?

A

They can reduce heat loss by 30% without increasing body temperature.

225
Q

What makes hot water mattresses effective and safe in peri-operative temperature management?

A

They are efficient when placed on top of patients to help maintain their body temperature.

226
Q

How does forced air warming work in preventing heat loss during procedures?

A

It uses convection to transfer heat to the patient, preventing heat loss through radiation.

227
Q

Why is pulmonary artery temperature monitoring considered the gold standard?

A

It correlates well with temperatures measured at other sites like the tympanic membrane, esophagus, and nasopharynx.

228
Q

What is a risk associated with tympanic membrane temperature monitoring?

A

There is a risk of perforation during placement.

229
Q

Which temperature monitoring site reflects brain temperature but is more error-prone?

A

Nasopharyngeal temperature monitoring.

230
Q

Why is esophageal temperature monitoring considered safe and accurate?

A

It is easily accessible, artifact-resistant, and accurate when placed in the distal esophagus.

231
Q

What are the typical temperature settings in an operating room?

A

Operating rooms are typically maintained at 70 degrees F (21 degrees C) or 65 degrees F (18 degrees C).