Módulo 2 Pediatría Flashcards

1
Q

A 13-year-old girl returns to her physician for follow-up of a strep throat, for which she had been treated 3 weeks previously. After performing a throat culture, the physician asks how school is going. There is dead silence. Her mother says that her daughter has missed the last 4 weeks of school. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

(A) Contract with the girl to go back to school as you explore the problem
(B) Write a medical excuse for her until the throat culture results come back
(C) Tell them you must report her to the school authorities for truancy
(D) Send the mother for supportive counseling
(E) Send the girl for psychotherapy

A

Respuesta: A

The correct answer is A. Prolonged absence from school is a serious problem. It is important to sort out the reasons why this teenager is not attending school. If she is staying home with her mother’s knowledge, then she is probably being kept home by mother to look after another sibling or to keep her mother company. This school refusal may represent separation anxiety, and there could be underlying conflicts of separation. After her illness with strep throat, this teenager may be having difficulties transitioning back to school. Perhaps she dreads going back to a particular class or teacher. It is important to establish whether her school absence is related to something at home or at school. Importantly, everyone needs to help this teenager return to school, even if a contract needs to be made that she will go only for part of the day.

The physician should not write a medical excuse to keep her home for any more days (choice B). This is not the answer and may only prolong the problem. Many times in such situations families want a doctor’s note in support of keeping the child at home and arranging for a home tutor. This should not be done.

The physician should not report the girl as truant (choice C). Truancy is when a student is absent from school but is not at home. Instead the student may be away with peers playing or doing something else. There is no history of truancy in this case. The school is surely aware of the girl’s absence from school.

Sending the mother for counseling (choice D) is not the best choice. The mother may have underlying separation problems herself. Many mothers of children with school phobia may have a history of depression or have had school phobia themselves during their own childhood. All issues need to be explored over time.

Sending the girl to psychotherapy (choice E) seems premature until the physician explores what is going on. At this point, she has not even returned to school. It will take some skill in uncovering the underlying issues and seeing that this teenager gets the help she needs.

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2
Q

A 1-year old child is brought in for a well baby checkup. His parents report that he has been of good health and began walking a few weeks earlier. They are concerned that he tends to bump into things and falls more than his older sister did. Family history is significant for retinoblastoma. On examination, the pediatrician notes leukocoria of the left eye. No significant lymphadenopathy is present, and there is no enlargement of the liver or spleen. The child’s height and weight are normal for his age. A complete ophthalmologic examination reveals retinoblastoma in the child’s left eye, and enucleation is performed. This patient has the highest lifetime risk for which of the following conditions?

(A) Glaucoma
(B) Glioblastoma
(C) Malignant melanoma
(D) Osteosarcoma
(E) Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Respuesta: D

The correct answer is D. Retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy in infants and children. With early diagnosis and treatment, survival is greater than 90%. However, patients with a germline retinoblastoma mutation have a substantial risk (as high as 70%) for having a second high-grade malignancy. The most common secondary nonocular tumors associated with retinoblastoma is osteosarcoma. Physicians must always have a high index of suspicion of osteosarcoma in these patients when there is a new onset of bone pain or new bony lesions.

Infantile or congenital glaucoma (choice A) is associated with other congenital anomalies, such as aniridia, Sturge-Weber syndrome, Marfan syndrome, and neurofibromatosis. There is, however, no association with retinoblastoma.

Other secondary tumors, such as brain tumors (glioblastoma [choice B]), malignant melanoma (choice C), and squamous cell carcinoma (choice E), are also associated with retinoblastoma, but to a much lesser degree than osteosarcoma.

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3
Q

A 4-day-old female infant presents to the emergency department with vomiting and abdominal distention. The mother states that the vomitus was green. The infant also has had difficulty feeding and has been hard to console. The mother had an uncomplicated pregnancy. The infant passed meconium within 12 hours after birth. She also had several small, seedy, yellowish stools each day since birth. On physical examination, she is very irritable. Her anterior fontanelle is slightly depressed. Her abdomen is distended. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Allergic reaction to formula
(B) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
(C) Hirschsprung disease
(D) Meconium ileus
(E) Midgut volvulus

A

Respuesta: E

The correct answer is E. In the neonatal period, mid-gut volvulus is the most common cause of abdominal obstruction due to malrotation. Green-colored vomitus represents bilious vomiting, which is caused by obstruction of the small bowel. The infant typically has normal feeding and appears to be well in the first few days of life. As the malrotation worsens, the infant starts to develop abdominal fullness, especially in the right upper quadrant. Bilious vomiting soon develops as the small bowel is completely obstructed. If the volvulus is not diagnosed and treated early, intestinal ischemia and necrosis may develop. This can lead to bowel perforation and shock. Volvulus is the most common type of malrotation in newborns. It is caused by failure of the cecum to move into the right lower quadrant. The usual location of the cecum is in the subhepatic area. Because the cecum fails to rotate properly, it does not form the normal broad-based adherence to the posterior abdominal wall. A midgut volvulus is formed when the mesentery, which includes the superior mesenteric artery, is tethered by a narrow stalk and is twisted around itself. In addition, bands of adhesive tissue (Ladd bands) may extend from the cecum to the right upper quadrant, obstructing the duodenum. Midgut volvulus is an emergency in neonates. When an infant is suspected of having this condition, he or she should be stabilized immediately by IV fluids, antibiotics, and nasogastric suctioning. Abdominal radiographs should be taken as soon as possible to evaluate for bowel obstruction. Radiologic findings of volvulus include small bowel dilatation, paucity of air in the intestine, and a corkscrew-like appearance of the duodenum. Emergent surgery is needed to relieve the obstruction. Adhesive tissues should be resected, and the entire intestine should be inspected for anomalies. If segments of ischemic bowel are present, they should be removed. If the viability of the bowel cannot be determined during the surgery, a second surgery 12-36 hours later may be necessary to inspect and remove any ischemic bowel segment. Short bowel syndrome is a dreaded complication if a significant portion of the bowel was nonviable, and thus removed.

Allergic reaction to formula (choice A) typically presents between 4 and 6 weeks of age. Reactions rarely present in the neonatal period. Bilious vomiting is also not consistent with an allergic reaction to formula.

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (choice B) happens commonly in infants. In fact, the lower gastroesophageal sphincter is poorly developed during infancy. Most cases of reflux are a normal variant, and the parents need not be worried. However, when reflux causes significant problems, such as poor weight gain or apnea, it then needs to be treated. The vomiting in gastroesophageal reflux disease is never bilious.

Hirschsprung disease (choice C) results from partial or complete absence of ganglion cells in the colon. It is the most common cause of neonatal obstruction of the colon. Hirschsprung disease is suspected when the infant fails to pass meconium in the first 24 hours of life. Diagnosis becomes more likely when barium enema shows the appearance of a megacolon proximal to the aganglionic segment. It is confirmed with punch biopsy.

Meconium ileus (choice D) is most commonly associated with cystic fibrosis. It typically presents at birth or within the first 48 hours. Symptoms include failure to pass meconium, abdominal distention, and vomiting, which may be bilious.

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4
Q

An 8-year-old boy presents to the pediatrician’s office with a headache for the past 3 weeks. His mother also states that he has been more tired and has had frequent nose bleeding for the past month. On physical examination, his height and weight are both below the 5th percentile for his age. His blood pressure is 152/86 mm Hg in all four extremities. His pulse is 74/min, and respirations are 16/min. His heart examination is normal with no murmur. His peripheral pulses are strong and symmetric. Urinalysis and serum electrolytes are ordered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

(A) 24-hour urine creatinine and protein
(B) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine concentration
(C) Plasma and urine catecholamine levels
(D) Serum aldosterone level
(E) Serum cortisol level

A

Respuesta: B

The correct answer is B. Hypertension happens in children. It is defined as blood pressure higher than the 95th percentile for age on three different measurements. Unlike adults, most cases of hypertension in infants and younger children are secondary hypertension. Children with hypertension usually present with headaches, visual symptoms, easy fatigability, or epistaxis. One of the possible reasons for failure to thrive is hypertension. Seventy to seventy-five percent of children who have hypertension have a renal etiology. Up to 25% of patients have a history of recurrent urinary tract infection secondary to obstructive uropathy or reflux nephropathy. Other renal causes include renovascular disease, glomerulonephritis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome. These children develop hypertension when azotemia occurs because of the underlying disease. Hence, the most appropriate initial laboratory tests are complete blood count, urinalysis, serum electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen and creatinine concentration, and uric acid. The most common cardiac cause of hypertension is coarctation of the aorta, but this usually presents in infancy. In older patients with good collateral flow, a “machinery” systolic murmur is typically evident on examination, but in younger patients, the murmur is usually short, systolic, and best heard along the lower sternal border at the third and fourth intercostal spaces. Also, the lower extremities blood pressure will be lower than the upper extremities. Femoral pulses would be weak or absent. Other causes of secondary hypertension in children include drugs (especially corticosteroids, oral contraceptives in sexually active adolescents, and sympathomimetics), lead poisoning, neuroblastoma, and seizure.

Twenty-four-hour urine creatinine clearance and protein (choice A) is not indicated for the initial evaluation of a hypertensive child. The purpose of doing this test is to have an accurate measurement of the creatinine clearance, but collection of urine for 24 hours can be very inconvenient to the family. It is also not cost-effective as an initial test.

Plasma and urine catecholamine levels (choice C) are used to assess the presence of a catecholamine-producing tumor, such as a pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma usually presents with episodic symptoms of palpitation, headaches, flushing, nausea and vomiting, and urinary frequency. Pheochromocytoma is not suspected in this case; therefore, catecholamine levels are not indicated here.

Serum aldosterone (choice D), if elevated, represents either primary or secondary hyperaldosteronism. Clinical manifestations include hypertension, muscle weakness, polydipsia, and polyuria. Laboratory findings include hypokalemia, hypernatremia, and decreased chloride. Therefore, serum electrolytes would be an appropriate initial test for this condition. Serum aldosterone level is not an appropriate initial test in this patient, although it would be indicated later if the patient had the relevant symptoms and characteristic laboratory findings.

Serum cortisol (choice E) would be used to assess Cushing syndrome, which is another cause of secondary hypertension in children. In children older than 7 years, the most common cause of Cushing syndrome is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia secondary to a pituitary adenoma or ectopic production of corticotropin (ACTH). Children with Cushing syndrome have characteristic moon facies, double chin, buffalo hump, obesity, masculinization, acne, impaired growth, and hypertrichosis

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5
Q

An infant is brought to the office for health maintenance visit. On examination, the infant turns when her name is called. She is able to say “mama.” Her mother mentions that she also says “dada” at home. She is able to look for her mother when she gets frightened. She also waves bye-bye to the doctor when the doctor steps out of the examination room. What age of this child is most consistent with these developmental milestones?

(A) 3 months
(B) 5 months
(C) 7 months
(D) 9 months
(E) 11 months

A

Respuesta: D

The correct answer is D. Developmental assessment is essential in pediatrics health maintenance. It should be included in every health supervision visit. A developmental screening includes assessment of the following four areas: neurodevelopment, cognitive development, language development, and psychosocial development. The ability to make repetitive consonant sounds, such as “mama” or “dada,” is learned by 8-9 months. At that time, the infant can also recognize his or her own name. In term of social cognition, an infant will seek reassurance from a familiar person, usually parents or caretakers, when frightened. By 9 months, an infant can also wave bye-bye.

At 3 months (choice A), neurodevelopment is more important. At this time, an infant can raise his or her head when place on a firm surface. The infant may be able to laugh at pleasurable social contacts.

At 5 months (choice B), an infant can often be pulled from a sitting to a standing position. The infant can also support his or her weight on extended legs.

At 7 months (choice C), the infant can make repetitive vowel sounds but is not able to recognize his or her own name yet. A prone infant at this age is able to pivot in pursuit of an object.

At 11 months (choice E), the infant enjoys playing ball with the examiner. He or she can also use a few words other than “mama” or “dada.”

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6
Q

A 2-week-old infant is noted to be jaundiced. The baby’s stools are pale, and his urine is darkly colored. Physical examination demonstrates hepatomegaly. Serum studies show elevations of AST, ALT, conjugated bilirubin, and unconjugated bilirubin. By 2 months of age, the baby is notably irritated by pruritus, has retarded growth, and has visible dilated veins in the periumbilical area. Ultrasound fails to demonstrate a gallbladder. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
(B) Biliary atresia
(C) Cystic fibrosis
(D) Hepatitis B
(E) Hepatitis C
(F) Toxoplasmosis

A

Respuesta: B

The correct answer is B. The child has biliary atresia. This condition may either develop prenatally, in which case the gallbladder may be absent, or postnatally, probably after inflammation and scarring of the extrahepatic (and intrahepatic) biliary ducts. The underlying etiology is unclear. The history illustrated in the question stem is typical. In cases in which ultrasound is unrevealing, needle biopsy of the liver can yield tissue that usually excludes alternative diagnoses and can sometimes definitively demonstrate the atresia.

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (choice A), cystic fibrosis (choice C), hepatitis B (choice D), and hepatitis C (choice E) can all cause hepatitis in infancy but would not cause the gallbladder to be absent.

Congenital toxoplasmosis (choice F) results from a systemic infection with Toxoplasma gondii. When found in the newborn, congenital toxoplasmosis is always severe, and neurologic signs are always present. The classic triad is chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications. Other characteristic features include intrauterine growth, retardation, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and rash.

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7
Q

A 3-year-old girl with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) presents to the emergency department after a 15-minute focal seizure of her left arm and leg. A brief history reveals that the child has no known seizure disorder and has been having a low-grade fever at home for about 4 days. She also has been less active and has had poor appetite. On physical examination, her temperature is 40.2 C (104.3 F), and her pulse is 82/min. She is not responsive to her name, but she is responsive to painful stimuli with withdrawal of her extremities. Cardiac examination is significant for a grade 3 systolic murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border. Neurologic examination reveals anisocoria with a dilated right pupil. After stabilization, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

(A) CT of the brain
(B) ECG
(C) Electroencephalography
(D) MRI of the brain
(E) Complete blood count and blood culture
(F) Lumbar puncture

A

Respuesta: A

The correct answer is A. A child with a known cardiac defect now presenting with fever, seizure, and focal neurologic deficit (anisocoria) is likely to have a brain abscess. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) predisposes the patient to an occult infection in the heart, i.e., endocarditis. Vegetations usually develop around the defect. Seeding of the bacteria may occur, and the patient thus becomes bacteremic. The bacteria may travel to the brain and cause a brain abscess. Common pathogens include Streptococcus viridans, Bacteroides, Enterobacteriaceae and Staphylococcus aureus. Brain abscess is a life-threatening condition that requires rapid recognition and treatment. CT of the brain is the best diagnostic test for brain abscess. Surgical drainage and IV antibiotics are the treatment of choice. Broad spectrum antibiotics, such as a third generation cephalosporin with metronidazole, are necessary. Oxacillin or vancomycin can be used if S. aureus is present. If CT scan reveals that the abscess is less than 2.5 cm and the patient is neurologically stable and conscious, it is recommended to just start antibiotics and observe. Otherwise, surgical drainage is necessary.

ECG (choice B) is not helpful in the diagnosis of this child. Even though she has a cardiac condition (VSD), it is apparent that her clinical deterioration is secondary to a serious infection and a neurologic condition, rather than an abnormal heart rhythm.

Electroencephalography (choice C) is an appropriate initial diagnostic procedure for this critically ill child. It may help to elucidate the kind of seizure that she had. It is not immediately necessary, however, because the confirmation of a brain abscess by a CT scan is more crucial for prompt diagnosis and intervention.

MRI of the brain (choice D) can show fine details of the soft tissue. In this case of brain abscess, however, a rapid study such as the CT scan is more appropriate because it is faster and easier to obtain and is adequate to diagnose a brain abscess.

Complete blood count and blood cultures (choice E) are helpful but are not diagnostic of brain abscess. An elevated white count is not always present. Multiple blood cultures should be obtained but they are not as helpful as the CT scan.

Lumbar puncture (choice F) is contraindicated in this case because the child might have increased intracranial pressure. Brain stem or uncal herniation might occur.

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8
Q

A mother brings her 7-year-old son to the clinic because, over the past several days, his urine has become pink and his eyes have looked puffy. About 2 weeks ago, he missed school because of fever and a sore throat. On examination, the boy’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, his eyelids and scrotum appear puffy, and he has 1+ tibial edema. No rashes are noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
(B) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
(C) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
(D) Nephrotic syndrome
(E) Vesicoureteral reflux

A

Respuesta: A

The correct answer is A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is characterized by hematuria with either no or mild edema and elevated blood pressure. In cooler weather, it is often preceded by a sore throat. During warmer weather, a skin infection, such as impetigo, may be the preceding infection. This illness is thought to be mediated by immune complexes, and serum complement (C3) is reduced. When edema is mild, it is most easily seen in loose, thin tissues, such as the eyelids or scrotum. It is uncommon before 3 years of age.

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (choice B) is a systemic disease, which often follows an acute diarrheal illness and occurs most frequently in children younger than 4 years. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli strains (O157:H7) have been associated with this illness. Following an attack of gastroenteritis, the child becomes pale and lethargic, and urine output falls. Examination often shows edema, petechiae, and hepatosplenomegaly. It is a major cause of renal failure in children.

Henoch-Schönlein purpura (choice C) is associated with a characteristic petechial or purpuric rash, followed by edema. Some patients have bloody stools and abdominal cramping. Glomerulonephritis may occur 1-2 months after the first symptoms appear and usually presents as asymptomatic hematuria.

The characteristic clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome (choice D) is edema. In addition, children with nephrotic syndrome have proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, and hyperlipidemia. Although individuals with poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis and HenochSchönlein purpura may develop nephrotic syndrome, hematuria is rare in nephrotic syndrome.

Vesicoureteral reflux (choice E) is usually discovered during an evaluation for a urinary tract infection. Significant hematuria or edema is uncommon.

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9
Q

A 3-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department for severe vomiting over the past 6 hours. The mother tells the physician that she has vomited at least 4 times during this period. She also noticed the infant was having difficulty feeding for 2 days. On examination, she is very fussy, and there is a swelling over the left side of the head. CT of the head shows a skull fracture of the left parietal bone with no evidence of intracranial damage. The mother explains that the baby rolled off the sofa onto the floor yesterday. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

(A) Discharge the patient home with instructions concerning postconcussion symptoms
(B) Monitor the infant for 12 hours for signs of increased intracranial pressure, discharge the patient home if asymptomatic thereafter
(C) Obtain a neurosurgical consultation for the skull fracture
(D) Obtain a skeletal survey
(E) Repeat the CT scan of the head in 24 hours

A

Respuesta: D

The correct answer is D. In this case, the mechanism of the injury (i.e., that the 3-month-old infant rolled off the sofa and hit her head) is inconsistent with the developmental age of the child. A normal 3- month-old infant is unable to roll. Child abuse is suspected in this scenario. In addition, when a parent seeks medical care for the child with a head injury, he or she usually volunteers the mechanism of injury right away, rather than waiting until a CT scan is done to confirm the injury. Such reluctance to give related history is highly suspicious of child abuse. Other clues of injury secondary to child abuse include a changing history, a conflicting history by different caretakers, and a history that is inconsistent with the severity or the type of the injury. In this case, a skeletal survey is indicated to detect any other skeletal injury and to document the findings for legal purpose. A detailed and well-documented physical examination should also be performed to identify any other injury. Other physical findings that are highly suggestive of child abuse include bruises of buttocks, cigarette burns, circular burns from hot water immersion, human bites, lash marks, spiral fractures of the long bones, subdural hematoma, and multiple bony injuries at different stages of healing. Child abuse continues to be a major problem in this country and is a major threat to the wellness of affected children. Pediatricians should always be advocates of the children; they are required by law to report any suspected case of child abuse.

Discharging the patient home (choice A) is inappropriate because a full evaluation of other possible injuries related to child abuse has not been completed. Failure to recognize child abuse may lead to further serious injury of the victim.

The problem with 12-hour monitoring of this child (choice B) is similar to the choice above. Further investigation of the child abuse is necessary. If this is not a child abuse case, monitoring may be useful to detect any development of signs of increased cranial pressure, such as worsening vomiting, lethargy, seizure activities, and Cushing’s triad (hypertension, bradycardia, and change in respiration).

Neurosurgical consultation (choice C) is not indicated without any evidence of intracranial hemorrhage. A simple linear fracture of the skull does not require immediate surgical intervention.

Repeating the CT scan in 24 hours (choice E) is not helpful if the infant remains clinically stable.

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10
Q

A 9-month-old, chubby, healthy-appearing boy is brought to the pediatrician because of episodes of colicky abdominal pain and blood-tinged stools. The pain lasts from 1 to 10 minutes and causes the infant to double up; he then appears normal until his next bout of colic. During the examination, the infant has another episode, at which time a vague mass can be felt on the right side of the abdomen, and the right lower quadrant has an “empty” feeling to deep palpation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

(A) Barium enema
(B) Colonoscopy
(C) Gastrografin enema
(D) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
(E) Exploratory surgery

A

Respuesta: A

The correct answer is A. The clinical picture is that of intussusception, which occurs in this age group with the presentation given and the classic bloody stools (often referred to as “currant jelly stools”) mentioned. A barium enema is both diagnostic and therapeutic, as the heavy column of barium coils around the intussuscepted ileum at the same time that it pushes it back out of the ascending colon.

Colonoscopy (choice B) could give the diagnosis (in an expensive and invasive way) but would not help resolve the problem. Colonoscopy is extensively used to decompress a distended colon (such as in Ogilvie syndrome), but it offers no way to push back the ileum.

A Gastrografin enema (choice C) also has a dual diagnostic/therapeutic role in pediatric surgery, but for a different disease: meconium ileus.

The upper gastrointestinal tract (choice D) is not the seat of the problem. The bloody stools may have lured you into this choice, but in this case the blood comes from the engorged, irritated, and battered intussuscepted bowel.

Exploratory surgery (choice E) may eventually be needed to fix a recurring problem, but it is not the first step.

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11
Q

A 12-year-old boy presents with an intensely pruritic rash for 3 days. He just went on a camping trip, during which he wore only short-sleeve shirts and short pants. His temperature is 37.6 C (99.7 F), blood pressure is 96/62 mm Hg, pulse is 65/min, and respirations are 12/min. There are numerous erythematous papules and vesicles on both arms and legs. Most of them are in a linear array. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

(A) Oral cephalexin
(B) Oral prednisone
(C) Topical diphenhydramine
(D) Topical mupirocin
(E) Topical 1% hydrocortisone

A

Respuesta: B

The correct answer is B. History and physical examination are crucial in the diagnosis of contact dermatitis. The appearance of the erythematous papules and vesicles in a linear fashion on the exposed skin suggests contact dermatitis due to plant allergens. The most common culprits are poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac. The chemical found in these plants, urushiol, is a very potent allergen that causes an acute dermatitis that presents as vesicles, bullae, papules, and edema. If the contact dermatitis covers more than 10 to 15% of the body surface area, oral prednisone is indicated for 14-21 days. An initial dose of 1 mg/kg/day may be used, tapered every 3 days to complete the whole course. Taking tepid baths or applying calamine lotions may promote drying when the vesicles rupture.

Oral cephalexin (choice A) is an antibiotic and is not indicated in this case because there is no evidence that the dermatitis is complicated with a bacterial infection.

Topical diphenhydramine (choice C) should be avoided because it may cause a secondary dermatitis that complicates the primary process. Oral diphenhydramine may be considered to treat burning and itching.

Topical mupirocin (choice D) is a topical antibiotic. Unless secondary bacterial infection is present, a topical antibiotic is not necessary.

Topical 1% hydrocortisone (choice E) is a low-potency topical corticosteroid, which is ineffective in treatment of contact dermatitis. If the contact dermatitis is localized to a small area, and if it is mild, a mid-potency topical corticosteroid (e.g., mometasone furoate 0.1% or triamcinolone acetonide 0.1%) may be used instead of oral prednisone.

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12
Q

A premature infant has a difficult delivery with episodes of arrhythmia and suspected hypoxia-ischemia. After the delivery, the infant is lethargic and has periods of apnea. Intracranial hemorrhage is suspected. No obvious head trauma is noted. Cranial ultrasound identifies blood within the ventricles. Which of the following structures is the most likely source of the hemorrhage?

(A) Bridging veins of the skull
(B) Cerebral cortex
(C) Germinal matrix
(D) Middle meningeal artery
(E) Thalamus
(F) Vessels of the circle of Willis

A

Respuesta: C

The correct answer is C. Intraventricular and/or intraparenchymal intracranial bleeding is a common serious problem among newborns, particularly those born prematurely. This diagnosis should be suspected in infants with apnea, seizures, lethargy, or an abnormal neurologic examination. CT scan or ultrasound of the head can confirm the diagnosis. The usual source of the bleeding is the germinal matrix (a mass of embryonic tissue near the caudate nucleus that is not present in adults), which often has been damaged by episodes of hypotension or hypoxia/ischemia. Depending on the exact sites that start to bleed, the blood may either flow into the ventricles or spread into the adjacent brain tissue, “dissecting” a path (and rupturing neuron axons as it goes). This latter form of hemorrhage, which is considered the most serious (and potentially fatal) form of intracranial hemorrhage in infants, typically develops in the first 3 days of life. Infants with small intraventricular hemorrhages often do well; those with large hemorrhages may either die or be left with severe neurologic defects.

Bridging veins of the skull (choice A) can be a source of bleeding and cause subdural hemorrhage. These vessels are damaged in shaken baby syndrome.

The cerebral cortex (choice B) may be damaged by dissecting blood but is not the usual site of initial bleeding in these infants.

Bleeding from the middle meningeal artery (choice D) results in an epidural hematoma. This typically follows trauma. It is, however, an unusual source of bleeding in newborns.

The thalamus (choice E) and other areas in the deeper aspects of the brain can be damaged by dissecting blood but are not the usual site of initial bleeding in these infants.

Bleeding from the vessels of the circle of Willis (choice F) causes subarachnoid hemorrhage.

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13
Q

A 6-year-old boy has had a fever for 8 days. He just finished a 5- day course of amoxicillin for otitis media. On examination, his temperature is 38.6 C (101.4 F). He has meningismus and palsy of the left sixth cranial nerve. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals 200 white cells per mL with 80% lymphocytes and 20% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, glucose of 18 mg/dL, protein of 260 mg/dL, and a negative Gram stain. There is basilar enhancement without focal lesions on CT. Which of the following CSF tests will most likely identify the cause of meningitis?

(A) Antigen test for Cryptococcus
(B) Bacterial culture
(C) Culture for mycobacteria
(D) Latex agglutination test for pneumococcus
(E) Test for Treponema pallidum

A

Respuesta: C

The correct answer is C. Most cases of meningitis in children will be one of two types: bacterial, usually caused by pneumococci or meningococci, or viral, usually caused by enteroviruses. Analysis of the CSF can be very helpful in differentiating the various types of meningitis. Clinicians should also be familiar with other treatable causes of meningitis. Tuberculous meningitis and fugal meningitis have similar clinical presentations and CSF findings. Affected patients have a subacute presentation, focal neurologic abnormalities (in this case a sixth cranial nerve palsy), a CSF pleocytosis with a predominance of lymphocytes (100-400 cells/mL), a low glucose level (20-45 mg/dL), and an increased protein concentration (100-500 mg/dL). Rapid diagnosis of tuberculous meningitis may be difficult, because most patients will have negative results on acid-fast smear. Results of cerebral CT are usually abnormal, showing enhancement of the cerebral cortex, cerebral edema, infarctions, or obstructive hydrocephalus. Accordingly, the findings in this patient are most consistent with tuberculous meningitis, and mycobacterial culture will be the most helpful CSF test.

The cryptococcal antigen test (choice A) has good sensitivity and specificity and has replaced the India ink stain for diagnosis. In approximately 95% of cases of meningitis due to Coccidioides immitis, complement-fixing antibodies will be present in the CSF.

Bacterial culture (choice B) is important in the work-up of bacterial meningitis. Acute bacterial meningitis is typically characterized by an elevated CSF white blood cell count with a predominance of neutrophils, an elevated CSF protein concentration, a low CSF glucose level, and positive findings on Gram stain and culture. Prior treatment with oral antibiotics does not alter these diagnostic parameters significantly, although the yield of the CSF Gram stain and culture may be somewhat decreased.

Latex agglutination tests (choice D) for pneumococcal or meningococcal antigens rarely are helpful. The CSF Gram stain has a much higher likelihood of providing early diagnostic help.

Treponema pallidum (choice E) is the cause of syphilis. Clinical manifestations of CNS disease usually appear during the tertiary stages of the disease. A picture of aseptic meningitis can occur rarely and may be confirmed by a reactive CSF Venereal Disease Research Laboratories (VDRL) test. Classic neuro-syphilis has an indolent course, and psychiatric or neurologic symptoms will not manifest for decades following the initial infection.

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14
Q

A previously healthy 5-month-old boy has been irritable and has had a decreased oral intake for 2 days. His rectal temperature is 37.4 C (99.3 F), pulse is 220/min, and respirations are 50/min. The radial and posterior tibial pulses are diminished with good brachial and femoral pulses. ECG shows tachycardia; QRS complexes are narrow without preceding P waves. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

(A) Administer adenosine intravenously
(B) Administer verapamil intravenously
(C) Apply an ice-filled plastic bag to the entire face for 5 to 10 seconds
(D) Cardiac pacing
(E) Perform synchronized direct current cardioversion

A

Respuesta: C

The correct answer is C. This child most likely has supraventricular tachycardia. To be more specific, it is atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT), a relatively common cardiac emergency among infants. In this condition, the electric impulse is conducted through the AV node, then re-enters the atria via an accessory atrioventricular pathway, producing the arrhythmia. The QRS complexes are narrow, and there are no preceding P waves. The pulse is usually 220-270/min. The best means of converting this rhythm to sinus rhythm is to interrupt the re-entry circuit by blocking atrial to ventricular conduction within the AV node. Both vagal maneuvers and drugs that block AV node conduction can be effective treatments. Applying an ice bag to the face is believed to cause a powerful vagal nerve discharge. Most authorities advise using a large plastic bag filled with ice that covers the entire face of the infant; adding some water to the bag appears to achieve the lowest temperature. The face should be covered for only about 5 seconds because the infant will become apneic during the maneuver.

The IV administration of adenosine (choice A) is an effective and safe method of blocking AV nodal conduction and converting an AVRT to normal sinus rhythm. However, this therapy requires good IV access because the drug must be administered as a rapid bolus. Following this bolus with a rapid infusion of 5-10 mL normal saline ensures that adenosine will be carried through the central circulation before it is metabolized within seconds. Because obtaining IV access can stress these already compromised infants, adenosine should be administered only if a properly performed ice bag maneuver has failed.

The IV administration of verapamil (choice B) effectively blocks AV conduction, but its use in infants younger than 1 year is extremely dangerous and is contraindicated. Serious side effects include asystole, bradycardia, and shock.

Cardiac pacing (choice D) is the treatment for bradycardia secondary to third degree or complete AV block. It is required in neonates with ventricular rates less than or equal to 50/min who have evidence of heart failure.

Synchronized direct current cardioversion (choice E) should be reserved for the rare infant who presents in a moribund state, because application of an ice bag to the face often can reinstate sinus rhythm even in infants who appear quite ill.

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15
Q

A 3-month-old boy is brought to the pediatrician because of a red growth on his arm. The pregnancy had been uncomplicated, and the infant has been meeting all development milestones. He has been healthy so far and has received all scheduled immunizations. He is currently being breast-fed. His skin was clear at birth, but when he was 2 months old, his mother noted a light red growth on his arm. Within the past month, it has increased in size and has turned bright red. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this disorder?

(A) Observation
(B) Topical corticosteroids
(C) Argon laser therapy
(D) Radiation therapy
(E) Surgery

A

Respuesta: A

The correct answer is A. This child has a strawberry hemangioma, which arises when vascular tissue fails to communicate with adjoining tissue. This enlarges and creates a raised erythematous tumor. Strawberry hemangiomas develop after birth and have a benign course if left alone. They enlarge in the first year of life and then regress. In 90% of patients, the strawberry hemangioma resolves by 9 years of age.

These lesions are not inflammatory in nature, and topical steroids (choice B) have not been shown to be of benefit in their treatment.

If the hemangioma is pressing on a vital organ, argon laser therapy (choice C) may be needed.

These lesions are not malignant; therefore, radiation (choice D) is not needed.

Surgical resection (choice E) is rarely needed in these cases

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16
Q

A 5-year-old girl is being evaluated for generalized swelling. Her blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Her laboratory results show:

    • Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
  • Albumin 1.6 g/dL
  • Cholesterol 360 mg/dL
  • Triglycerides 400 mg/dL
  • C3 complement 120 mg/dL (normal, >80 mg/dL)
  • Antinuclear antibody Negative
  • Urinalysis 1 RBC/hpf protein 400 mg/dL

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
(B) Membranous glomerulopathy
(C) Minimal change disease
(D) Postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis
(E) Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Respuesta: C

The correct answer is C. Generalized swelling in a 5-year-old girl with proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia suggests nephrotic syndrome. In the absence of other pathology, minimal change disease is the most common etiology of primary nephrotic syndrome in childhood. It accounts for 80 to 85% of the cases of nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease has a peak occurrence between ages 2 and 8 years. In most of the cases, a viral illness precedes the proteinuria. The initial symptom is typically edema, which can happen around the eyes (periorbital edema) and in the feet (pretibial edema). Both blood pressure and renal function are normal in most patients. Hematuria is absent; complement C3 and C4 levels are normal. Immunosuppressive therapy with steroids is the mainstay of treatment. Minimal change disease is strikingly responsive to steroid therapy, with a 93% success rate with resolution of proteinuria. In cases that are resistant to steroids, cyclophosphamide may be used. In general, the prognosis for minimal change disease is excellent.

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (choice A) is the most common cause of primary glomerulonephritis. It often presents in the 2nd decade of life with proteinuria, microscopic or gross hematuria, and hypertension. Renal function is usually normal. Hypocomplementemia is also commonly seen. Renal biopsy is diagnostic. The mainstay of treatment is alternate-day steroids.

Membranous glomerulopathy (choice B) is very rare in the pediatric age group. Most cases are asymptomatic. It has been associated with various infections, the most frequent being hepatitis B infection. The diagnosis is confirmed by renal biopsy. The clinical course is very variable in children, but the overall prognosis is excellent, with a 50 to 60% spontaneous remission rate. Alternate-day steroid therapy may improve the prognosis.

Postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis (choice D) is a common cause of gross hematuria in children and usually develops 1-2 weeks after a streptococcal infection. Other organisms may also cause this disease. Clinical manifestations vary from asymptomatic microscopic hematuria to gross hematuria to acute renal failure. Tubular casts may be seen on microscopic examination of the urine specimen; C3 levels are decreased. The prognosis is generally good.

Systemic lupus erythematosus (choice E) is a systemic rheumatologic disease that usually presents with malar rash, photosensitivity, arthralgia, serositis, neurologic disorders, and immunologic abnormalities. It is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. Different forms of glomerulonephritis can occur in patients with this disease.

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17
Q

A 13-year-old girl presents with a 1-week history of a sore throat and a nonproductive cough. She has been previously healthy and has not been exposed to any other sick person. She has not been taking any medications. On examination, she has normal oxygen saturation and a low-grade fever. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

(A) Amoxicillin
(B) Cefazolin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Metronidazole
(E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

A

Respuesta: C

The correct answer C. The patient is older than 6 years, and the most common pneumonias in this age group are due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Streptococcus pneumoniae. The girl in this vignette most likely has Mycoplasma pneumonia, which is milder than that due to traditional bacteria. It is characterized by gradual onset of fever, headache, and a nonproductive cough. The treatment of choice is erythromycin.

Amoxicillin (choice A) would be good coverage for Streptococcus, but not for Mycoplasma.

Cefazolin (choice B) would be a good choice for typical bacteria and for coverage against gram-negative rods, but would not be appropriate for M. pneumoniae.

Metronidazole (choice D) would provide anaerobic coverage, but would not be appropriate for M. pneumoniae.

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (choice E) is good prophylaxis for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, but this is very unlikely in this presumably immunocompetent patient.

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18
Q

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated by a pediatrician. She is already 5’8” tall and is taller than other members of her family were at this age. Her arms are disproportionately long compared with her trunk, and her sternum is outwardly displaced. Her joints are hyperextensible, particularly at the knees. Ocular examination demonstrates dislocation of one lens. Based on the most likely diagnosis, which of the following conditions is the most appropriate screening method to prevent morbidity?

(A) Bone density
(B) CT scan of the pituitary stalk
(C) Dexamethasone suppression test
(D) Echocardiography
(E) Electrocardiogram
(F) Glucose tolerance test

A

Respuesta: D

The correct answer is D. Marfan syndrome is a connective tissue disease with an autosomal-dominant inheritance. Cardinal features of the disorder include tall stature, ectopia lentis, mitral valve prolapse, aortic root dilatation, and aortic dissection. Because cardiovascular disease (aortic dilatation and dissection) is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in these patients, early intervention with beta-adrenergic blocking agents and careful echocardiography screening may help slow aortic dilatation and allow prophylactic aortic root replacement before dissection occurs. The average lifespan of an affected individual is reduced by 50% but is improving because of better recognition and management of cardiovascular abnormalities.

Bone density (choice A) is performed in conditions predisposing to secondary osteoporosis, including Cushing syndrome, thyrotoxicosis, hyperparathyroidism, malabsorption syndrome, and long-term steroid use. However, osteoporosis is not associated with Marfan syndrome.

CT scan of the pituitary stalk (choice B) is appropriate when evaluating for a pituitary tumor as the source of this child’s tall stature. It may also help in identifying a cause of precocious puberty. Most commonly, these pituitary tumors are growthhormone secreting tumors. However, this patient presents with the characteristic features of Marfan syndrome.

Dexamethasone suppression test (choice C) is the screening and confirmatory test of Cushing syndrome. Patients with Marfan syndrome are not at risk for Cushing syndrome.

Electrocardiogram (choice E) can identify changes in rhythm and electrical activity, ischemia, and muscular hypertrophy. However, it is not a good method of evaluating the risk for aortic root dilatation and dissection in Marfan syndrome patients.

Glucose tolerance test (choice F) is the screening test for diabetes of any cause. Although it is not associated with Marfan syndrome, it can be associated with conditions of growth-hormone hypersecretion (acromegaly and gigantism), Cushing disease, and thyrotoxicosis. Although this child is tall for her age, gigantism is not the cause.

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19
Q

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of recurrent headaches. The child feels nauseated before and during each attack, and derives some relief from lying down in a dark room. Noises, bright light, and fatigue seem to trigger the episodes. The child frequently complains of headaches at school, and his mother has been occasionally compelled to take him home. The mother is worried about the possibility of a serious illness. She reports that the child’s father has similar headaches. The child’s growth is normal, and a neurologic examination fails to reveal any abnormality. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Brain tumor
(B) Cluster headache
(C) Conduct disorder
(D) Migraine
(E) Tension headache

A

Respuesta: D

The correct answer is D. Migraine may affect children as well as adults. It is the most common cause of headaches in children. Migraine in children manifests with symptomatology similar to that observed in adult patients. Certain triggers are easily identified, such as loud noises, bright lights, stress, fatigue, caffeine-containing drinks, and some foods. Parent education on what is known about migraine etiology is essential in management. Treatment consists of the measures that the parents or patients themselves have found to provide relief, plus acetaminophen or a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) if such measures are insufficient. Ergotamine should be reserved for the most severe cases, and sumatriptan is not yet approved for use in children.

Brain tumor (choice A) is very unlikely in the presence of classic symptoms of migraine, as in this case. The manifestations of a brain tumor in children are usually accompanied by evidence of increased intracranial pressure.

Cluster headache (choice B) is extremely rare in childhood. It manifests as attacks of intense pain occurring at night and is often precipitated by alcohol consumption. Each attack lasts up to 2 hours and recurs daily for a period of up to 8 weeks. These periods are then followed by a headache-free interval that usually lasts 1 year.

Conduct disorder (choice C) is a childhood behavioral disorder that is similar to antisocial behavior disorder in adults. The child displays persistent patterns of aggression to animals or people, destruction of property, stealing, and opposition to parental guidance.

Tension headache (choice E) is the second most important cause of headache in children and is more common in adolescents. This form of headache manifests as a viselike tightness around the head and in the neck muscles. Tension headache is frequently a response to stress or fatigue.

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20
Q

A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F) at home, difficulty speaking, and odynophagia for 2 days. Physical examination reveals marked erythema of the right tonsil pillar and edema of the uvula with deviation to the left. In addition to anaerobic bacteria, which of the following organisms is most likely to be isolated from a tonsillar pillar aspirate?

(A) Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
(B) Enterococcus
(C) Haemophilus influenzae type b
(D) Staphylococcus aureus
(E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Respuesta: A

The correct answer is A. The probable diagnosis is peritonsillar abscess, which is the most common complication of pharyngitis or tonsillitis. Patients usually present with fever, dysphagia, and odynophagia (pain when swallowing). Drooling is common. Physical examination findings include erythema of the involved tonsillar pillar, edema of the pillar and soft palate, deviation of the uvula toward the contralateral side, and trismus. The tonsils may be inflamed and exudative. The most common organisms isolated from peritonsillar abscesses are beta-hemolytic streptococci (choice A) and anaerobic bacteria.

Haemophilus influenzae type b (choice C), Moraxella catarrhalis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are cultured less frequently. As is typical for most oral infections, mixed cultures are common.

Enterococci (choice B), Staphylococcus aureus (choice D), and Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice E) generally are not isolated. Treatment of peritonsillar abscess includes parenteral antibiotics that are active against anaerobes and streptococci, as well as drainage of the abscess. Penicillin remains the drug of choice. In patients who are allergic to penicillin, clindamycin or a cephalosporin can be used as an alternative with the addition of metronidazole. Needle aspiration of the abscess is usually performed in the emergency department. In those in whom needle aspiration fails, subsequent incision and drainage, or tonsillectomy may be necessary.

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21
Q

A term neonate is noted at birth to have multiple structural defects, many of which are midline in location. He has a bilateral cleft lip and palate, very small eyes with fissures of the iris, shallow supraorbital ridges, and slanted palpebral fissures. His ears are malformed and low set. Both hands have six fingers and a single simian crease, and his feet are shaped like the runner of a rocking chair. There is no family history of congenital abnormalities. At 1 month of age, he dies from heart failure. Which of the following neurologic abnormalities was likely to have been present in this infant?

(A) Anencephaly
(B) Encephalocele
(C) Hydranencephaly
(D) Holoprosencephaly
(E) Porencephaly

A

Respuesta: D

The correct answer is D. This is trisomy 13, also known as Patau syndrome. The presentation illustrated is typical. These infants usually die before 1 year of age from multiple congenital anomalies, particularly severe congenital heart defects. Patau syndrome is associated with holoprosencephaly due to a failure of forebrain development and consequent failure to form paired cerebral hemispheres. It is associated with midface developmental abnormalities. Other features include hyperconvex, narrow fingernails, scalp defects, abnormal genitalia, apneic spells, holoprosencephaly, and severe mental retardation.

Anencephaly (choice A) is a complete failure of higher brain structures to develop. It is accompanied by a grossly deformed head with virtually no cranial vault.

Encephalocele (choice B) is protrusion of brain and meninges due to a developmental defect in the skull.

Hydranencephaly (choice C) is an extreme form of porencephaly in which the cerebral hemispheres are destroyed. Unlike in anencephaly, the external head forms normally.

Porencephaly (choice E) is a cyst or cavity in the brain that communicates with the ventricles; it may occur as a developmental anomaly or secondary to inflammatory disease or a vascular accident.

22
Q

A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with generalized tonic-clonic seizures. On physical examination, the child is noted to be lethargic. His temperature is 37.4 C (99.3 F), blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 16/min. His oral mucosa is moist, and there is no peripheral edema. Laboratory tests show:

Blood:
* Sodium 120 mEq/L
* Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
* Chloride 96 mEq/L
* Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
* Blood urea nitrogen 9.6 mg/dL
* Creatinine 0.4 mg/dL
* Glucose 88 mg/dL

Urine:
* Sodium 55 mEq/L
* Potassium 16 mEq/L
* Osmolality 530 mOsmol/kg

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Acute renal failure
(B) Addison disease
(C) Congestive heart failure
(D) Hyponatremic dehydration
(E) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

A

Respuesta: E

The correct answer is E. Hyponatremia is clinically important because it can cause substantial morbidity and mortality. Although most cases are mild, hyponatremia can cause a generalized seizure. The diagnostic approach to hyponatremia should include a careful history (especially concerning medication), clinical assessment of the extracellular fluid (ECF) volume status, and a thorough neurologic evaluation. The differential diagnosis of hyponatremia is categorized into three different groups: hypovolemic hyponatremia, euvolemic hyponatremia, and hypervolemic hyponatremia. The ECF volume status of the boy in this clinical vignette appears to be euvolemic. There is no evidence of hypovolemia. His heart rate is normal, his oral mucosa is moist, and there is no evidence of hypervolemia. The differential diagnosis of euvolemic hyponatremia includes syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), glucocorticoid deficiency, hypothyroidism, and water intoxication. With such increased urinary sodium concentration (55 mEq/L) and concentrated urine (550 mOsmol/kg H2O), SIADH is the most likely explanation of the etiology of the hyponatremia in this child. In SIADH, the urine concentration is increased with respect to serum in the presence of normal renal function and the absence of dehydration. Patients have hyponatremia, normal potassium, concentrated urine, and urinary sodium concentration more than 20 mEq/L. Symptoms include nausea, irritability, loss of appetite, and lethargy. Stupor and seizures occur in severe hyponatremia. Since the underlying problem is retention of water rather than salt wasting, the treatment for SIADH is restriction of fluid.

The child’s renal function is normal, as evidenced by the normal blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels. Hyponatremia associated with acute renal failure (choice A) is usually hypervolemic, not euvolemic.

Addison disease (choice B) is adrenal insufficiency secondary to destruction of the adrenal cortex. The most common cause is an autoimmune destruction of the glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, acute adrenal hemorrhage, and congenital adrenal hypoplasia. Patients have hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypovolemia. In severe cases, severe hypotension and shock can occur.

In congestive heart failure (choice C), the heart fails to pump enough cardiac output to supply the body’s metabolic needs. Signs and symptoms include shortness of breath, lower extremity edema, increased jugular venous pressure, and volume overload. Hyponatremia is a commonly associated with metabolic abnormality.

The child in this clinical vignette has no signs of dehydration. Hyponatremic dehydration (choice D) is most commonly due to external losses of sodium through the gastrointestinal tract. Sodium deficit must be replaced over several days to avoid neurologic complications.

23
Q

A 1-month-old, previously healthy infant develops forceful projectile vomiting. No bile is seen in the vomitus. After the infant feeds, gastric peristaltic waves are visible crossing the epigastrium from left to right. Several minutes later, the projectile vomiting occurs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Diaphragmatic hernia
(B) Duodenal atresia
(C) Esophageal atresia
(D) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (E) Meconium plug syndrome

A

Respuesta: D

The correct answer is D. This infant has hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which is characterized by obstruction of the pyloric lumen by pyloric muscular hypertrophy. The hypertrophy develops after birth, and typically presents at 4-6 weeks of life. The presentation illustrated in the question stem is typical. The diagnosis can be confirmed by palpation of a 2- to 3-cm (“walnut-sized”) movable mass deep in the right side of the epigastrium. Ultrasound can also demonstrate the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Surgical correction is with pyloromyotomy, in which the gastric mucosa is left intact but the muscles of the pyloric areas are incised.

Diaphragmatic hernia (choice A), in which loops of bowel protrude into the chest cavity, produces respiratory distress with bowel sounds heard over the chest.

Duodenal atresia (choice B) also causes projectile vomiting in infants, but the vomitus is bile stained.

Esophageal atresia (choice C) causes regurgitation on feeding but not projectile vomiting.

Meconium plug syndrome (choice E) causes bowel obstruction in neonates.

24
Q

A 2-month-old girl presents to her pediatrician’s office for wellchild care. Her mother complains of excessive tearing of the baby’s left eye for the past 4 weeks. Each morning, a yellow crusty discharge is noted along the lashes of the left eye. The conjunctiva appears uninflamed. The right eye is not affected. On physical examination, the infant is otherwise well and achieving adequate weight gain on an exclusive breast milk diet. She is developmentally appropriate, including visually tracking 180 degrees. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Dacryostenosis
(B) Gonococcal conjunctivitis
(C) Normal infant eye
(D) Viral conjunctivitis
(E) Vitamin A deficiency

A

Respuesta: A

The correct answer is A. Dacryostenosis, or congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction, occurs in at least 6% of all newborns. It is characterized by unilateral tearing and yellow crusting of the eye each morning, sometimes so thick that the infant cannot open the eyelids. Although uncommon, dacryostenosis can be bilateral. Parents are advised to massage the inner canthus of the eye twice daily to encourage resolution of the obstruction. Resolution occurs by 1 year of age in 90% of infants.

Gonococcal conjunctivitis (choice B) is unlikely because perinatal transmission of gonococcus results in conjunctivitis several days after birth. Clinical findings include lid edema, purulent exudate, and corneal ulcerations. Early diagnosis requires Gram staining of the exudate.

Eye discharge is never a normal finding in infants, therefore choice C is incorrect.

Viral conjunctivitis (choice D) is unlikely without symptoms of upper respiratory infection, such as rhinorrhea, cough, fever, lethargy, or poor feeding. Eye involvement may begin unilaterally but progresses to bilateral involvement within 1-2 days. The major clinical finding is an inflamed or red conjunctiva.

In breast-fed infants, vitamin A deficiency (choice E) is extremely unlikely. The major clinical finding of avitaminosis is a thick and hazy cornea (keratomalacia). Bottle-fed infants are also unlikely to have vitamin A deficiency, since commercial formulas contain adequate daily allowances of essential vitamins if they are mixed to the correct concentration. Unfortunately, this is not always the case.

25
A term neonate is small for date and has a small head. Further physical examination of the infant demonstrates small eyes with short palpebral fissures, a flattened nose, and abnormal palmar creases. With which of the following maternal conditions is this presentation most likely associated? (A) Alcohol abuse (B) Cirrhosis (C) Cocaine abuse (D) Diabetes mellitus (E) Hypothyroidism
Respuesta: A The correct **answer is A**. Maternal alcohol abuse is a common cause of teratogenesis. The fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by potentially severe mental retardation secondary to impaired brain development. Other phenotypic features seen in severely affected infants include growth retardation, microcephaly, microphthalmia, short palpebral fissures, and midfacial hypoplasia. In addition, these infants may have abnormal palmar creases, cardiac defects, and joint contractures. Partial expression in mild cases is common and may make diagnosis difficult. Maternal cirrhosis (**choice B**) can decrease fertility and cause miscarriages and prematurity, but does not specifically cause fetal malformation. Maternal cocaine abuse (**choice C**) can cause spontaneous abortion, fetal death, placental abruption, low birth weight, reduced body length, and reduced head circumference. Maternal diabetes mellitus (**choice D**) can cause large-forgestational-age infants who tend to be hypoglycemic after birth. Maternal hypothyroidism (**choice E**) may worsen during pregnancy but usually does not produce prominent fetal effects.
26
A pediatrician is called to the delivery room because a full-term infant has developed cyanosis and respiratory distress immediately after birth. A brief examination of the infant reveals cyanosis on room air not completely relieved by oxygen administered by mask, subcostal and intercostal retractions, absent air entry on the left with audible bowel sounds in the left chest, and poor air entry on the right chest. The heart is best heard in the right hemithorax; the abdomen is flat without organomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (B) Hyaline membrane disease (C) Meconium aspiration (D) Pneumonia (E) Tracheoesophageal fistula
Respuesta: A The correct **answer is A**. Typically, the abdominal contents herniate into the left hemithorax. This causes displacement of the heart into the right hemithorax and pulmonary hypoplasia. If gas has entered the intestinal tract during resuscitation, bowel sounds may be heard in the chest. The displacement of the abdominal contents renders the abdomen flat. In cases of severe pulmonary hypoplasia, administration of oxygen results in only a poor improvement in oxygenation. Hyaline membrane disease (**choice B**) is uncommon, if not rare, in full-term infants. Occasionally this form of respiratory distress may occur in infants of diabetic women, but this history is absent in this case. Meconium aspiration (**choice C**) should be accompanied by a history of fetal stress, meconium-stained amniotic fluid, or meconium-staining of the skin and cord. Physical findings are symmetric, there is no displacement of the heart, and breath sounds are similar bilaterally. Pneumonia (**choice D**) in the neonate is usually due to either group B beta-hemolytic streptococci or Escherichia coli, accompanied by a history of maternal fever or prolonged rupture of the amniotic membranes. Breath sounds are symmetrically diminished. Tracheoesophageal fistula (**choice E**) usually presents with a history of polyhydramnios, cyanosis with feeding, and increased oropharyngeal secretions. It is unusual for this condition to present so soon after birth with severe respiratory distress.
27
A blood type B infant born to a blood type O mother has clinically significant fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility with mild anemia and a weakly positive Coombs test. The infant develops jaundice a few hours after birth, with a bilirubin (measured at 12 hours after birth) of 12 mg/dL (predominately unconjugated) compared with 3.5 mg/dL in cord blood. The physician is concerned that the rising bilirubin levels will damage the infant’s nervous system. Which of the following sites is most vulnerable to this injury? (A) Basal ganglia (B) Cerebellum (C) Cerebral cortex (D) Peripheral nerve (E) Spinal cord
Respuesta: A The correct **answer is A**. The term kernicterus is used to denote damage to the brain by high bilirubin levels in the perinatal period. The fetal liver is less efficient at conjugating bilirubin compared with the adult liver, and neonates are consequently prone to develop hyperbilirubinemia, particularly unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. In most cases, there are predisposing conditions, such as hemolytic anemia, polycythemia, prematurity, maternal diabetes, congenital liver or biliary tract disease, sepsis, or intrauterine infections. In contrast to what you might except, the bilirubin is not uniformly poisonous to the nervous system, but instead selectively accumulates in, damages, and stains the basal ganglia and the brain stem nuclei. Early symptoms may include lethargy, poor feeding, and vomiting. Severe kernicterus can cause opisthotonos, oculogyric crisis, seizures, and even death. The cerebellum (**choice B**), cerebral cortex (**choice C**), peripheral nerve (**choice D**), and spinal cord (**choice E**) are all much less sensitive to damage by high bilirubin levels than are the basal ganglia and brain stem nuclei.
28
Within 8 hours after birth, an infant has “excessive salivation.” Physical examination reveals that she has an imperforate anus, with a small fistula to the vagina. A small, soft nasogastric tube is inserted, and the infant is taken to x-ray. The film shows the tube coiled back on itself in the upper chest, and a normal gas pattern in the gastrointestinal tract. There are no apparent abnormalities of the radius or the vertebral bodies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? (A) Renal sonogram and echocardiogram (B) Barium swallow (C) Placement of a gastrostomy tube (D) Diverting colostomy (E) Surgical repair of esophageal atresia
Respuesta: A The correct **answer is A**. This infant already has evidence of imperforate anus and tracheoesophageal fistula with the most common configuration (blind esophageal end at the top, and fistula to the tracheobronchial tree at the bottom-that is how gas got into the gastrointestinal tract). Those two anomalies are part of the VACTERL constellation (vertebral, anal, cardiac, tracheoesophageal, renal, and limb abnormalities). The x-ray already ruled out vertebral and radial anomalies, but we still have to rule out cardiac and renal anomalies. For that reason, the infant needs the renal sonogram and the echocardiogram. No surgical repair should be planned until we know the full extent of the problem. Barium swallow (**choice B**) is not the first thing we need. If further definition of the esophageal anomaly is desired, a more gentle medium (Gastrografin) should be used to avoid aspiration of barium. Gastrostomy (**choice C**) may very well be needed if the full extent of the anomalies delays repair of the tracheoesophageal fistula. Reflux of gastric contents into the tracheobronchial tree will produce chemical damage. However, it does not take that long to do a sonogram of the kidney and an echocardiogram, and if they are negative, repair of the tracheoesophageal anomaly may be undertaken at once. Colostomy (**choice D**) is not urgent, because there is a fistula from the end of the gastrointestinal tract to the vagina. A decision as to the type of repair possible now, or to be deferred until later can be made at leisure. Surgical repair (**choice E**) has to wait until we know the full extent of the anomalies. The idea that diagnosis must precede therapy is well illustrated in this case
29
An 8-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician’s office for evaluation of new onset swelling around the eyes. Physical examination reveals periorbital, sacral, and pretibial edema; her blood pressure is 96/64 mm Hg. The rest of her physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study? (A) Levels of liver enzymes (B) Radiography of the chest (C) Transthoracic echocardiography (D) Ultrasonography of the kidneys (E) Urinalysis
Respuesta: E The correct **answer is E**. Apparently, the girl in this clinical vignette has generalized edema (i.e., anasarca). The most common causes of swelling are nephrotic syndrome, congestive heart failure, and liver disease. Other causes include hypothyroidism, shock, mineralocorticoid excess, and malnutrition. Since there is no evidence of any abnormal cardiac or hepatic findings, urinalysisis the most appropriate initial diagnostic test to screen for proteinuria. In children with nephrotic syndrome, albumin (a serum protein) is lost in the urine and hence causes the oncotic pressure inside the vessels to decrease. Fluid there shifts from the intravascular space into the interstitial space, causing generalized edema. Liver enzymes (**choice A**), chest radiographs (**choice B**), echocardiography (**choice C**), and kidney ultrasound (**choice D**) are not indicated in this case as the initial diagnostic test.
30
A 3-month-old girl is brought to the pediatrician for a scheduled visit. She has been meeting all development milestones but has been vomiting after each feeding. The infant weighed 3 kg (6 lb 10 oz) at birth and now weighs 6 kg (13 lb 3 oz). She does not have diarrhea and is afebrile. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s vomiting? (A) Adrenogenital syndrome (B) Child abuse (C) Inborn error of metabolism (D) Overfeeding (E) Pyloric stenosis
Respuesta: D The correct **answer is D**. Usually, infants gain an ounce/day during the first 4 months of life. Those who gain more than this and are spitting up are probably being overfed. Adrenogenital syndrome (**choice A**), or congenital adrenal hyperplasia, presents in the first week of life with metabolic abnormalities and results in poor weight gain. Children being abused (**choice B**) would probably not be overfed. Inborn errors of metabolism (**choice C**) present in the first weeks of life and generally lead to poor weight gain. Pyloric stenosis (**choice E**) typically presents with projectile vomiting at 2 weeks of age. It is more common in boys.
31
A neonate is noted to have aniridia of the right eye on physical examination. He was born by spontaneous vaginal delivery after an uncomplicated full-term pregnancy. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step before the infant is released from the hospital? (A) An abdominal ultrasound (B) An echocardiogram (C) A neurology consult (D) A rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) test (E) IV antibiotics
Respuesta: A The correct **answer is A**. Aniridia describes the absence of an iris. It can be inherited as an autosomal dominant trait or it can occur sporadically. Approximately one third of sporadic cases are associated with Wilms tumor. Hemihypertrophy is also associated with Wilms tumor in some individuals. It is important to obtain an abdominal ultrasound to investigate for renal abnormalities or Wilms tumor in such cases. An echocardiogram (**choice B**) is not indicated. A neurology consult (**choice C**) is not required because aniridia and Wilms tumor are not associated with acute nervous system disease. An ophthalmology consult would be more appropriate. A rapid plasmin reagin (RPR) test (**choice D**) is not warranted because syphilis is not suggested by the clinical findings or history. Neurosyphilis is associated with the Argyll-Robertson pupil, which irregularly shaped and nonreactive to light. IV antibiotics (**choice E**) are not indicated because aniridia is not associated with in utero or perinatal infection.
32
A 3-day-old, full-term baby boy is brought into the emergency department because of feeding intolerance and bilious vomiting. Xrays films show multiple dilated loops of small bowel and a “ground glass” appearance in the lower abdomen. The mother has cystic fibrosis. Which of the following diagnostic tests would also have therapeutic value? (A) Barium enema (B) Gastrografin enema (C) Colonoscopy (D) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) (E) Full thickness rectal biopsy
Respuesta: B The correct **answer is B**. Anytime you see an infant with abdominal difficulties plus cystic fibrosis, think of meconium ileus. The vignette did not say that this infant had cystic fibrosis (he has not been diagnosed yet; he is only 3 days old), but the mother provides the connection. A Gastrografin enema will show the unused microcolon and the pellets of inspissated meconium higher up. As the hypertonic solution of Gastrografin draws water into the lumen, the inspissated meconium will be diluted and "unplugged.” More complete diagnostic steps and treatment for the cystic fibrosis will follow. Barium enema (**choice A**) is a tantalizing distracter because it also serves double duty as diagnosis and therapy, but not in this condition. It does so in intussusception, which we see in chubby 2- year-olds with colicky pain and the famous “currant jelly stool,” not in the newborn. Colonoscopy (**choice C**) can also do double duty, but it does so in Ogilvie syndrome, the paralytic ileus of the colon that we see in old, immobilized people. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP; **choice D**) is also a diagnostic test with therapeutic value, but its role is in clearing up an obstructed biliary tract. And as for rectal biopsy (**choice E**), save it for the infant suspected of having aganglionic megacolon; it will give you the diagnosis but will not help with the therapy.
33
A 17-year-old girl presents with a 4-week history of intermittent fever, increasing fatigue, generalized myalgia, and swelling of both her knees and ankles. There is a fine erythematous rash on her back, and she has swollen knees and ankles; the remainder of her physical examination is unremarkable. Initial laboratory evaluation shows: * Leukocytes 11,400 cells/mm3 * Hemoglobin 8.8 g/dL * Blood urea nitrogen 4 mg/dL * Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL * Glucose 98 mg/dL * C3 complement 36 mg/dL (normal >80 mg/dL) * Antinuclear antibody titer 1:3200 * Anti-double-stranded DNA titer 1:640 * Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies Negative Urinalysis * Moderate hematuria (50 RBC/hpf) * Moderate proteinuria (400 mg/dL) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Giant cell arteritis (B) Henoch-Schönlein purpura (C) Polyarteritis nodosa (D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (E) Wegener granulomatosis
Respuesta: D The correct **answer is D**. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a multisystemic rheumatologic disease. Its major clinical manifestations include fever, malaise, arthritis, arthralgia, and rash. Anorexia and weight loss are also common. The malar butterfly rash on the face that extends over the bridge of the nose, but spares the nasolabial fold, is very characteristic but is not present in all patients with SLE. Raynaud phenomenon, polyserositis, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and renal disease also are frequently associated with SLE. Antinuclear antibodies are found in 97% of patients with SLE, but this finding lacks specificity. Antibodies to double-stranded DNA are more specific, and are elevated in active disease. Complement C3 and C4 levels are decreased in patients with active SLE. The American Rheumatism Association has published the criteria for the diagnosis of SLE. At least 4 of the 11 criteria must be met to diagnose SLE. These criteria can be remembered by a mnemonic SOAP BRAIN MD: Serositis, Oral ulcers, Arthritis, Photosensitivity, Blood (hemolytic anemia, leukopenia, lymphopenia, or thrombocytopenia), Renal (proteinuria or cellular cast), ANA, Immunologic (positive LE preparation, antibody to doublestranded DNA, antibody to Sm antigen), Neurologic (seizure or psychosis), Malar rash, Discoid lupus Giant cell arteritis (**choice A**), also known as Takayasu arteritis, primarily affects the aorta and other large arteries. Symptoms include fever, anorexia, weight loss, and arthritis. Laboratory findings include increased sedimentation rate, weakly positive antinuclear antibody titer, and anti-aorta antibodies. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (**choice B**) is a vasculitis of unknown etiology that occurs most commonly in boys aged between 2 and 8 years. It is characterized by nonthrombocytopenic, palpable purpuras, most commonly in shins, lower extremities, and buttocks. The syndrome also includes arthritis, abdominal pain, and nephritis. The prognosis is good in the absence of significant renal complications. Polyarteritis nodosa (**choice C**) is a vasculitis that affects small and medium-sized arteries. It can present with diverse symptoms such as fever, malaise, arthritis, abdominal pain, rash, kidney disorder, ischemic heart pain, testicular pain, peripheral nervous system disorders, lethargy, and weight loss. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies with peripheral staining (p-ANCA) are positive. Complement levels are normal. Wegener granulomatosis (choice E) is characterized by necrotizing granulomatous lesions of the entire respiratory system (airways and lungs). It is also associated with glomerulonephritis. The triad of sinusitis, pulmonary involvement, and glomerulonephritis suggests the diagnosis.
34
A 3-year-old boy is admitted for seizure-like activity. He has been a healthy child and has been meeting all development milestones. His immunization schedule is up-to-date. Examination is notable for an erythematous throat and fever. His convulsions require IV administration of a benzodiazepine. Serum analysis reveals a normal white cell count with mild basophilic stippling. The lumbar puncture reveals elevated CSF pressure. Head CT scan is notable for cerebral edema. Which of the following is the next diagnostic step? (A) Antistreptolysin O titer (B) Electroencephalography (C) Protoporphyrin level (D) Rapid slide (Monospot) test (E) Spinal fluid culture
Repuesta: C The correct **answer is C**. In the differential diagnosis of acute cerebral edema with convulsions in a child, ingestion of toxic substances, including lead, must be considered early. Lead toxicity is high on the differential, but a history of pica may not be elicited, and basophilic stippling and lead lines may be absent. A lead level is difficult to obtain quickly; however, a free protoporphyrin level may be obtained expediently and is an indication of lead toxicity. Biochemical evidence of lead toxicity includes elevations of blood lead and signs of interference with hemoglobin synthesis, such as an increase in free erythrocyte protoporphyrin. A positive antistreptolysin O level (**choice A**) is evidence of an infection with Streptococcus. Poststrep-tococcal glomerulonephritis is a frequent cause of the nephritic syndrome in young children, but there is no evidence of a nephritic syndrome, and antistreptolysin O titer is unlikely to be helpful. Electroencephalography (**choice B**) may be helpful to study seizure activity if the initial work-up is negative. Sharp delta waves on the EEG will be indicative of seizure activity. The patient’s white count is normal, and the Monospot test (**choice D**), is unlikely to be helpful. Heterophil antibody kits such as the Monospot test is simple and fairly sensitive. This antibody can reach high titers in patients who have infectious mononucleosis and will cause sheep erythrocytes to agglutinate. Meningitis must be considered, but the possibility of lead poisoning is more important in this case, given the history and the finding of basophilic stippling. Bacterial meningitis is always high on the differential in such situations, and, if the answer is not obtained promptly, a lumbar puncture for cell count should be done and fluid should be cultured (**choice E**) before presumptive antibiotics are started.
35
A 2-week postmature neonate exhibits severe respiratory distress immediately after birth. Previously, green-tinged meconium was noted in the amniotic fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? (A) Chest x-ray (B) Suctioning of the mouth and nasopharynx (C) Oxygen supplementation by face mask (D) Intubation with mechanical ventilation (E) Emergency tracheostomy
Respuesta: B The correct **answer is B**. Meconium is the fetal stool, which is mostly composed of desquamated cells from the gastrointestinal tract admixed with enough bile to give the soft stool a greenish color. A distressed fetus will pass meconium into the amniotic fluid and then may aspirate it. These infants often have placental insufficiency as a result of conditions such as maternal preeclampsia, hypertension, or postmaturity. The aspirated meconium is very irritating to the lungs and causes a chemical pneumonitis. Postmature infants are particularly likely to have severe problems, because the meconium is diluted much less in their small amniotic fluid volume. The most important initial step in therapy is prompt suction of the nasopharynx and mouth to remove the meconium before more (or even any) is aspirated. This can be performed even before the infant is fully delivered, as soon as a head coated with meconium emerges from the birth canal. Neither chest x-ray (**choice A**) nor emergency tracheostomy (**choice E**) is warranted at this point. Oxygen supplementation by face mask (**choice C**) is deferred until after the nasopharynx and mouth are cleared of meconium. Intubation with mechanical ventilation (**choice D**) may become necessary if oxygen supplementation by facemask is unsuccessful.
36
A 29-year-old woman presents to the delivery room in labor at 35 weeks’ gestation with a temperature of 40.0 C (104.0 F). She lives on a dairy farm and is in the habit of drinking unpasteurized milk from her cows before sending it to the dairy. For the past 3 days she has been unable to attend to her chores because of fever, headache, mild diarrhea, and a general feeling of illness. When her amniotic membranes rupture, the fluid is dark, cloudy, and brownish-green. At birth, the infant has no malformations or edema, but is in severe respiratory distress. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Congenital syphilis (B) Congenital toxoplasmosis (C) Fetal hydrops (D) Neonatal herpes (E) Neonatal listeriosis
Respuesta: E The correct **answer is E**. Neonatal listeriosis presents soon after birth, usually within 5 days. The usual neonatal presentation is predominantly that of respiratory distress. Late-onset neonatal listeriosis is more likely to present with meningitis. Maternal infection is commonly acquired by contact with unpasteurized milk (mother works on a farm and drinks unprocessed milk), soft cheeses, deli meats such as hot dogs and pâté, undercooked vegetables, and undercooked poultry. Typical symptoms in adults (exhibited by the mother) include fever, diarrhea, malaise, and a flulike illness. Once maternal infection has been acquired, it can be transmitted to the fetus either vaginally or transplacentally. Amniotic fluid is often cloudy and discolored. Mothers with syphilis (**choice A**) typically have a history of chancre or rash. Discolored amniotic fluid, acute fever, and diarrheal illness are not typical. Severely affected infants may have pneumonia and hepatosplenomegaly. A symptomatic infant with congenital toxoplasmosis (**choice B**) may display such signs as hydrocephalus, microcephaly, cataracts, hepatosplenomegaly, and a petechial and/or “blueberry muffin” rash. Respiratory distress is rare. Fetal hydrops (**choice C**) is a nonspecific finding that can occur in a wide variety of conditions resulting in severe edema of the fetus. These include in utero heart failure, severe anemia, and intrauterine viral or spirochetal infection. In the present case, a typical maternal history compatible with listerial infection is obtained and no other blood or cardiac anomalies are present. Neonatal herpes (**choice D**) can present with general collapse (associated with severe respiratory distress or liver failure), or as localized disease, including meningitis, ophthalmitis, or rash. The rash in infants is vesicular in its early stages, becoming crusted as the illness progresses. Many mothers do not have symptoms during their first infection; thus, a typical history of maternal genital herpes is not obtained in 70 to 90% of cases. However, the typical prodrome of listerial infection in the mother and lack of signs of neonatal herpes in either the mother or infant make this infection less likely
37
A 5-year-old girl is brought to medical attention by her parents 12 hours after the onset of generalized tonicclonic seizures. She never had similar episodes in the past. The girl is otherwise healthy. Her temperature is 37.0 C (98.6 F). Physical examination is unremarkable. There is no evidence that the girl had a fever at the onset of the convulsive episode. The parents fear that seizures may damage the child’s brain and may eventually recur. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? (A) Provide reassurance to child and family (B) Admit patient to the hospital for further evaluation (C) Perform electroencephalographic studies (D) Perform CT/MRI studies of the brain (E) Start antiepileptic medication
Respuesta: A The correct **answer is A**. After a first seizure, there is a high likelihood (approximately 60 to 70%) that a child will not experience another seizure episode again. Extensive laboratory examination and hospital admission (**choice B**) are not necessary, unless physical examination reveals some organic disease that may be related to the onset of the seizure. However, the majority of seizures of new onset are idiopathic, i.e., no cause can be identified with the commonly available diagnostic tools. Children developing a first-time seizure do not need antiepileptic drugs. Furthermore, approximately two thirds of children who develop a second episode will not have additional seizures. Medication may reduce the risk of having a second or third episode but does not affect the long-term outcome, i.e., the probability that a patient will be seizure-free 2-3 years after the first seizure. Thus, the only measure to take in this situation is to provide reassurance to both patient and family by explaining that the child probably will not have any other seizures and that isolated seizures do not cause any damage to the brain. Electroencephalographic (EEG) studies (**choice C**) would most likely yield no information. In fact, there is not a single test that can diagnose or rule out epilepsy. In addition, continuous EEG monitoring with or without video-monitoring is very expensive. It is indicated only when seizures are frequent during the day and it is necessary to establish a relationship between neurologic manifestations and abnormal electrical activity. CT/MRI studies of the brain (**choice D**) are rarely necessary after a single episode, unless there is some clinical evidence suggesting a focal intracranial lesion. Starting antiepileptic medication (**choice E**) would be unnecessary following a first episode. In fact, there is still controversy whether it should be started even after a second episode (that is, once a diagnosis of epilepsy is made).
38
A neonate is markedly edematous and dies 1 hour after birth. A diagnosis of hydrops fetalis is made after the hematocrit on cord blood is demonstrated to be 5%. The erythrocytes in a smear from the cord blood are markedly hypochromatic. The mother is Rh positive and is known to have alpha-thalassemia trait. The thalassemia status of the father is unknown. Alpha-thalassemia is the suspected cause of the infant’s hydrops. Which of the following hemoglobins would most likely be markedly elevated in this infant’s blood if this diagnosis were correct? (A) HbBarts (B) HbC (C) HbGlower 2 (D) HbH (E) HbS
Respuesta: A The correct **answer is A**. The thalassemias are due to inadequate production of alpha or beta hemoglobin chains. The genes coding for the alpha chain have been duplicated, producing a total of four copies. If all four alpha genes are normal, or if three are normal and one is thalassemic, the person is clinically normal. If two are abnormal, the person has alpha-thalassemia trait with mild hypochromic anemia. If three are abnormal, the patient has HbH disease with hemolytic disease. If all four are abnormal, hydrops fetalis, clinically similar to that produced by Rh disease, is produced. Newborns with alphathalassemia trait, HbH disease, or hydrops fetalis produce HbBarts, which corresponds to a tetramer of four gamma chains. Adults with HbH disease, and sometimes those with alpha-thalassemia trait, produce HbH, a tetramer of four beta chains. HbC (**choice B**) is an abnormal hemoglobin that, like HbS, can be associated with variable degrees of anemia. HbGlower 2 (**choice C**) is a hemoglobin present in first trimester embryos. HbH (**choice D**) is seen in adults with alpha-thalassemia (three abnormal genes), but is made in infants. HbS (**choice E**) is associated with sickle cell anemia and trait.
39
A 1-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother because the child’s “eyes and feet are dancing.” On physical examination, the girl is well developed and in no acute distress. Her temperature 37.0 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 100/55 mm Hg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 20/min. The patient has opsoclonus, myoclonus, and ptosis of the right eye. On history, the mother notes the child was born “looking like a blueberry muffin” and has had a persistent cough since the age of 2 months. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Astrocytoma (B) Glioblastoma multiforme (C) Hyperthyroidism (D) Neuroblastoma (E) Wilms tumor
Respuesta: D The correct **answer is D**. Neuroblastoma arises from neural crest tissue and occurs in infancy. It is the most common solid tumor in children other than brain tumors. Eighty-five percent of neuroblastoma cases are diagnosed in children younger than 2 years. The clinical presentation varies with the tumor’s location. Common signs and symptoms include asymptomatic abdominal mass, Horner syndrome, persistent cough, superior vena cava syndrome, bone pain, cord compression, subcutaneous nodules (“blueberry muffin” lesions), hypertension, opsoclonus (“dancing eyes”), and myoclonus (“dancing feet”). Astrocytoma (**choice A**) and glioblastoma multiforme (**choice B**) are intracranial tumors and are therefore incorrect. The typical presentation of a brain tumor is early morning headache and vomiting, ataxia, cranial nerve palsies, nystagmus, and papilledema. Hyperthyroidism (**choice C**) does not cause opsoclonus or myoclonus, although it can cause tremor. Other typical features in children are irritability, excessive appetite, weight loss, increased perspiration, tachycardia, and goiter. Of note, hyperthyroidism occurs most frequently in children aged 12-14 years; only 2% of patients present before 10 years of age. Wilms tumor (**choice E**) occurs in the metanephric cells in the kidney. It is not associated with nervous system involvement.
40
An otherwise healthy 13-year-old boy has seasonal allergic rhinitis. He complains of excessive rhinorrhea, frequent sneezing, and nasal congestion. He has a nasal voice and breathes with his mouth. He derives some relief from keeping windows closed at home and spending as little time as possible outdoors in periods of high pollen concentration. However, he is excessively bothered by nasal congestion. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in relieving nasal congestion? (A) Alpha-adrenergic agents such as phenylephrine (B) Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine (C) Antihistamines such as loratadine (D) Cromoglycate or similar mast cell stabilizers (E) Ipratropium bromide
Respuesta: A The correct **answer is A**. Nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sneezing, and itchy nose and eyes are the most characteristic manifestations of allergic rhinitis, whether due to seasonal or perennial triggers. Nasal congestion can be particularly bothersome to patients with this condition. It is due to edema of the nasal mucosa, with resultant narrowing of the nasal passages. Patients are forced to breathe through their mouth, causing nasal speech and snoring. Over time, children will acquire what is known as “adenoidal facies,” with flat malar eminences, narrow maxillae, and an arched palate. Pharmacotherapy becomes necessary if avoidance of allergens is not feasible or sufficient to provide satisfactory relief. Alpha-adrenergic drugs, such as phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine, are most effective in relieving nasal congestion because of their vasoconstricting action. Two important side effects are rebound congestion and rhinitis medicamentosa. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine (**choice B**), i.e., firstgeneration antihistamines, are useful in treating symptoms of rhinitis, especially sneezing, rhinorrhea, and itching, but are less effective in preventing congestion. These drugs cause sedation and anticholinergic side effects. Antihistamines such as loratadine (**choice C**), i.e., second-generation antihistamines, do not cause sedation and have therapeutic effects similar to first-generation antihistamines. Cromoglycate, or similar mast cell stabilizers (**choice D**), have therapeutic effects comparable to antihistamines but are not useful in relieving nasal congestion. These drugs are most effective when administered prior to allergen exposure. Ipratropium bromide (**choice E**) is an anticholinergic agent that blocks cholinergic-mediated mucus secretion and vasodilatation. It can prevent rhinorrhea but is less effective for congestion.
41
A 1-month-old infant is seen in a well-baby clinic. The mother states that the baby is constipated and feeds poorly. On examination, he is jaundiced, exhibits poor muscle tone, and has a large posterior fontanelle and an umbilical hernia. He has gained only 300 g since discharge from the normal newborn nursery. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (B) Biliary atresia (C) Congenital hypothyroidism (D) Congenital myasthenia gravis (E) Pyloric stenosis (F) Syphilis (G) Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
Respuesta: C The correct **answer is C.** Typical findings of congenital hypothyroidism include constipation (35%), prolonged jaundice (75%), failure to thrive (35%), an enlarged fontanel (33%), and an umbilical hernia (50%). This constellation of findings is typical of the month-old hypothyroid patient. Alpha- 1-antitrypsin deficiency (**choice A**) is an uncommon cause of prolonged jaundice in the neonate. About 10% of infants with this condition present with prolonged neonatal jaundice. It is usually associated with increased conjugated bilirubin. Constipation is not a common feature of this illness in the infant. Biliary atresia (**choice B**) presents with prolonged jaundice, but is accompanied by pale (acholic) stools. Hepatomegaly and increased venous patterning over the abdomen will appear later. Congenital myasthenia gravis (**choice D**) is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction with heterogenous causes and which presents with hypotonia at or close to birth. Fatigable muscle weakness is seen most often in the ocular, bulbar, respiratory, and limbs. Deep tendon reflexes are reduced. A decremental repetitive stimulation response is found. Acetylcholine-receptor antibody tests are negative. Although infants with pyloric stenosis (**choice E**) are often jaundiced, the classic intestinal symptom is projectile vomiting after feedings without any of the other physical signs mentioned. Stool color and consistency are generally unremarkable. Syphilis (**choice F**) is accompanied by hepato-splenomegaly, a rash, and an elevated direct bilirubin. Infants may also develop “snuffles,” a persistent watery to mucoid nasal discharge. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease (**choice G**) is a form of spinal muscular atrophy. The earliest feature may be decreased fetal movements during late pregnancy. Despite being alert, the infant is floppy and weak at birth. The weakness is maximal in the shoulder and hip girdle muscles. Muscle fasciculation, especially of the tongue, may be seen. Other features of the disease include deformed chest with seesaw respiration, frog-leg position of the limbs, and absent reflexes.
42
A 1-month-old infant is seen in a well-baby clinic. The mother states that the baby is constipated and feeds poorly. On examination, he is jaundiced, exhibits poor muscle tone, and has a large posterior fontanelle and an umbilical hernia. He has gained only 300 g since discharge from the normal newborn nursery. Which of the following would be the most appropriate diagnostic study in this infant? (A) Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (B) Barium swallow (C) Liver and spleen scan (D) Measurements of T4 and TSH levels (E) Muscle biopsy (F) RPR and FTA for syphilis
Respuesta: D The correct **answer is D**. Measurements of T4 and TSH levels are the most appropriate tests to confirm congenital hypothyroidism. Alpha-1-antitrypsin genotyping (**choice A**) is used to confirm alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. Barium swallow (**choice B**) will indicate the presence of pyloric stenosis (“string” sign = narrowing of barium stream passing through the duodenum; “umbrella” sign = the holdup of barium in the stomach). A liver and spleen scan (**choice C**) is useful to indicate the absence of the biliary tree or blockage of the extrahepatic bile ducts and is therefore most useful to confirm biliary atresia. Muscle biopsy (**choice E**) is used to diagnose myopathic conditions, including Werdnig-Hoffmann disease, muscular dystrophy, and metabolic inclusion diseases. The RPR and FTA (**choice F**) are serologic tests for syphilis.
43
A 10-month-old girl is seen in the clinic for a routine checkup. She weighs 10 kg (22 lb) and is 72 cm tall. The mother reports that the infant takes solid foods poorly. Therefore, she is supplementing solid foods with whole cow milk because she can no longer produce breast milk. The mother notes that the infant has increasing lethargy and exhibits less activity compared with other children of the same age. The infant has had three upper respiratory tract infections and one episode of acute otitis media. She is otherwise sleeping well and has met developmental milestones appropriate for her age. On examination, she is found to have pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, good muscle tone, and normal neurologic function. Routine urinalysis is normal, and a peripheral blood smear shows microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells. Complete blood count shows the following: * Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 77 fl * Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) 27 g/dL * Platelet count 445,000/μL * Hematocrit 30% * Red cell distribution width 16.5 Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s anemia? (A) Acute myelogenous leukemia (B) Chronic disease (C) Glucose 6-phosphate deficiency (G6PD) (D) Hookworm infection (E) Hypothyroidism (F) Nutritional folic acid deficiency (G) Nutritional iron deficiency
Respuesta: G The correct **answer is G**. The search for a cause of anemia is important in children because it can result in diminished bone growth and learning. Nutritional anemia is the most common anemia in infants of this age. Infants consuming cow milk have a greater incidence of iron deficiency because bovine milk has a higher concentration of calcium, which competes for iron absorption. The major physical finding is pallor. Infants may also be lethargic, irritable, and tired easily. Classic peripheral blood smear findings are described here, and a cell blood count (CBC) characteristically shows decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC). Diagnosis can be further confirmed with iron studies, TIBC, and serum ferritin. Acute myelogenous leukemia (**choice A**) results in pancytopenia due to bone marrow failure. Neoplastic proliferation of blast cells occurs in the bone marrow and presents clinically with anemia, bleeding, fatigue, nonspecific body aches, and vulnerability to infection. Pancytopenia with circulating blasts is characteristically found on peripheral blood smear. Anemia of chronic disease (**choice B**) can impair erythropoietin production, resulting in decreased red cell production. A normocytic, normochromic pattern is seen on peripheral blood smear and CBC. Red cell destruction, as seen in glucose 6-phosphate (G6PD) deficiency (**choice C**), can be the cause of anemia. G6PD is a red cell enzyme abnormality that causes intrinsic hemolysis of red blood cells. Bite cells are usually seen on peripheral blood smear. Anemia due to blood loss can be seen in hookworm infections (**choice D**). Although the anemia found in hookworm infection is due to the loss of bleeding and ultimately iron deficiency, there is nothing in the history to suggest a hookworm infection in this child. The most likely cause of the anemia is the ingestion of whole cow milk that results in the inadequate absorption of nutritional iron. Hypothyroidism (**choice E**) can cause normochromic, normocytic anemia. Infants with hypothyroidism present with cretinism, whereas children may show lethargy, constipation, dry skin, and mental retardation. Folic acid deficiency (**choice F**) is a cause of megaloblastic anemia when there is insufficient leafy vegetables in the diet. However, the peripheral blood smear and CBC findings in this case reveal a microcytic anemia.
44
A 10-month-old girl is seen in the clinic for a routine checkup. She weighs 10 kg (22 lb) and is 72 cm tall. The mother reports that the infant takes solid foods poorly. Therefore, she is supplementing solid foods with whole cow milk because she can no longer produce breast milk. The mother notes that the infant has increasing lethargy and exhibits less activity compared with other children of the same age. The infant has had three upper respiratory tract infections and one episode of acute otitis media. She is otherwise sleeping well and has met developmental milestones appropriate for her age. On examination, she is found to have pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, good muscle tone, and normal neurologic function. Routine urinalysis is normal, and a peripheral blood smear shows microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells. Complete blood count shows the following: * Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 77 fl * Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) 27 g/dL * Platelet count 445,000/μL * Hematocrit 30% * Red cell distribution width 16.5 Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? (A) Antibiotic therapy (B) Bone marrow biopsy (C) Dietary advice and oral iron treatment (D) Red cell enzyme studies (E) Thyroid studies
Respuesta: C The correct **answer is C**. Because the most likely clinical diagnosis at this time is iron deficiency anemia, it would be appropriate to offer dietary advice (iron-fortified cereal, meat, green vegetables, egg yolk) and provide supplemental iron in the form of drops. A reticulocytosis typically occurs with a peak response in 5 to 7 days, followed by an increase in hemoglobin over the next 1 to 4 weeks. This treatment is both diagnostic and therapeutic. Antibiotic therapy (**choice A**) may also be used in hookworm infections to prevent further loss of blood and may be useful in the treatment of other concurrent infections, but it will have no effect in this child’s nutritional iron deficiency anemia due to cow milk ingestion. Bone marrow biopsy (**choice B**) is helpful in evaluating the presence of malignant cells and bone marrow failure, in the case of leukemia. Red cell enzyme studies (**choice D**) are used to diagnose glucose 6- phosphate (G6PD) deficiency and pyruvate kinase as the cause of intrinsic hemolysis and subsequent anemia. Thyroid studies (**choice E**) can diagnose hypothyroidism as a cause of anemia. However, clinical and laboratory features of this child’s anemia suggest nutritional iron deficiency.
45
A community pediatrician is called to the delivery of an infant girl experiencing fetal distress. After a vaginal delivery with vacuum assist, the infant cries spontaneously but remains acrocyanotic, despite supplemental oxygen delivered by mask. The girl is hypotonic and moves her extremities only in response to noxious stimuli. Physical examination reveals an open mouth with a protruding tongue, upslanting palpebral fissures, low-set ears, and a simian crease across both palms. (A) Aortic insufficiency (B) Coarctation of the aorta (C) Complex congenital heart disease (D) Congenital heart block (E) Conotruncal abnormalities (F) Dextrocardia (G) Endocardial cushion defects (H) Patent ductus arteriosus (I) Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Respuesta: G The correct **answer is G**. Approximately 50% of children with Down syndrome are born with endocardial cushion defects, such as ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, or complete atrioventricular canal defect. Aortic insufficiency (**choice A**) is associated with Marfan syndrome. Aortic dissections are also seen in this condition and can be lethal. Coarctation of the aorta (**choice B**) is seen in 35% of patients with Turner syndrome. Complex congenital heart defects (**choice C**) is too broad an answer choice and cannot be correlated with one congenital syndrome in particular. Congenital heart block (**choice D**) can occur in infants born to mothers with systemic lupus erythematosus. Dextrocardia (**choice F**) is a common finding in patients with Kartagener syndrome. Patent ductus arteriosus (**choice H**) can be seen in infants with congenital rubella infection. However, it is usually the result of prematurity, sepsis, metabolic acidosis, or pulmonary defects not associated with congenital syndromes.
46
A 5-year-old girl is referred by her pediatrician to a cardiologist for a newly diagnosed heart murmur. The child is short and overweight, with pointed ears. She has an outgoing and friendly personality, talking to everyone she meets. Her mother describes her as having a “cocktail-party personality.” Her medical history is significant for renal stones diagnosed at 10 months of age. (A) Aortic insufficiency (B) Coarctation of the aorta (C) Complex congenital heart disease (D) Congenital heart block (E) Conotruncal abnormalities (F) Dextrocardia (G) Endocardial cushion defects (H) Patent ductus arteriosus (I) Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Respuesta: I The correct **answer is I**. Williams syndrome is a deletion of the 7q chromosome, causing short stature, hypercalcemia, or hypercalciuria in infancy; developmental delay; dysmorphic features; overly friendly personality; and supravalvular aortic stenosis. Without surgical correction, the cardiac disease will progress and can cause sudden death. Aortic insufficiency (**choice A**) is associated with Marfan syndrome. Aortic dissections are also seen in this condition and can be lethal. Coarctation of the aorta (**choice B**) is seen in 35% of patients with Turner syndrome. Complex congenital heart defects (**choice C**) is too broad an answer choice and cannot be correlated with one congenital syndrome in particular. Congenital heart block (**choice D**) can occur in infants born to mothers with systemic lupus erythematosus. Dextrocardia (**choice F**) is a common finding in patients with Kartagener syndrome. Patent ductus arteriosus (**choice H**) can be seen in infants with congenital rubella infection. However, it is usually the result of prematurity, sepsis, metabolic acidosis, or pulmonary defects not associated with congenital syndromes.
47
A 2-day-old boy is about to be discharged from the hospital with his mother when a nurse witnesses an episode of his eyes rolling upward and his body stiffening. A generalized tonic-clonic seizure ensues. After stabilization, the infant’s temperature is 36.5 C (97.7 F), blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 50/min. His arterial blood gas in room air is pH 7.37, PCO2 is 40 mm Hg, PO2 is 45 mm Hg, HCO3 − is 24 mEq/L, and a base deficit is 0.2. Blood chemistries are sodium 145 mEq/L, potassium 5.0 mEq/L, chloride 111 mEq/L, calcium 6.5 mEq/L, magnesium 2.0 mEq/L, and glucose 90 mg/dL. His physical examination is notable for low-set ears, cyanosis in the extremities, and a grade 2 of 6 systolic murmur in the left lower sternal border, with a loud systolic ejection click. On his chest radiograph, a normal heart size and silhouette are noted, but the thymic shadow is absent. (A) Aortic insufficiency (B) Coarctation of the aorta (C) Complex congenital heart disease (D) Congenital heart block (E) Conotruncal abnormalities (F) Dextrocardia (G) Endocardial cushion defects (H) Patent ductus arteriosus (I) Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Respuesta: E The correct **answer is E**. DiGeorge syndrome is caused by microdeletions in the 22q11 chromosome region. Features include facial dysmorphisms, thymic hypoplasia with resultant hypocalcemia, and conotruncal abnormalities, such as truncus arteriosus or total anomalous pulmonary venous return. The child in this vignette had a hypocalcemic seizure and cyanosis caused by truncus arteriosus. Therapy includes surgical correction of the heart defect and dietary supplementation with calcium and vitamin D. Aortic insufficiency (**choice A**) is associated with Marfan syndrome. Aortic dissections are also seen in this condition and can be lethal. Coarctation of the aorta (**choice B**) is seen in 35% of patients with Turner syndrome. Complex congenital heart defects (**choice C**) is too broad an answer choice and cannot be correlated with one congenital syndrome in particular. Congenital heart block (**choice D**) can occur in infants born to mothers with systemic lupus erythematosus. Dextrocardia (**choice F**) is a common finding in patients with Kartagener syndrome. Patent ductus arteriosus (**choice H**) can be seen in infants with congenital rubella infection. However, it is usually the result of prematurity, sepsis, metabolic acidosis, or pulmonary defects not associated with congenital syndromes.
48
A 6-year-old boy presents with crampy abdominal located in his right lower quadrant for the past four days. There is a recent history of nonbloody diarrhea for 1 week and mild fever. His mother reports no recent changes in appetite. On physical examination, there is mild tenderness to palpation in the right lower quadrant, without guarding or rigidity. His temperature is 38.6 C (101.5 F), and other vital signs are within normal limits. Ultrasound of the abdomen shows enlarged abdominal lymph nodes. (A) Appendicitis (B) Constipation (C) Gastroenteritis (D) Henoch-Schönlein purpura (E) Inflammatory bowel disease (F) Inguinal hernia (G) Intussusception (H) Lactose intolerance (I) Lead poisoning (J) Mesenteric adenitis (K) Pneumonia (L) Psychosomatic cause (M) Torsion (N) Urinary tract infection
Respuesta: J The correct **answer is J**. Mesenteric adenitis is an important cause of right iliac fossa pain in children. It is due to a nonspecific inflammation of mesenteric lymph glands that, in turn, is due to viral and bacterial infections. The most common causes are Yersinia species, Streptococcus viridans, and Campylobacter jejuni. The clinical picture includes abdominal pain, which may be generalized or localized and is usually in the right iliac fossa. There is moderate tenderness but little guarding or rebound. The patient may have mild pyrexia, and there may be diarrhea (with or without vomiting) or there may have been a recent upper respiratory tract infection. Mesenteric adenitis is, at times, difficult to differentiate from acute appendicitis, but in this case, it is differentiated by the lack of abdominal rebound and guarding and by a normal appetite. Ultrasonography of the right lower quadrant with graded compression has been the mainstay of diagnosis in children. The abdominal pain of appendicitis (**choice A**) classically begins as a crampy epigastric or periumbilical pain and progresses to a constant pain in the right lower quadrant. It is associated with vomiting and anorexia. On clinical examination, there are signs of peritoneal inflammation in the right iliac fossa, fever, and tachycardia, and there may be a positive Rovsing, obturator, or psoas sign. Constipation (**choice B**) may occur at any age and is usually the cause of recurrent, crampy abdominal pain, especially after meals. Constipation may occur if there is inadequate food or fluid intake. Children who drink a lot of milk may have hard stools that are difficult to pass. Feces is often palpable on examination, and there is no associated fever. The abdominal pain associated with gastroenteritis (**choice C**) is diffuse in nature, with no localized physical signs and with associated diarrhea, nausea, or vomiting and fever. The etiology is usually viral, most often due to rotavirus. The presentation of blood, mucus, and frequent small motions is suggestive of a bacterial cause. With progression, the child may become lethargic and dehydrated, with accompanying acidosis. Inflammatory bowel disease (**choice E**) is suggested in children with chronic abdominal pain, episodes of diarrhea that may be bloody, fever, and weight loss. One of the most important clues is growth failure, especially in adolescents. Crohn disease is a transmural process that may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, whereas in uncomplicated ulcerative colitis, inflammation is confined to the muscosa of the colon. Inguinal hernia (**choice F**) in infants and early childhood results from a patent processus vaginalis. The defect can be large enough to allow abdominal or pelvic organs to descend. The parents may report that the swelling appears with straining or crying, only to disappear at rest. Lactose intolerance (**choice H**), in its congenital form, is characterized by severe diarrhea, abdominal pain, and distension that appear soon after birth due to marked lactase deficiency in the small intestine. Lactase normally catalyzes the cleavage of lactose into glucose and galactose. Symptoms disappear with milk withdrawal (the source of lactose). Stool pH is acidic because of the presence of lactic acid resulting from the bacterial fermentation of the ingested lactose. Colicky abdominal pain and vomiting may be the presenting symptoms of acute lead poisoning (**choice I**) in children. Poisoning due to absorption or ingestion of lead affects the brain, nervous and digestive systems, and blood. Clinical features following ingestion of lead also include encephalopathy (ataxia, drowsiness, convulsions), pica, and papilledema. Pneumonia (**choice K**) can cause referred abdominal pain, especially when the infection is located in the lower lobes. Look for other symptoms that will suggest pneumonia as the cause of the abdominal pain, including fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, nasal flaring, cough, and crackles on auscultation. A chest x-ray will help with diagnosis. Nonorganic causes of abdominal pain, the most common of which is psychosomatic (**choice L**), are common causes of recurrent abdominal pain in childhood. Features that suggest nonorganic pain include pain occurring only on school days or certain social circumstances, nonorganic abdominal pain that is usually umbilical, a family history of recurrent abdominal pain of unknown etiology, and distractibility and variability of pain on examination. Torsion of the testis (**choice M**) is a surgical emergency that typically presents with a tender, swollen scrotum and lower abdominal pain. Although it occurs in all age groups, torsion is most common in adolescents, who have the highest incidence of undescended testes. There may be a history of mild trauma to the testis or a history of episodes of testicular pain due to torsion and untwisting. A urinary tract infection (**choice N**) is an important cause of lower abdominal pain in children because missing its diagnosis may damage the developing kidney. Presenting features include fever, loin pain and tenderness, dysuria, and urinary frequency. Diagnosis is made on urinalysis with culture and microscopy.
49
A 7-month-old infant is brought to the clinic with fever, nonbilous vomiting, and episodes of inconsolable crying for the past 12 hours. He has a recent history of an upper respiratory tract infection but is otherwise a healthy child who has met all developmental milestones. The mother noticed passage of mucoid stools admixed with blood earlier this morning. On examination, the child appears pale and lethargic. Palpation of the abdomen elicits inconsolable crying, and a small mass is felt in the right upper quadrant. (A) Appendicitis (B) Constipation (C) Gastroenteritis (D) Henoch-Schönlein purpura (E) Inflammatory bowel disease (F) Inguinal hernia (G) Intussusception (H) Lactose intolerance (I) Lead poisoning (J) Mesenteric adenitis (K) Pneumonia (L) Psychosomatic cause (M) Torsion (N) Urinary tract infection
Respuesta: G The correct **answer is G**. Intussuscepton causes paroxysms of severe, crampy abdominal pain and early-onset vomiting in children under 5 years old, with peak presentation at 6 months of age. It is caused by the invagination of one portion of the bowel into the lumen of the immediately adjoining bowel. The most common form is ileocolic intussusception. Classic findings on physical examination are a walnut-sized mass palpated abdominally, a highpitched peristalsis on auscultation, and “currant-jelly” stools on rectal examination. In the absence of treatment, this condition is usually fatal. Barium enema is both diagnostic (“stack of coins” sign) and therapeutic in reducing the invaginated segment. Surgical reduction is performed in some cases. The abdominal pain of appendicitis (**choice A**) classically begins as a crampy epigastric or periumbilical pain and progresses to a constant pain in the right lower quadrant. It is associated with vomiting and anorexia. On clinical examination, there are signs of peritoneal inflammation in the right iliac fossa, fever, and tachycardia, and there may be a positive Rovsing, obturator, or psoas sign. Constipation (**choice B**) may occur at any age and is usually the cause of recurrent, crampy abdominal pain, especially after meals. Constipation may occur if there is inadequate food or fluid intake. Children who drink a lot of milk may have hard stools that are difficult to pass. Feces is often palpable on examination, and there is no associated fever. The abdominal pain associated with gastroenteritis (**choice C**) is diffuse in nature, with no localized physical signs and with associated diarrhea, nausea, or vomiting and fever. The etiology is usually viral, most often due to rotavirus. The presentation of blood, mucus, and frequent small motions is suggestive of a bacterial cause. With progression, the child may become lethargic and dehydrated, with accompanying acidosis. Inflammatory bowel disease (**choice E**) is suggested in children with chronic abdominal pain, episodes of diarrhea that may be bloody, fever, and weight loss. One of the most important clues is growth failure, especially in adolescents. Crohn disease is a transmural process that may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, whereas in uncomplicated ulcerative colitis, inflammation is confined to the muscosa of the colon. Inguinal hernia (**choice F**) in infants and early childhood results from a patent processus vaginalis. The defect can be large enough to allow abdominal or pelvic organs to descend. The parents may report that the swelling appears with straining or crying, only to disappear at rest. Lactose intolerance (**choice H**), in its congenital form, is characterized by severe diarrhea, abdominal pain, and distension that appear soon after birth due to marked lactase deficiency in the small intestine. Lactase normally catalyzes the cleavage of lactose into glucose and galactose. Symptoms disappear with milk withdrawal (the source of lactose). Stool pH is acidic because of the presence of lactic acid resulting from the bacterial fermentation of the ingested lactose. Colicky abdominal pain and vomiting may be the presenting symptoms of acute lead poisoning (**choice I**) in children. Poisoning due to absorption or ingestion of lead affects the brain, nervous and digestive systems, and blood. Clinical features following ingestion of lead also include encephalopathy (ataxia, drowsiness, convulsions), pica, and papilledema. Pneumonia (**choice K**) can cause referred abdominal pain, especially when the infection is located in the lower lobes. Look for other symptoms that will suggest pneumonia as the cause of the abdominal pain, including fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, nasal flaring, cough, and crackles on auscultation. A chest x-ray will help with diagnosis. Nonorganic causes of abdominal pain, the most common of which is psychosomatic (**choice L**), are common causes of recurrent abdominal pain in childhood. Features that suggest nonorganic pain include pain occurring only on school days or certain social circumstances, nonorganic abdominal pain that is usually umbilical, a family history of recurrent abdominal pain of unknown etiology, and distractibility and variability of pain on examination. Torsion of the testis (**choice M**) is a surgical emergency that typically presents with a tender, swollen scrotum and lower abdominal pain. Although it occurs in all age groups, torsion is most common in adolescents, who have the highest incidence of undescended testes. There may be a history of mild trauma to the testis or a history of episodes of testicular pain due to torsion and untwisting. A urinary tract infection (**choice N**) is an important cause of lower abdominal pain in children because missing its diagnosis may damage the developing kidney. Presenting features include fever, loin pain and tenderness, dysuria, and urinary frequency. Diagnosis is made on urinalysis with culture and microscopy.
50
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with crampy abdominal pain, mild fever, and scrotal pain for the past 12 hours. He developed a maculopapular rash 2 days ago in his lower extremities that appears to be enlarging. On examination, there is joint tenderness in his knees and ankles, diffuse abdominal tenderness to palpation without guarding, and diffuse testicular tenderness with scrotal enlargement. Routine urinalysis reveals microscopic hematuria and 2+ proteinuria. (A) Appendicitis (B) Constipation (C) Gastroenteritis (D) Henoch-Schönlein purpura (E) Inflammatory bowel disease (F) Inguinal hernia (G) Intussusception (H) Lactose intolerance (I) Lead poisoning (J) Mesenteric adenitis (K) Pneumonia (L) Psychosomatic cause (M) Torsion (N) Urinary tract infection
Respuesta: D The correct **answer is D**. The cardinal features of HenochSchönlein purpura (HSP) are gastrointestinal, joint, and renal manifestations due to widespread vasculitis of the arterioles and small capillaries. The dominant clinical features are shown in this case: cutaneous purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain (gastrointestinal bleeding may also occur), orchitis, and nephritis (hematuria and proteinuria). In up to two thirds of patients, clinical onset is preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection. In general, HSP is an acute, self-limited illness, but one third of patients has one or more recurrences. The most feared complication is progressive renal disease. Scrotal involvement is common and may mimic testicular torsion The abdominal pain of appendicitis (**choice A**) classically begins as a crampy epigastric or periumbilical pain and progresses to a constant pain in the right lower quadrant. It is associated with vomiting and anorexia. On clinical examination, there are signs of peritoneal inflammation in the right iliac fossa, fever, and tachycardia, and there may be a positive Rovsing, obturator, or psoas sign. Constipation (**choice B**) may occur at any age and is usually the cause of recurrent, crampy abdominal pain, especially after meals. Constipation may occur if there is inadequate food or fluid intake. Children who drink a lot of milk may have hard stools that are difficult to pass. Feces is often palpable on examination, and there is no associated fever. The abdominal pain associated with gastroenteritis (**choice C**) is diffuse in nature, with no localized physical signs and with associated diarrhea, nausea, or vomiting and fever. The etiology is usually viral, most often due to rotavirus. The presentation of blood, mucus, and frequent small motions is suggestive of a bacterial cause. With progression, the child may become lethargic and dehydrated, with accompanying acidosis. Inflammatory bowel disease (**choice E**) is suggested in children with chronic abdominal pain, episodes of diarrhea that may be bloody, fever, and weight loss. One of the most important clues is growth failure, especially in adolescents. Crohn disease is a transmural process that may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, whereas in uncomplicated ulcerative colitis, inflammation is confined to the muscosa of the colon. Inguinal hernia (**choice F**) in infants and early childhood results from a patent processus vaginalis. The defect can be large enough to allow abdominal or pelvic organs to descend. The parents may report that the swelling appears with straining or crying, only to disappear at rest. Lactose intolerance (**choice H**), in its congenital form, is characterized by severe diarrhea, abdominal pain, and distension that appear soon after birth due to marked lactase deficiency in the small intestine. Lactase normally catalyzes the cleavage of lactose into glucose and galactose. Symptoms disappear with milk withdrawal (the source of lactose). Stool pH is acidic because of the presence of lactic acid resulting from the bacterial fermentation of the ingested lactose. Colicky abdominal pain and vomiting may be the presenting symptoms of acute lead poisoning (**choice I**) in children. Poisoning due to absorption or ingestion of lead affects the brain, nervous and digestive systems, and blood. Clinical features following ingestion of lead also include encephalopathy (ataxia, drowsiness, convulsions), pica, and papilledema. Pneumonia (**choice K**) can cause referred abdominal pain, especially when the infection is located in the lower lobes. Look for other symptoms that will suggest pneumonia as the cause of the abdominal pain, including fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, nasal flaring, cough, and crackles on auscultation. A chest x-ray will help with diagnosis. Nonorganic causes of abdominal pain, the most common of which is psychosomatic (**choice L**), are common causes of recurrent abdominal pain in childhood. Features that suggest nonorganic pain include pain occurring only on school days or certain social circumstances, nonorganic abdominal pain that is usually umbilical, a family history of recurrent abdominal pain of unknown etiology, and distractibility and variability of pain on examination. Torsion of the testis (**choice M**) is a surgical emergency that typically presents with a tender, swollen scrotum and lower abdominal pain. Although it occurs in all age groups, torsion is most common in adolescents, who have the highest incidence of undescended testes. There may be a history of mild trauma to the testis or a history of episodes of testicular pain due to torsion and untwisting. A urinary tract infection (**choice N**) is an important cause of lower abdominal pain in children because missing its diagnosis may damage the developing kidney. Presenting features include fever, loin pain and tenderness, dysuria, and urinary frequency. Diagnosis is made on urinalysis with culture and microscopy.