Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MolDx ABB HCLD > MolDx > Flashcards

MolDx Flashcards

1
Q

What enzyme is involved in the DNA replication in prokaryotes?

A

DNA Polymerase III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 steps of DNA replication?

A

Initiation, elongation and termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of DNA helicase?

A

Unwind the DNA zipper to initiate replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During transcription, which enzyme unwind the DNA strands?

A

DNA Helicase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In order for transcription to start, what factors are involved?

A

DNA helicase, RNA polymerase II, transcrption factors and histone modification enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rho factor is

A

A helicase enzyme that associates with RNA pol and inactivates elongation complex at a cytosine-rich termination site in the DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rho independent termination occurs at

A

A G:C-rich region in the DNA, followed by A:T-rich regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What enzyme catalyzes mRNA synthesis in eukaryotes

A

RNA Polymerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RNA Polymerase III transcription termination requires

A

A termination factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In prokaryotes, which enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of all RNA

A

RNA Pol II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which enzyme synthesizes mRNA in eukaryotes

A

RNA Pol II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Transcription takes place in the:

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

rRNA is synthesized by

A

RNA Polymerase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In prokaryotes, the basal transcriptional complex comprises of

A

Large and small subunits of RNA pol II and aditional sigma factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During transcription, the first ribonucleoside triphosphate retains all of its phosphate group

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hnRNA stands for

A

Heterogeneous nuclear RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In eukaryotes, transcription termination is activated when

A

mRNA reaches the polyadenylation signal (poly A site). Poly A tail is important for the mRNA stability and translation into protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

RNA pol I terminates transcription at

A

Sal box + termination factor, TTFI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RNA pol III termination factor is

A

A run of adenine + termination factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which one do not have operons? Eukaryotes or Prokaryotes

A

Eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The boundaries nucleotides located at the beginning and end of introns are:

A

GT - AG (GT AG rule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TATA box is

A

A stretch of T and A nucleotides located aprox. 25 upstream of the transcription start site that signals the start of transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RNA splicing refers to

A

The removal of the intronic sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A key step in the transcription initiation by RNA polymerase II is

A

The phosphorylation of the RNA pol II tail, called CTD (C terninal domain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

RNA pol I and III lack

A

CTD domain. They have a CBC (Cap-binding complex) domain, which helps the RNA to be processed and exported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

UAA, UAG and UGA are nucleotides that signal

A

STOP codons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Translation initiation codon, also known as START codon is

A

AUG the first methionine (in eukaryotes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The preferred consensus recognition sequence for translation to start in eukaryotes is

A

5’-ACCAUGG-3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bacteria mRNA are often referred as polycistronic, which means

A

The same mRNA encodes several different proteins, each translated from the same mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DNA has a

A

Sugar-phophate backbone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Denaturing reagents (formamide, urea) displace hydrogen bonds and separate the 2 DNA strands

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

DNA replication proceedes in a continuous way in which strand?

A

3’ to 5’ strand or leading strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Okazaki fragments are

A

Small discontinuous fragments generated during the replication of the lagging strand (5’ to 3’), which is copied in a discontinuous way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DNA polymerase III is the main polymerizing enzyme during bacterial replication

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DNA pol III holoenzyme complex is prokaryotes is required for

A

Priming, initiation, regulation and termination of the replication process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

3’ 5’ exonuclease activity function is to proofread the replIcating DNA strand

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The function of the poly A tail is

A

To activate the termination of the transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do purines and pyrimidines differ?

A

Purines (adenine and guanine) are two-carbon nitrogen ring bases while pyrimidines (cytosine and thymine) are one-carbon nitrogen ring bases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is DNA primase?

A

DNA primase is an enzyme involved in the replication of DNA. Its function is to synthesize small RNA primers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the purpose of nucleic acid extraction?

A

To release the nucleic acid from cells and use in subsequent procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the three ways used to break though bacterial and fungi cell walls?

A

Mechanical (glass beads or grinding), enzymatic and a combination of detergent, strong base, Tris base, EDTA and glucose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

DNA extracted by boiling or alkaline (strong base as (NAOH) is denatured (single strand). Because of that, this DNA cannot be used for some applications that require double strand DNA such as restriction analysis. Is this true or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which cells are used to extract nucleic acid from blood and bone marrow aspirates?

A

WBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DNA from WBC can be extracted with:

A

Hypotonic solutions, were RBC willbe lysed and remain in suspension, while WBC will precipitate, after centrifugation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Exosomes are

A

Small vesicles originated inside of the cellular endosome containing lipids, proteins and nucleic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Proteinase K extended digestion reduces the yield of DNA

A

False. It increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

List the organic DNA extraction steps

A

1) lysate cells in suspension with NaOH or SDS;
2) Add acetic acid or Salt to promote sample acidification
3) DNA will be on aqueous solution on top and on bottom will be organic phase
4) Precipitate DNA with ETOH or ISOPROP
5) Ressuspend DNA in buffer or water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

80% to 90% of the RNA present in the cells are

A

Ribosomal RNA composed of large and small subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Total RNA sample is composed of

A

Ribosomal RNA (80 TO 90%), messenger RNA (2.5 to 5%), transfer RNA and small nuclear RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What reagent is added to RNA extraction to obtain mRNA?

A

Single-stranded oligomers of thymine or uracyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What reagent is added to sequence GC rich regions?

A

dGTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which subunits of rRNA are visualized on agarose gel?

A

28S on top (bigger) and 18S on bottom (lighter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which forms of plasmid DNA is identified on agarose gel?

A

Supercoiled on bottom, linear above anf nicked or relaxed on top (very faint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ethidium Bromide and Sybergreen I are utilized to visualize

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

RNA is best visualized by

A

Et Br and sybergreen II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The Beer-Lambert absorptivity for double-stranded DNA and RNA are

A

50 for double-stranded DNA and 40 for RNA. The units is ug/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

To find the concentration of a nucleic acid, the formula is

A

Absorbance x conversion factor = x dilution factor

58
Q

These wavelenghts indicate contamination with

A 
230 = organic compounds
260 = phenol
280 = protein
330 = particulate matter
59
Q

Less than 1.6 ratio of 260/280 measurement in DNA indicates

A

Contamination with high levels of proteins

60
Q

DNA preparations with a ratio high than 2.0 indicates contamination with RNA

A

True

61
Q

Capillary electrophoresis can be used for forensics analysis, patternity testing, clonality testing, microsatelite instability and bone marrow engrafment testing

A

True

62
Q

What is the purpose of adding formamide + heat to the electrophoresis buffer?

A

To break hydrogen bonds between DNA RNA strands, preventing from re-anneling

63
Q

Which dyes can be used to detect RNA

A

Sybergreen II

64
Q

Picogreen, oligreen, hoechst 33258 and sybergreen I are

A

DNA dyes

65
Q

When a restriction enzyme recognizes one specific sequence but cut on another sequence, this is called

A

Star activity

66
Q

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorfism (RFLP) is method that utilizes restriction enzymes to map DNA. It is empoyed on

A

Epidemiological studies (identify microorganisms), forensics (map human DNA) or to identify structural chromosomal changes (translocations, deletions, insertions)

67
Q

Northern blot is used for the following applications

A

RNA Gene expression analysis and structural abnormalities, such as alternative splicing

68
Q

What is the difference between SDS-PAGE and IEF Western Blotting?

A

SDS-PAGE resolves protein according to their molecular weight

IEF (IsoElectric Focusing) resolves protein accordingly to their charge

69
Q

The probes used on Southern and Northern blotting are

A

A single strand nucleotide attached to a signal producing agent

70
Q

Melting temperatures of the probes are calculated using this formula

A

Tm = 4°C(# G/C nucleotides) + 2°C(# A/T nucleotides)

71
Q

dGTP, or Deaza dGTP is used for

A

Amplification of GC rich regions. It destabilize the secondary structure formed by the GC base pairing

72
Q

What is Taq major advantage:

A

The ability of continuous cycling through heat steps without losing its enzyme activity

73
Q

Which enzyme is used in reversed transcriptase PCR?

A

Tth polymerase

74
Q

Which enzyme is recommended to amplify allele specific amplicons and CG rich regions?

A

Stoffel Fragment, which half life is higher at high temperatures and, has a broader range of MgCl2 concentration requirements

75
Q

What are the steps used in order to avoid PCR contamination?

A
  1. Separate pre and post PCR in different rooms
  2. Use of PPE
  3. Use positive airflow, airlicks or isolation cabinets
  4. Use of UV as decontaminating
  5. Use of 10% bleach (7 mM sodium hypochloride)
76
Q

dUTP-UNG sytem will

A

Degrade any nucleic acid containing uracil when added to the PCR reaction

77
Q

Alkaline phosphatase in combination with exonuclease I enzyme is used for

A

Removal of nucleotides and primers from PCR products

78
Q

Sequence-specific PCR

A

Takes advantage of the strict requirements for complementarity of a 3’. Primers are designed to end with a 3’ end complementarity for the mutant sequence.

Used in human leukocyte antigen allele analysis for tissue typing

79
Q

Taqman probes have a reporter dye on the 5’ and a quencher on the 3’

A

True

80
Q

A stem and loop structure is formed by the probe in which qPCR system?

A

Molecular Beacons

81
Q

In FRET, the donor/aceptor probe system will only fluoresce when next to one another on the target sequence

A

True

82
Q

What metrics should be included when publishing qRT PCR?

A

Accordingly to MIQE: Target specificity, PCR efficiency, limit of detection, precision, dynamic range, primer sequence and amplicons

MIQE - Minimum Information for Publication of Quantitative Real Time PCR Experiments

83
Q

The use of random degenerative primers throughout the genome or introduction of single strand DNA breaks primed with short hexamers is a hallmark of

A

Whole Genome Amplification, or WGA

84
Q

In emulsion PCR or Solid Phase Emulsion PCR, the reaction happen in small droplets. Emulsion PCR is used in

A

Droplet PCR, Sequencing method

85
Q

SDA, or Strand Displacement Amplification, was originally developed to identify

A

M. tuberculosis, C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoea

86
Q

Hybdric DNA:RNA assays are used for

A

Detection of Hepatitis B, HPV and CMV

87
Q

A sequence of nucleotides responsible for a phenotype is called

A

Genotype

88
Q

Phenotype is defined as

A

A trait or group of traits resulting of transcription and translation of set of genes

89
Q

A variant that is present in 1 or 2% of the population is considered a polymorfism.

A

True

90
Q

Examples of benign Polymorfism includes

A

ABO blood groups, Polymorfisms and major histocompatibility complex used for patternity test and human identification

91
Q

A cell population with a normal chromosomal # is called

A

Euploid

92
Q

Aneuploids describes

A

The abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell

93
Q

The region where the chromosomes attach to the spindle apparatus for proper segregation during cell division is called

A

Centromeres

94
Q

Depending on centromere position, chromosomes can be

A

Metacentric - middle
Submetacentric - one arm longer than other
Acrocentric - one arm is very small
Telocentric - missing one arm

95
Q

p and q are designations for

A

Long and short arms of chromosomes, respectively

96
Q

Chromosomes 13, 15, 21 and 22 are considered

A

Acrocentric or subtelocentric

97
Q

Q banding

A

Gives intense staining of chromosomes. Especially used to identify chromosome Y

98
Q

The pattern of chromosomal staining obtained with Giemsa is

A

G pattern

99
Q

Alkaline treatment of chromosomes resulting in centromere staining is also known as

A

C banding

100
Q

Reciprocal translocations are

A

Translocations between 2 chromosomes where the broken chromosomes reassociates with one another. Also known as balanced translocations

101
Q

When centromeres are involved in inversions, they are called

A

Pericentric inversions

102
Q

Philadelphia chromosomes in Leukemia, are a results of

A

Reciprocal translocations between chromosomes 9 and 22.

103
Q

The term 46, XX del(7)(q13) means

A

A female with 46 chromosomes and a deletion in the long arm of chromosome 7, region 1 band 3

104
Q

Klinefelter syndrome 47, XXY is

A

A result of an extra chromosome X in males

105
Q

A chromosome with a centromere located as such that one arm of the chromosome is longer that the other is called

A

Submetacentric

106
Q

What chromosomal location is indicated by 15q21.1

A

Long arm of chromosome 15 region 2, band 1 and subband 1

107
Q

How many cells are analyzed on FISH?

A

500

108
Q

Silent mutations do not change the amino acid sequence

A

True

109
Q

In conservative mutations,

A

The amino acid is mutated by another one with the same biochemical property, e.g. polar by polar

110
Q

A mutation that terminates the protein sequence abruptly is designated as

A

Nonsense mutations. About 11% of the disease causing mutations are nonsense mutations.

111
Q

Mutations in the 3’ region have drastic consequences to protein synthesis.

A

False. Mutation in the 5’ have more drastic consequences to protein synthesis.

112
Q

EIA and ELISA stand for

A

Enzyme ImmunoAssay (EIA) and Enzyme-linked ImmunoAssay (ELISA)

113
Q

Gas chromatography coupled with Mass spectrometry is being used for

A

Detection of cancer biomarkers, drug detection

114
Q

These two methods areused for the detection of large biomolecules and protens

A

ESI - Electrospray Ionization

MALDI - Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption/Ionization

115
Q

When analyzing nucleic acid at a single base pair resolution by MALDI-TOF, these reagebts are used

A

A primer that binds 5’ of the base to be analyzed and ddNTP’S.

116
Q

Sequence detection methods can be classified as

A

Hybridization methods, sequence methodos and enzyme or chemical cleavage methods.

117
Q

Single Strand Conformation Polymorfism (SSCP) is based on the principle that

A

DNA and RNA will form intrastrand duplexes to maintain their double strand conformation. Differences in the shape of the conformers are caused by sequence differences, impacting the migration on polyacrylamide gel

118
Q

Sequence-Specific Primer PCR (SSP-PCR) is commonly used for

A

Detection of point mutations and other SNPs.

119
Q

Heteroduplex is double strand DNA molecule with one or more non complementary base.

A

True

120
Q

MALDI separates ions by

A

Mass and charge

121
Q

Cite 3 processing steps undergone by mRNA

A

Polyadenylation, capping and splicing

122
Q

Heating a digested DNA by including a final incubation at 95 will

A

Inactivate the restriction enzyme to stop its activity

123
Q

Exons are the parts of the heterogeneous noncoding RNA (hnRNA) that are translated into protein

A

True

124
Q

Intervening sequences that interrupt protein ciding sequences on hnRNA are

A

Introns

125
Q

What is a satisfactory ratio A260/A280 for RNA

A

> 2

126
Q

Which reagent is added to sequencing reaction to promotes equal incorporation of all dNTPs by the Polymerase enzyme?

A

Manganese

127
Q

What are the differences between dye primer and dye terminator sequencing approaches?

A

Dye primer, the fluorescent dyes are attached to 5’, resulting in 4 versions of the primer (one which sequencing color)

On dye terminator, fluorescent dyes are attached to each ddNTP used.

128
Q

Chain termination sequencing or Bisulfite DNA sequencing detect

A

Methylated cytosine nucleotides

129
Q

What is the acceptable Phred score for sequencing

A

2 to 3 (100 to 1000 fold certainity of a correct call)

130
Q

The size of the entire genome is

A

2.91 billion of bp or Gbp

131
Q

Only 2% of the genome code for genes

A

True

132
Q

Salmonella can only be indentified in urine and stoll after 2 weeks post infection

A

True

133
Q

The best swab system to collect bacteria, viruses and mycoplasma from mucosal surfaces are

A

Dacron or calcium arginate swabs with plastic shafts

134
Q

Mycobacteria, fungi, gram-positive bacteria have a thick cell wall

A

True

135
Q

When using sputum as nucleic acid source, which inhibitor needs to be removed?

A

Acidic polysaccharides

136
Q

Internal controls for amplification of microorganisms can be

A

Homologous extrinsic or intrinsic, heterologous extrinsic or intrinsic.

137
Q

Homologous extrinsic are modified versions of the target that maintain the primer binding site

A

True

138
Q

Homologous intrinsic may be

A

Smaller, bigger or the same size as the target

139
Q

When validating a new molecular test for microorganism detection, what parameters do we need to include

A

Sensitivity, specificity and reproducibility

140
Q

LAMP means

A

Loop-mediated isothermal Amplification

141
Q

16S RNA, 23S RNA, groEL, rpoB, recA and gyrB are genes usefull in the moleculat organism identification

A

True

142
Q

These are key enzymes involved in DNA replication: Helicase, Single stranded binding proteins, topoisomerase, DNA pol I (RNAse H), DNA pol III, primase (creates RNA primers), DNA ligase

A

True

MolDx ABB HCLD (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions