Molecular Diagnostics and Biological Therapies Flashcards

1
Q

What is Reverse Transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)?

A

A way of amplifying specific RNA by converting it to cDNA and then running a PCR

This uses reverse transcriptase to form the cDNA, with help from a olgio-dT primer

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2
Q

What is the most common culprit for human cancers?

A

K-Ras

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3
Q

How does a combination of Thymidine Kinase and Ganciclovir function as a suicide gene?

A

Thymidine kinase activates ganciclovir via phosphorylation (due to it having a high efficiancy in doing the first phosphorylation compared to other kinases), before cellular kinases phophorylate it again

Once it has been phosphorlyated 3 times, it can act as a guanosine mimic and be incorporated into DNA, causing DNA to be damaged and the cell to die

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4
Q

What are the 2 different types of non-viral nucleic acid delivery?

A

Physical Techniques –> Injection, gene gun, ultrasound, electroporation

Chemical Techniques –> Encapsulation and Complexation which leads to nanoscale particulates

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5
Q

What is a common co-treatment given with cancer vaccines?

A

Checkpoint inhibitors such as drugs to block the PDL-1

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6
Q

How can Microarray Technologies be used?

A

These are microchips that contain many probes that will bind with a complementary strand from the patient

So we can see if the patient has a specific strand of DNA if it flashes up (as the patients strands are labelled)

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7
Q

What are Cell Penetrating Peptides (CPPs)?

A

Short sequences of HIV-TAT protein that are arginine (R) rich

These have the potential to deliver liposomes, nanoparticles and other biological entities across membranes (due to its positive charge) –> Espeically oligonucleotides

They have low cytotoxicity and can be conjugated to carriers

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8
Q

How can Oligonucleotides be used as a nucleic acid-based therapy?

A

Decoy Oligo –> Can prevent transcription by binding to the promoter region of the gene

Antisense Oligo –> Can prevent translation

siRNA –> The 21-25bp siRNA can bind to mRNA, causing it to cleave

  • We must know the gene sequence to do this

miRNA –> A 22 nucleotide ssDNA that causes mRNA destabilisation

  • Low levels can cause cancer as they are useful in regulation
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9
Q

How does Oncorine function?

A

An oncolytic virus

Can’t replicate in healthy cells due to the presence of p53, however in tumour cells there is no p53, so it can replicate and function!

Usually in adenoviruses there is E1B, which inhibits p53, but by remvoving this we can make a tumour selective drug

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10
Q

What are the pros and cons of vascular and stromal ablation?

A

Pros –> Very selective, the mAb can couple with various toxins, they are relatively stable

Cons –> High doses needed, can have off-target effects

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11
Q

Why are breast ducts susceptible to cancer?

A

As they are hyper-mutatable (divide quickly)

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12
Q

What is good about Mesenchymal Stem Cell Therapy?

And what are the 4 ways in which it can be used?

A

They are easy to isolate (from adipose and bone marrow) and anti-inflammatory, hypoimmunogenic and can home to the site of injury

By increasing the immune response it can make the situation worse (as inflammation can go through the roof), so we add on cancer drugs to these as they can get close to the tumour

Anti-angiogeneis

Cytokine delivery

miRNAs

Vehicle for cancer drugs

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13
Q

When are orphan cancer drugs used most?

A

In rare cancers where the production of a normal cancer drug isnt financially viable

Also allows the pharma to get safety/efficacy data quickly, which saves them money –> Useful if it turns out the drug can be used in another condition eventually

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14
Q

What are the most common cancers in children?

A

Cancer of the bone

This is because they are growing rapidly, so DNA errors are more likely to occur

Treatments are also difficult to find due to the lack of clinical trials, and many ethical dilemas

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15
Q

What are the benefits of High-Throughput screening?

A

Hundreds of samples per hour

Multiple analytes can be quantifies at a time

Low volume

Sensitive and accurate

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16
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of CRISPR/CAS9?

A

Advantages –> Small, inexpensive, specific and versatile

Disadvantages –> Delivery, off-target effects and potential abuse

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17
Q

How does the Affymetrix GeneChip work?

A

Restriction enzymes digest the DNA into fragments

We then ligate adapters to the fragments, allowing PCR to occur

We then label the fragments, and put them through a microchip which checks the fragments against many different probes

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18
Q

What’s the difference between Sanger Sequencing and Illumina Sequencing Technology?

A

Sanger –> ddNTPs are labelled with a fluorophore and act as chain terminators

Illumina –> Once the ddNTPs are added, we can record the colour and then wash it off, allowing the chain to carry on growing until another terminator binds

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19
Q

How does Electrochemiluminescence work?

A

A sample with the protein of interest is added to a biotin labelled antibody and a ruthenium labelled antibody

Both of these antibodies will bind to the protein of interest before the biotin binds strongly to a magnetic bead

The complex is then passed through a flow cell, in which the magnetic bead is attracted to the large magnet at the bottom

Ruthenium will give off photons, so the more photons that are given off and detected by the photomultiplier, the more of the target protein that is present

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20
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of non-viral vectors?

A

Advantages –> Easy to prepare and modify, large capacity, less immunogenic

Disadvantages –> Poor efficiency and transient (short acting)

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21
Q

What is Allelle-Specific PCR (ASPCR)?

A

This can detect point mutations without replying on changes in restriction sites

The primer at the 3’ end that is inserted will only bind to the complementary strand, and not any mutated version. So if the point mutation occurs, it wont bind and so either will the DNA polymerase….so PCR amplification won’t occur

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22
Q

What is the difference between Direct and Cell-Based gene delivery?

A

Direct –> The therapeutic gene is packaged into something like an retrovirus and injected into the patient

Cell-Based –> Embryonic Stem Cells (ESCs)/Adult Stem Cells are genetically modified and differentiated before being grown. These are then injected into the patient

  • This can also be used as a way of increasing the number of retroviruses for direct delivery
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23
Q

What is TK Cell Therapy?

A

Haemopoietic Stem Cells (HSCs) normally find their niche in the bone marrow and repopulate the cells that are needed

T cells from a donor can often be differentiated into TK cells which can become alloreactive and cause graft-host disease, which creates a massive immune response

  • This is treated with the use of suicide genes such as ganciclovir to kill of the alloreactive TK cells
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24
Q

What is Capillary Gel Electrophesis (CGE)?

A

Where the sample moves through capillaries and are detected by lasers

The strands are still seperated by charge and molecular weight

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25
Q

What are the 3 main reasons for why humans are prone to cancer?

A

Bad genetics –> Cell defects and epigenetics (eg, smoking)

Viral DNA –> 8% of our genome is viral, and so these elements can be transcribed under certain conditions

Hyper-mutable genome

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26
Q

Explain the following genetic therapies

Gene Augmentation

Gene Inhibition

Killing of Specific Cells

A

Gene Augmentation –> Insertion of a functional gene to the cell

  • Could mean that the new cell could code for a therapeutic mAb!

Gene Inhibiton –> Introducing a blocking gene into the cell which prevents the faulty gene from functioning

Killing of Specific Cells –> Adding in a suicide gene that produces toxins and kill the cell…..or adding in a marker gene that causes proteins to be expressed on the cell surface, attracting the immune response

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27
Q

What are the postives and negatives of using mAbs to treat cancer?

A

Advantages –> Can bind to cell surface receptors and engage lymphocytes to kill the cell, can be easy to make, can make lots of money from them!

Disadvantages –> More complicated mAbs are very hard to make reproducibly and in the quantity needed, multi-dosing also often needed…which is bad from a compliance/cost point of view

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28
Q

Why can dirty cancer drugs actually be quite useful?

In respect to BRAF

A

As if the dirty drug can inhibit several parts of the same pathway, if one target mutates…we can still target the others!

This is especially true in the BRAF pathway as we struggle to target RAS specifically

  • So we target the PIK3 (parallel) pathway also
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29
Q

What is a Dendrimer?

A

A non-viral vector that is built up via nitrogen chemistry

The given surface groups can be used for targetting, or to avoid/stealth the immune system

They can also be designed to release under specific conditions

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30
Q

What is major problem with kinase inhbitors? Like those that are used to treated EGFR mutations?

A

They arent that specific, and kinases are everywhere in the body! So off-site actions are inevitable

31
Q

How does the self-test PSA kit work?

A

Free anti-PSA antibodies (Ab1) contain dye, and will bind to any PSA that is present in the sample (urine)

If PSA has binded to these, it will then bind to the tethered anti-PSA antibodies in the result area….producing a colour from the dye

Ab1 will also bind to the tethered anti-Ab1 antibodies in the top result area, which shows that the test is functioning (acts as a control)

32
Q

What genome does adeno-associated viruses have?

And what drug is on the market for treatment of lipoprotein lipase deficiency (LPLD)

A

ssDNA

Glybera –> A small IM injection to the leg

33
Q

What type of genome does a retrovirus have?

And how can they cause cancer?

A

ssRNA genome

The viral DNA can promote proto-oncogenes, or split apart a tumour suppressor gene (TSG)….both of which will promote tumour formation

34
Q

How do the PCR reaction occur?

A

The region to be amplified is heated to 94 degrees for 2 mins, splitting the dsDNA to ss

Pre-made primers of 18-22 nucleotides long, anneal once cooled to 30-55 degrees for 30 seconds

dNTPs are added with Taq/Pfu Polymerase (heat stable) to synthesise the new strands (at 65-75 degrees for 2-5mins)

35
Q

What is a range of variation?

A

The differences between different peoples genes

Eg, some people will have a chromosome that means a certain mutation is inevitable

  • This usually occurs due to a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
36
Q

What is the difference with Sandwich ELISA?

A

Used for low concetration samples of the target protein (dirty samples)

A capture antibody binds to the plate, which catches the target protein

The rest is identical to ELISA

37
Q

Why is killing the Cancer Stem Cell (CSC) in a tumour cell vital?

Explain the 2 theories

A

As it increases the chance of the tumour going into to regression

Theory 1 –> If you only give standard chemo you will kill off all cancer cells except the CSC…which will cause the cancer to relapse as the stem cells will just make a new tumour

Theory 2 –> If not killed then more CSCs may form, making treatment much more difficult…and cause the tumour to become metastatic

38
Q

Why do we inhibit PDL-1 and/or CTLA-1?

A

As normally they will bind with tumour cells….and reduce the immune response

So by inhibiting them we increase the immune response

39
Q

What is ELISA?

A

Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbant Assay (ELISA) is used both qualitatively and quantitatively to detect a specific antigen or antibody in a sample

A mixture of proteins are adsorbed onto the plate, and then blocking molecules added to prevent false positives

A detection antibody then binds to the target protein, with all other proteins being washed off

A second antibody (with an enzyme attached) binds to the first detection antibody

The enzyme then converts a substrate into a flurogenic compound like Alkaline Phosphotase (AP) or Horseradish Perioxidase (HRP) that can be detected

40
Q

What binds to what activation region out of YESCARTA and KYMRIAH?

A

YESCARTA –> CD28

KYMRIAH –> 4-1BB

41
Q

How does Real-Time Sequencing microarrays work?

A

Each base enters a nanopore and fluoresces (but only in that very specific pore) allowing us to see what base is being added

This base is then cleaved and another added, which flashes

This allows us in real time to see what base is being added

42
Q

How many base pairs are used in the Cancerseek blood test?

A

61bp

As above this the results start to plateau

43
Q

For a cancer vaccine to function, where does it need to get to?

And how does it do this?

A

The lymph nodes

Does this by the peptides being broken down by either proteasomes or Cathepsins to make them small enough to be taken up my MHCs

44
Q

What is a Lipoplex?

A

A mixture of cationic liposomes and DNA/RNA

Due to its high charge it can be toxic

Also has a relatively short duration of action

45
Q

How are T-Cells activated?

And what is the role of APCs in this?

A

Tc cells are activated by APCs (such as dendritic cells) which prime them for specific sites, like tumour cells

  • This is done via the MHC of the APC and the TCR/CD3 of the T cell

The future is looking towards manufacturing artificial APCs to stimulate the immine system by being able to activate the T-cells

46
Q

How can FISH be used to detect if a chromosomal inversion/fusion (like EML4-ALK) has occured?

A

By the FISH ‘Break Apart’ Assay

By adding the fluorescent probe to specific parts, we can track the changes in the positions of the colours

So for inversions of the EML4 region of the chromosome, the signals will move further apart, whilst if there is also a deletion (as well as the inversion), only the red signal will appear

47
Q

How does Flow Cytometry work?

A

A method for detecting specific molecules on and within cells

A laser passes through the sample, with it being dimmed for longer with larger samples, which is detected by the forward scattering cell (FSC)

The side scatter cell (SSC) detects the amount of laser that bounces off the samples granular parts –> Which tells us how granular the cell is

In modern flow cytometers you can quantify multiple antigens at once

48
Q

What is FlSH?

And what can it be used to detect?

A

Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization

Use of a probe that fluoresces or has a label that will bind with a specific piece of ssDNA

Chromosomal translocations/inversions

Gene Deletions

Gene Amplifications

49
Q

What is an RFLP?

And what role does this have in terms of EGFR and how PCR can be used to spot them?

A

Restriction Fragment Length Polymophisms (RFLPs) are where the restriction site is either deleted or a new one created

In EGFR mutations (G719X or L859R) the Apa I and Msc I restriction sites are lost, which increases the bp size of the product

So if Apa I is lost, a product of 237bp will be produced as the DNA isn’t split…which PCR would find!

50
Q

How does GaINAc-siRNA enter the cell?

A

The GaINAc has an affinity for cells ASGPR receptors (in a clathrin-coated pit), allowing the siRNA to get into the cell

51
Q

Explain Slab Gel Electrophesis?

And what is a mutliplex reaction?

A

DNA is put into a gel and the DNA moves towards the cathode, with larger bits of DNA not moving as far/fast through the gel

Ethidium Bromide is normally used to stain the nucleic acid in agarose ge, allowing it to flouresce under UV light

We can also use a fluorescent marker or a conjugate enzyme

A mutliplex reaction is where more than 1 set of primers is used on each gel, so we get a multitude of products

52
Q

What are dentritic cell cancer vaccines?

A

Extraction of the patients dendritic cells, of which are loaded with several antigens before being matured

This means that when re-injected back into the body they can help recruit more different T-cells to kill different cancers

53
Q

What are the 2 major challenges to genetic material delivery?

A

Formation –> We need to complex DNA with the vector, keeping the DNA stable and able to pass into the cell….which is very hard!

Degredation –> Lots of things are present inside of the cell that can degrade both the vector and genetic material

54
Q

What’s the difference between Electrochemiluminescence and Luminex Technology?

A

Luminex has several beads, each being a different colour and so we can look at several different target proteins, and see what colour is given off

55
Q

What is a DNA Polyplex?

A

A cationic polyer that forms a Toroid, which protects the nucleic acid from the immune system

56
Q

What are the 4 general stages of cancer grading?

A

Early Stage

Localised –> First movement into the lymph

Regional Spread –> Moved into distant lymph nodes

Distant Spread –> Also known as metastatic cancer

Most specific cancers will have their own specific grading system like the Dukes scale for colorectal

57
Q

What is Real-Time PCR (q-PCR)?

And how does it work?

A

A type of PCR that allows us to quantify how much of the desired DNA we actually have in real time

Works by having a flourescent reporter on the forward strand that is quenched. It is removed by the DNA polymerase when the DNA is being synthesised, which causes it to fluoresce….which can be quantified

Natrually as the number of PCR cycles increases, and the concentration of the DNA strand that we want, as does the fluorescence (so we can see if overexpression of a gene has occured as more of the dsDNA will be formed in less cycles!)

58
Q

What is Immunohistochemistry (IHC)?

And how can it be used as part of CISH?

A

IHC –> Requires surface antigens on which the antibody binds, and then secondary antibodies can bind to amplify the signal

  • This complex can then be visuallised

Chromogenic In Situ Hybridisation (CISH) –> A combination of FISH and IHC

A probe from FISH is used which is bound to by an antibody and then a secondary antibody with a conjugated enzyme. The enzmyatic rection causes a coloured precipitate to be created (eg, when gold is made = GOLD-FISH)

59
Q

What type of genome does an adenovirus have?

And name a drug that relies on an adenovirus

A

dsDNA

Gendicine –> A p53 injection

60
Q

How is it possible to get both lobular and ductal cancer from a specific breast cell line?

A

Different drivers will cause the cell to become cancerous in a specific way (whether that be lobular or ductal) despite the original cell being the same

61
Q

How can CRISPR/CAS9 be used to control gene expression?

A

We can bind specific activators or inhibitors to dCas9, which guides it to specific genes where transcription takes place

Depending on what is bound, the gene will either be transcribed or not

These activators or inhibitors will cause a mutation in the nuclease or not, which is what causes the gene expression to occur or not

62
Q

How many cycles of PCR does it take to create 2 brand new dsDNA?

How do we calculate how many strands of dsDNA that we have full stop?

A

3 cycles

The number of dsDNA that are present is 2^n

So after 5 cycles you have 32 (2^5 = 35)

63
Q

How does tumour escape function?

A

The tumour cells release cytokines, causing changes in the antigens of the tumour cells

This means that tumour cells appear that cant be targetted as they have different targets!

  • These have low levels of MHCs and tumour cell recognition
64
Q

What are CAR T cells?

A

Genetically engineered T cells that express a chimeric antigen receptor (CAR)

This means that we dont need MHC presentation from APC, as we already have the antigen presented already

65
Q

What makes BRCA1/2 more likely to cause cancer?

A

They are autosomal dominant, so a mutation in only one copy will increase the risk of cancer greatly

66
Q

Name 6 different ways that mAbs can be used to treat cancer

A

Tumour specific antibodies

Inhibit angiognesis by using Anti-VEGF antibodies

Checkpoint blockaids via PDL1/CTLA4 to recruit the immune system

Radioimmunology (attaching radiotheraputics to the mAb)

Effector cells can be brought closer to the tumour to aid killing them (bispecific antibodies)

Attatching drugs to the mAb to increase selcetivity of the drug

67
Q

What is a teratoma?

A

A tumour that is made up several different tissues

68
Q

What is a “Common Theme/Thread”?

A

Where there is a common link between cancers in different parts of the body

Eg, 40% of cancers are caused by EXON 2 driver of K-RAS

  • So if we can treat the EXON 2 driver, we can treat 40% of cancers

It is for this reason that we need to study the cause of the cancer and not just its location, as we may be able to treat both with one drug if they are cancerous for the same reason

69
Q

How is Gioblastoma multiforme (GMB) treated?

A

Due to VEGF being upregulated (a pro-angiogenic growth factor), a gene for soluble a VEGF receptor is inserted, which mops up VEGF and so reduces angiogensis

Can also use siRNA to form nanoplexes which can work against VEGF

70
Q

What are the 3 types of mutation that PCR can detect?

A

Point mutations (SNPs)

Deletions

Insertions

71
Q

What are the 4 different types of ways that small molecular kinase inhibitors can bind to their target?

A

Active conformation

Inactive conformation

Allosteric adjacent

Allosteric remote

72
Q

How can the CRISPR/CAP9 mechanism be used for gene editing?

A

This is used to create gRNAs to a specific part of DNA to cleave it –> This is permament

It can also be used in viral/non-viral delivery and in the modification of T-cells

We can use it to form a plasmid with all the genes we cant and then insert it into the nucleus

We can deliver the gRNA to the site needed to allow translation into the complex we want

73
Q

What is Hybridization?

And why can probes be used using the principle?

A

The joining of 2 complementory ssDNA strands

Occurs only at tempretures below Tm (which is greater for G+C due to more H-bonds being present)

We can use probes to bind to the completementory strands to find out what strands are present

74
Q

What are bispecific antibodies?

A

Antibodies that can target 2 different oncogenes/tumours