Monday [11/10/2021] Flashcards

1
Q

What is a FAST scan used for? [1]

A

To investigate the presence of free fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the trimodal death distribution? []3

A

Following trauma there is a trimodal death distribution:
Immediately following injury. Typically as result of brain or high spinal injuries, cardiac or great vessel damage. Salvage rate is low.
In early hours following injury. In this group deaths are due to phenomena such as splenic rupture, sub dural haematomas and haemopneumothoraces
In the days following injury. Usually due to sepsis or multi organ failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Example thoracic injuries [4]

A

Simple pneumothorax
Mediastinal traversing wounds
Tracheobronchial tree injury
Haemothorax
Blunt cardiac injury
Diaphragmatic injury
Aortic disruption
Pulmonary contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mx of simple pneumothorax [2]

A

Simple pneumothorax insert chest drain. Aspiration is risky in trauma as pneumothorax may be from lung laceration and convert to tension pneumothorax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mx of mediastinal traversing wounds [2]

A

These result from situations like stabbings. Exit and entry wounds in separate hemithoraces. The presence of a mediastinal haematoma indicates the likelihood of a great vessel injury. All patients should undergo CT angiogram and oesophageal contrast swallow. Indications for thoracotomy are largely related to blood loss and will be addressed below.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mx of tracheobronchial tree injuries [2]

A

Unusual injuries. In blunt trauma most injuries occur within 4cm of the carina. Features suggesting this injury include haemoptysis and surgical emphysema. These injuries have a very large air leak and may have tension pneumothorax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mx of cardiac contusions

A

Usually caused by laceration of lung vessel or internal mammary artery by rib fracture. Patients should all have a wide bore 36F chest drain. Indications for thoracotomy include loss of more than 1.5L blood initially or ongoing losses of >200ml per hour for >2 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mx of diaphragmatic injuries

A

Usually cardiac arrhythmias, often overlying sternal fracture. Perform echocardiography to exclude pericardial effusions and tamponade. Risk of arrhythmias falls after 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mx of truamatic aortic disruptions

A

Commonest cause of death after RTA or falls. Usually incomplete laceration near ligamentum arteriosum. All survivors will have contained haematoma. Only 1-2% of patients with this injury will have a normal chest x-ray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mx of pulmonary contusions

A

Common and lethal. Insidious onset. Early intubation and ventilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mx of diaphragmatic injuries [1]

A

Usually left sided. Direct surgical repair is performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which injuries are common in abdominla trauma? [1]

A

Deceleration injuries are common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How to manage abdominal trauma [5]

A

Deceleration injuries are common.
In blunt trauma requiring laparotomy the spleen is most commonly injured (40%)
Stab wounds traverse structures most commonly liver (40%)
Gunshot wounds have variable effects depending upon bullet type. Small bowel is most commonly injured (50%)
Patients with stab wounds and no peritoneal signs up to 25% will not enter the peritoneal cavity
Blood at urethral meatus suggests a urethral tear
High riding prostate on PR = urethral disruption
Mechanical testing for pelvic stability should only be performed once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Advantage of a CT scan for abdiominla trauma

A

Most specific for localising injury; 92 to 98% accurate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Disadvantage of CT abdomen for trauma

A

Location of scanner away from facilities, time taken for reporting, need for contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adv and dis for USS for abdominal trauma [2]

A

Early diagnosis, non invasive and repeatable; 86 to 95% accurate

Operator dependent and may miss retroperitoneal injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Se of digoxin [1]

A

Loss of appetite and anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of drug is digoxin? [2]

A

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside now mainly used for rate control in the management of atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does digoxin work? [2]

A

As it has positive inotropic properties it is sometimes used for improving symptoms (but not mortality) in patients with heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MoA of digoxin [3]

A

decreases conduction through the atrioventricular node which slows the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation and flutter
increases the force of cardiac muscle contraction due to inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. Also stimulates vagus nerve
digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Monitoring of digoxin [2]

A

digoxin level is not monitored routinely, except in suspected toxicity
if toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Features of digoxin toxicity [3]

A

generally unwell, lethargy, nausea & vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision
arrhythmias (e.g. AV block, bradycardia)
gynaecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity [5]

A

classically: hypokalaemia
increasing age
renal failure
myocardial ischaemia
hypomagnesaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypernatraemia, acidosis
hypoalbuminaemia
hypothermia
hypothyroidism
drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, spironolactone (competes for secretion in distal convoluted tubule therefore reduce excretion), ciclosporin. Also drugs which cause hypokalaemia e.g. thiazides and loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mx of digoxin toxicity [3]

A

Digibind
correct arrhythmias
monitor potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does hypokalaemia cause digoxin toxicity? [2] -> important

A

digoxin normally binds to the ATPase pump on the same site as potassium. Hypokalaemia → digoxin more easily bind to the ATPase pump → increased inhibitory effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

can Digoxin toxicity occur within the therapeutic range? [2]

A

Toxicity may occur even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range. The BNF advises that the likelihood of toxicity increases progressively from 1.5 to 3 mcg/l.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

. A 72-year-old man presents with a large nodule on his face. It is friable. There is no regional lymphadenopathy. He is lost to follow up and re-attends several months later. On this occasion the lesion has been noted to resolve with scarring.

A

Keratoacanthoma71%

Keratoacanthomas may reach a considerable size prior to sloughing off and scarring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. A 22-year-old woman is troubled by intensely itchy crops of blisters on her arms and legs. On examination she is malnourished and she has papulovesicular eruptions over her elbows and knees.
A

Dermatitis herpetiformis79%

Dermatitis herpetiformis is seen in association with coeliac disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A 30-year-old man cuts the corner of his lip whilst shaving. Over the next few days a large purplish lesion appears at the site which bleeds on contact.

A

Pyogenic granuloma76%

Pyogenic granulomas often appear at sites of trauma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Features of BCC [5]

A

Most common form of skin cancer.
Commonly occur on sun exposed sites apart from the ear.
Sub types include nodular, morphoeic, superficial and pigmented.
Typically slow growing with low metastatic potential.
Standard surgical excision, topical chemotherapy and radiotherapy are all successful.
As a minimum a diagnostic punch biopsy should be taken if treatment other than standard surgical excision is planned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Features of SCC

A

Again related to sun exposure.
May arise in pre - existing solar keratoses.
May metastasize if left.
Immunosupression (e.g. following transplant), increases risk.
Wide local excision is the treatment of choice and where a diagnostic excision biopsy has demonstrated SCC, repeat surgery to gain adequate margins may be required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Main diagnostic criteria for malignant vs minor criteria for MM [4]

A

The main diagnostic features (major criteria):
Change in size
Change in shape
Change in colour

Secondary features (minor criteria)
Diameter >6mm
Inflammation
Oozing or bleeding
Altered sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tx of malignant carcinomas [2]

A

Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy. The lesion should be removed in completely as incision biopsy can make subsequent histopathological assessment difficult.
Once the diagnosis is confirmed the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required (see below):

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Kaposi Sarcoma? [4]

A

Tumour of vascular and lymphatic endothelium.
Purple cutaneous nodules.
Associated with immuno supression.
Classical form affects elderly males and is slow growing.
Immunosupression form is much more aggressive and tends to affect those with HIV related disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Features of Dermatitis Herpetiformis

A

Chronic itchy clusters of blisters.
Linked to underlying gluten enteropathy (coeliac disease).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Features of dermatofibroma

A

Benign lesion.
Firm elevated nodules.
Usually history of trauma.
Lesion consists of histiocytes, blood vessels and fibrotic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Features of pyogenic granuloma

A

Overgrowth of blood vessels.
Red nodules.
Usually follow trauma.
May mimic amelanotic melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Features of acanothsis nigricans

A

Brown to black, poorly defined, velvety hyperpigmentation of the skin.
Usually found in body folds such as the posterior and lateral folds of the neck, the axilla, groin, umbilicus, forehead, and other areas.
The most common cause of acanthosis nigricans is insulin resistance, which leads to increased circulating insulin levels. Insulin spillover into the skin results in its abnormal increase in growth (hyperplasia of the skin).
In the context of a malignant disease, acanthosis nigricans is a paraneoplastic syndrome and is then commonly referred to as acanthosis nigricans maligna. Involvement of mucous membranes is rare and suggests a coexisting malignant conditio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A 55-years-old man presents to the emergency department with severe epigastric pain and fever. He looks unkempt and affirms to be drinking 40 units of alcohol per week. He presented to the emergency department after suffering from the symptoms for two days, due to a phobia of hospitals.

Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the single best investigation to order?

A

Serum lipase has a longer half-life than amylase when investigating suspected acute pancreatitis and may be useful for late presentations > 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

PP of acute pancreatitis [2]

A
  • autodigestion of pancreatic tissue by the pancreatic enzymes, leading to necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Features of acute pancreatitis [4]

A

severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back
vomiting is common
examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus and low-grade fever
periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) is described but rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ix for pancreatitis [6]

A

serum amylase

  • raised in 75% of patients - typically > 3 times the upper limit of normal
  • levels do not correlate with disease severity
  • specificity for pancreatitis is around 90%. Other causes of raised amylase include: pancreatic pseudocyst, mesenteric infarct, perforated viscus, acute cholecystitis, diabetic ketoacidosis

serum lipase

  • more sensitive and specific than serum amylase
  • it also has a longer half-life than amylase and may be useful for late presentations > 24 hours

imaging

a diagnosis of acute pancreatits can be made without imaging if characteristic pain + amylase/lipase > 3 times normal level

however, early ultrasound imaging is important to assess the aetiology as this may affect management - e.g. patients with gallstones/biliary obstruction

other options include contrast-enhanced CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When can diagnosis of acute pancreatitis be made w/o imaging? [2]

A

a diagnosis of acute pancreatits can be made without imaging if characteristic pain + amylase/lipase > 3 times normal level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why is early USS important in a patient with acute pancreatitis? [2]

A

however, early ultrasound imaging is important to assess the aetiology as this may affect management - e.g. patients with gallstones/biliary obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Common factors indicating severe pancreatitis [5]

A

The specifics of each scoring system will not be repeated here. However, some common factors indicating severe pancreatitis include:
age > 55 years
hypocalcaemia
hyperglycaemia
hypoxia
neutrophilia
elevated LDH and AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the hypersensitivty reaction types? [1]

A

Gell and Coombs classification

47
Q

T1 hypersensitivity reaction

A

Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells

Seen in:
• Anaphylaxis
• Atopy (e.g. asthma, eczema and hayfever)

48
Q

T2 hypersensitivity reaction

A

Cell bound:

IgG or IgM binds to antigen on cell surface

  • Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  • ITP
  • Goodpasture’s syndrome
  • Pernicious anaemia
  • Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Pemphigus vulgaris / bullous pemphigoid
49
Q

T3 hypersensitivity reaction

A

Immune complex

Free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine • Serum sickness

  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
  • Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)
50
Q

T4 hypersensitivity reaction

A

Delayed hypersensitivity

T-cell mediated

  • Tuberculosis / tuberculin skin reaction
  • Graft versus host disease
  • Allergic contact dermatitis
  • Scabies
  • Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase)
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
51
Q

T5 hypersensitivity reaction

A

Antibodies that recognise and bind to the cell surface receptors.

This either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding • Graves’ disease
• Myasthenia gravis

52
Q

A 27-year-old farmer has been brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious in a barn.

On initial examination he is agitated and combative with hypersalivation with excessive production of respiratory secretions. There is evidence of diaphoresis, urinary and faecal incontinence and miosis along with muscle fasciculations.

Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following are you most likely to find in the observations?

A

Organophosphate insecticide poisoning -> bardycardia [along with other Sx in SLUD]

53
Q

What is organophosphate inseciticide poisoning? [2]

A

One of the effects of organophosphate poisoning is inhibition of acetylcholinesterase leading to upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

54
Q

Features of organophosphate insecticide poisoning [5]

A

Features can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD)
Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation/diarrhoea
cardiovascular: hypotension, bradycardia
also: small pupils, muscle fasciculation

55
Q

Mx or organophosphate insecticide poisoning [2]

A

atropine
the role of pralidoxime is still unclear - meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit

56
Q

Which is best way of Ix B12 deficiency? [2]

A

Intrinsic factor antibodies are more useful than gastric parietal cell antibodies when investigating vitamin B12 deficiency, given low specificity of gastric parietal cell antibodies

57
Q

Type of anaemia is B12 deficiency? [2]

A

Pernicious anaemia (PA) is a disease of the stomach that results in vitamin B12 deficiency and macrocytic anaemia

58
Q

PP of pernicious anaemia [2]

A

antibodies to intrinsic factor +/- gastric parietal cells
- intrinsic factor antibodies → bind to intrinsic factor blocking the vitamin B12 binding site
- gastric parietal cell antibodies → reduced acid production and atrophic gastritis. Reduced intrinsic factor production → reduced vitamin B12 absorption
vitamin B12 is important in both the production of blood cells and the myelination of nerves → megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy

59
Q

Ix for pernicious anaemia [4]

A

full blood count
macrocytic anaemia: macrocytosis may be absent in around of 30% of patients
hypersegmented polymorphs on blood film
low WCC and platelets may also be seen
vitamin B12 and folate levels
a vitamin B12 level of >= 200 nh/L is generally considered to be normal
antibodies
anti intrinsic factor antibodies: sensivity is only 50% but highly specific for pernicious anaemia (95-100%)
anti gastric parietal cell antibodies in 90% but low specificity so often not useful clinically
Schilling test is no longer routinely done
radiolabelled B12 given on two occasions, firstly on its own, secondly with oral IF. Urine B12 levels are then measured

60
Q

A 6-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his mother. He has been experiencing coryza accompanied by a fever of 37.8C for the last 3 days. This morning his mother noticed a red rash on both cheeks and pallor surrounding his mouth. Which one of the following is the most likely causative organism?

A

Slapped cheek -> Parvovirus B19

61
Q

Chickenpox presentation [3]

A

Fever initially
Itchy, rash starting on head/trunk before spreading. Initially macular then papular then vesicular
Systemic upset is usually mild

62
Q

Measles presentation [4]

A

Prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever
Koplik spots: white spots (‘grain of salt’) on buccal mucosa
Rash: starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent

63
Q

Mumps presentation [2]

A

Fever, malaise, muscular pain
Parotitis (‘earache’, ‘pain on eating’): unilateral initially then becomes bilateral in 70%

64
Q

Rubella presentatino [3]

A

Rash: pink maculopapular, initially on face before spreading to whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day
Lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular

65
Q

Erythema infectiosum presentation [3]

A

Also known as fifth disease or ‘slapped-cheek syndrome’
Caused by parvovirus B19
Lethargy, fever, headache
‘Slapped-cheek’ rash spreading to proximal arms and extensor surfaces

66
Q

Scarlet fever presentation [5]

A

Reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci
Fever, malaise, tonsillitis
‘Strawberry’ tongue
Rash - fine punctate erythema sparing the area around the mouth (circumoral pallor)

67
Q

HFM presentation [3]

A

Caused by the coxsackie A16 virus
Mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever
Vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet

68
Q

Abx for BV [1]

A

Metronidazole

69
Q

Abx for human bite [1]

A

Co-amoxiclav

70
Q

Abx for campylobacter [1]

A

Clarithromycin

71
Q

Most appropriate Ix of an anastomic leak from bowel surgery [1]

A

CT abdo

72
Q

When is IPF typically seen? [1]

A

IPF is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men.

73
Q

Features of IPF [4]

A
  • progressive exertional dyspnoea
  • bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation
  • dry cough
  • clubbing
74
Q

Dx of IPF [4]

A

spirometry: classically a restrictive picture (FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, FEV1/FVC increased)

impaired gas exchange: reduced transfer factor (TLCO)

imaging: bilateral interstitial shadowing (typically small, irregular, peripheral opacities - ‘ground-glass’ - later progressing to ‘honeycombing’) may be seen on a chest x-ray but high-resolution CT scanning is the investigation of choice and required to make a diagnosis of IPF

ANA positive in 30%, rheumatoid factor positive in 10% but this does not necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease. Titres are usually low

75
Q

Mx of IPF [3]

A

pulmonary rehabilitation
very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. There is some evidence that pirfenidone (an antifibrotic agent) may be useful in selected patients (see NICE guidelines)
many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant

76
Q

Prognosis of IPF [3]

A

Poor, average life expectnact is around 3-4y

77
Q

What is RF for IPF? [1]

A

Working with wood

78
Q

What is lateral epiconylitis? When is it most likely to occur? [2]

A

Lateral epicondylitis typically follows unaccustomed activity such as house painting or playing tennis (‘tennis elbow’). It is most common in people aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm.

79
Q

Features of lateral epicondylitis [4]

A
  • pain and tenderness localised to the lateral epicondyle
  • pain worse on wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended
  • episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years. Patients tend to have acute pain for 6-12 weeks
80
Q

Mx of lateral epiconylitis [4]

A

advice on avoiding muscle overload
simple analgesia
steroid injection
physiotherapy

81
Q

When should propanolol be avoided as prophylaxis for migraines? [1]

A

Avoided in ashtmatics

82
Q

Define neutropenic sepsis [2]

A

Neutropenic sepsis is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy, usually as a consequence of chemotherapy. It most commonly occurs 7-14 days after chemotherapy. It may be defined as a neutrophil count of < 0.5 * 109 in a patient who is having anticancer treatment and has one of the following:

  • a temperature higher than 38ºC or
  • other signs or symptoms consistent with clinically significant sepsis
83
Q

Prophylaxis of neutropenic sepsis

A

Prophylaxis
if it is anticipated that patients are likely to have a neutrophil count of < 0.5 * 109 as a consequence of their treatment they should be offered a fluoroquinolone

84
Q

mx of neutropenic sepsis []

A

antibiotics must be started immediately, do not wait for the WBC

NICE recommends starting empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) immediately

many units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access but NICE do not support this approach

following this initial treatment patients are usually assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to see if they may be able to have outpatient treatment

if patients are still febrile and unwell after 48 hours an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem is often prescribed +/- vancomycin

if patients are not responding after 4-6 days the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT), rather than just starting therapy antifungal therapy blindly

there may be a role for G-CSF in selected patients

85
Q

A 23-year-old woman has a telephone appointment with her GP after missing her oral contraceptive pill. She reports that she has started her new packet 6 days ago but forgot her past 2 doses. She takes the combined oral contraceptive pill and has previously never missed a dose. On further questioning, she reports having sex with her boyfriend 4 days ago but has not had unprotected sexual intercourse since.

What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

A

COCP: If 2 pills are missed in week 1, consider emergency contraception if she had unprotected sex during the pill-free interval or week 1

86
Q

What is an acceptable increase in creatinine when starting a ACE-inhibitor? [1]

A

An increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline is acceptable when initiating ACE inhibitor treatment

87
Q

SE of ACE-inhibitors [4]

A

cough
occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment
thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels
angioedema: may occur up to a year after starting treatment
hyperkalaemia
first-dose hypotension: more common in patients taking diuretics

88
Q

A 54-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes for review. He currently takes lisinopril 10mg od, simvastatin 40mg on and aspirin 75mg od. His blood pressure is well controlled at 124/76 mmHg but he also mentions that he is due to have a tooth extraction next week. What advice should be given with regards to his aspirin use?

A

In the BNF section ‘Prescribing in dental practice’ it advises that patients in this situation should continue taking anti-platelets as normal

89
Q

MoA of aspirin [2]

A

Aspirin works by blocking the action of both cyclooxygenase-1 and 2. Cyclooxygenase is responsible for prostaglandin, prostacyclin and thromboxane synthesis.

90
Q
A

Erythema mulitforme [target lesions]

91
Q
A

Erythema nodosum

92
Q
A

Erythema gryatum

93
Q
A

Plymorphic eruption of pregnancy

94
Q
A

Tuberous sclerosis

95
Q
A

Cafe au lait spots [seen in TS and NF]

96
Q
A

Lichen planus

97
Q
A

Lichen slceorsis

98
Q
A

Lichen sclerosis

99
Q
A

Actinic keratosis

100
Q
A

Multiple myeloma

101
Q
A

SCC

102
Q
A

BCC

103
Q
A

Chronic plaque psoriasis

104
Q
A

Naevus

105
Q
A

Lung collpase

106
Q
A

Malar rash in SLE

107
Q

Compare NMS to SS

A
108
Q

Grade 3 VUR

A
109
Q
A

Pityriasis rosea

110
Q
A

pityriasis rosea

111
Q
A

Guttate psoriasis

112
Q

Differentiating between gutttate psoriasis and pityriasis rosea

A
113
Q
A

Seen in reactive arthritis

114
Q
A