Módulo 2 Pediatría Flashcards
A 13-year-old girl returns to her physician for follow-up of a strep throat, for which she had been treated 3 weeks previously. After performing a throat culture, the physician asks how school is going. There is dead silence. Her mother says that her daughter has missed the last 4 weeks of school. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
(A) Contract with the girl to go back to school as you explore the problem
(B) Write a medical excuse for her until the throat culture results come back
(C) Tell them you must report her to the school authorities for truancy
(D) Send the mother for supportive counseling
(E) Send the girl for psychotherapy
Respuesta: A
The correct answer is A. Prolonged absence from school is a serious problem. It is important to sort out the reasons why this teenager is not attending school. If she is staying home with her mother’s knowledge, then she is probably being kept home by mother to look after another sibling or to keep her mother company. This school refusal may represent separation anxiety, and there could be underlying conflicts of separation. After her illness with strep throat, this teenager may be having difficulties transitioning back to school. Perhaps she dreads going back to a particular class or teacher. It is important to establish whether her school absence is related to something at home or at school. Importantly, everyone needs to help this teenager return to school, even if a contract needs to be made that she will go only for part of the day.
The physician should not write a medical excuse to keep her home for any more days (choice B). This is not the answer and may only prolong the problem. Many times in such situations families want a doctor’s note in support of keeping the child at home and arranging for a home tutor. This should not be done.
The physician should not report the girl as truant (choice C). Truancy is when a student is absent from school but is not at home. Instead the student may be away with peers playing or doing something else. There is no history of truancy in this case. The school is surely aware of the girl’s absence from school.
Sending the mother for counseling (choice D) is not the best choice. The mother may have underlying separation problems herself. Many mothers of children with school phobia may have a history of depression or have had school phobia themselves during their own childhood. All issues need to be explored over time.
Sending the girl to psychotherapy (choice E) seems premature until the physician explores what is going on. At this point, she has not even returned to school. It will take some skill in uncovering the underlying issues and seeing that this teenager gets the help she needs.
A 1-year old child is brought in for a well baby checkup. His parents report that he has been of good health and began walking a few weeks earlier. They are concerned that he tends to bump into things and falls more than his older sister did. Family history is significant for retinoblastoma. On examination, the pediatrician notes leukocoria of the left eye. No significant lymphadenopathy is present, and there is no enlargement of the liver or spleen. The child’s height and weight are normal for his age. A complete ophthalmologic examination reveals retinoblastoma in the child’s left eye, and enucleation is performed. This patient has the highest lifetime risk for which of the following conditions?
(A) Glaucoma
(B) Glioblastoma
(C) Malignant melanoma
(D) Osteosarcoma
(E) Squamous cell carcinoma
Respuesta: D
The correct answer is D. Retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy in infants and children. With early diagnosis and treatment, survival is greater than 90%. However, patients with a germline retinoblastoma mutation have a substantial risk (as high as 70%) for having a second high-grade malignancy. The most common secondary nonocular tumors associated with retinoblastoma is osteosarcoma. Physicians must always have a high index of suspicion of osteosarcoma in these patients when there is a new onset of bone pain or new bony lesions.
Infantile or congenital glaucoma (choice A) is associated with other congenital anomalies, such as aniridia, Sturge-Weber syndrome, Marfan syndrome, and neurofibromatosis. There is, however, no association with retinoblastoma.
Other secondary tumors, such as brain tumors (glioblastoma [choice B]), malignant melanoma (choice C), and squamous cell carcinoma (choice E), are also associated with retinoblastoma, but to a much lesser degree than osteosarcoma.
A 4-day-old female infant presents to the emergency department with vomiting and abdominal distention. The mother states that the vomitus was green. The infant also has had difficulty feeding and has been hard to console. The mother had an uncomplicated pregnancy. The infant passed meconium within 12 hours after birth. She also had several small, seedy, yellowish stools each day since birth. On physical examination, she is very irritable. Her anterior fontanelle is slightly depressed. Her abdomen is distended. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Allergic reaction to formula
(B) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
(C) Hirschsprung disease
(D) Meconium ileus
(E) Midgut volvulus
Respuesta: E
The correct answer is E. In the neonatal period, mid-gut volvulus is the most common cause of abdominal obstruction due to malrotation. Green-colored vomitus represents bilious vomiting, which is caused by obstruction of the small bowel. The infant typically has normal feeding and appears to be well in the first few days of life. As the malrotation worsens, the infant starts to develop abdominal fullness, especially in the right upper quadrant. Bilious vomiting soon develops as the small bowel is completely obstructed. If the volvulus is not diagnosed and treated early, intestinal ischemia and necrosis may develop. This can lead to bowel perforation and shock. Volvulus is the most common type of malrotation in newborns. It is caused by failure of the cecum to move into the right lower quadrant. The usual location of the cecum is in the subhepatic area. Because the cecum fails to rotate properly, it does not form the normal broad-based adherence to the posterior abdominal wall. A midgut volvulus is formed when the mesentery, which includes the superior mesenteric artery, is tethered by a narrow stalk and is twisted around itself. In addition, bands of adhesive tissue (Ladd bands) may extend from the cecum to the right upper quadrant, obstructing the duodenum. Midgut volvulus is an emergency in neonates. When an infant is suspected of having this condition, he or she should be stabilized immediately by IV fluids, antibiotics, and nasogastric suctioning. Abdominal radiographs should be taken as soon as possible to evaluate for bowel obstruction. Radiologic findings of volvulus include small bowel dilatation, paucity of air in the intestine, and a corkscrew-like appearance of the duodenum. Emergent surgery is needed to relieve the obstruction. Adhesive tissues should be resected, and the entire intestine should be inspected for anomalies. If segments of ischemic bowel are present, they should be removed. If the viability of the bowel cannot be determined during the surgery, a second surgery 12-36 hours later may be necessary to inspect and remove any ischemic bowel segment. Short bowel syndrome is a dreaded complication if a significant portion of the bowel was nonviable, and thus removed.
Allergic reaction to formula (choice A) typically presents between 4 and 6 weeks of age. Reactions rarely present in the neonatal period. Bilious vomiting is also not consistent with an allergic reaction to formula.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (choice B) happens commonly in infants. In fact, the lower gastroesophageal sphincter is poorly developed during infancy. Most cases of reflux are a normal variant, and the parents need not be worried. However, when reflux causes significant problems, such as poor weight gain or apnea, it then needs to be treated. The vomiting in gastroesophageal reflux disease is never bilious.
Hirschsprung disease (choice C) results from partial or complete absence of ganglion cells in the colon. It is the most common cause of neonatal obstruction of the colon. Hirschsprung disease is suspected when the infant fails to pass meconium in the first 24 hours of life. Diagnosis becomes more likely when barium enema shows the appearance of a megacolon proximal to the aganglionic segment. It is confirmed with punch biopsy.
Meconium ileus (choice D) is most commonly associated with cystic fibrosis. It typically presents at birth or within the first 48 hours. Symptoms include failure to pass meconium, abdominal distention, and vomiting, which may be bilious.
An 8-year-old boy presents to the pediatrician’s office with a headache for the past 3 weeks. His mother also states that he has been more tired and has had frequent nose bleeding for the past month. On physical examination, his height and weight are both below the 5th percentile for his age. His blood pressure is 152/86 mm Hg in all four extremities. His pulse is 74/min, and respirations are 16/min. His heart examination is normal with no murmur. His peripheral pulses are strong and symmetric. Urinalysis and serum electrolytes are ordered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
(A) 24-hour urine creatinine and protein
(B) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine concentration
(C) Plasma and urine catecholamine levels
(D) Serum aldosterone level
(E) Serum cortisol level
Respuesta: B
The correct answer is B. Hypertension happens in children. It is defined as blood pressure higher than the 95th percentile for age on three different measurements. Unlike adults, most cases of hypertension in infants and younger children are secondary hypertension. Children with hypertension usually present with headaches, visual symptoms, easy fatigability, or epistaxis. One of the possible reasons for failure to thrive is hypertension. Seventy to seventy-five percent of children who have hypertension have a renal etiology. Up to 25% of patients have a history of recurrent urinary tract infection secondary to obstructive uropathy or reflux nephropathy. Other renal causes include renovascular disease, glomerulonephritis, and hemolytic uremic syndrome. These children develop hypertension when azotemia occurs because of the underlying disease. Hence, the most appropriate initial laboratory tests are complete blood count, urinalysis, serum electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen and creatinine concentration, and uric acid. The most common cardiac cause of hypertension is coarctation of the aorta, but this usually presents in infancy. In older patients with good collateral flow, a “machinery” systolic murmur is typically evident on examination, but in younger patients, the murmur is usually short, systolic, and best heard along the lower sternal border at the third and fourth intercostal spaces. Also, the lower extremities blood pressure will be lower than the upper extremities. Femoral pulses would be weak or absent. Other causes of secondary hypertension in children include drugs (especially corticosteroids, oral contraceptives in sexually active adolescents, and sympathomimetics), lead poisoning, neuroblastoma, and seizure.
Twenty-four-hour urine creatinine clearance and protein (choice A) is not indicated for the initial evaluation of a hypertensive child. The purpose of doing this test is to have an accurate measurement of the creatinine clearance, but collection of urine for 24 hours can be very inconvenient to the family. It is also not cost-effective as an initial test.
Plasma and urine catecholamine levels (choice C) are used to assess the presence of a catecholamine-producing tumor, such as a pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma usually presents with episodic symptoms of palpitation, headaches, flushing, nausea and vomiting, and urinary frequency. Pheochromocytoma is not suspected in this case; therefore, catecholamine levels are not indicated here.
Serum aldosterone (choice D), if elevated, represents either primary or secondary hyperaldosteronism. Clinical manifestations include hypertension, muscle weakness, polydipsia, and polyuria. Laboratory findings include hypokalemia, hypernatremia, and decreased chloride. Therefore, serum electrolytes would be an appropriate initial test for this condition. Serum aldosterone level is not an appropriate initial test in this patient, although it would be indicated later if the patient had the relevant symptoms and characteristic laboratory findings.
Serum cortisol (choice E) would be used to assess Cushing syndrome, which is another cause of secondary hypertension in children. In children older than 7 years, the most common cause of Cushing syndrome is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia secondary to a pituitary adenoma or ectopic production of corticotropin (ACTH). Children with Cushing syndrome have characteristic moon facies, double chin, buffalo hump, obesity, masculinization, acne, impaired growth, and hypertrichosis
An infant is brought to the office for health maintenance visit. On examination, the infant turns when her name is called. She is able to say “mama.” Her mother mentions that she also says “dada” at home. She is able to look for her mother when she gets frightened. She also waves bye-bye to the doctor when the doctor steps out of the examination room. What age of this child is most consistent with these developmental milestones?
(A) 3 months
(B) 5 months
(C) 7 months
(D) 9 months
(E) 11 months
Respuesta: D
The correct answer is D. Developmental assessment is essential in pediatrics health maintenance. It should be included in every health supervision visit. A developmental screening includes assessment of the following four areas: neurodevelopment, cognitive development, language development, and psychosocial development. The ability to make repetitive consonant sounds, such as “mama” or “dada,” is learned by 8-9 months. At that time, the infant can also recognize his or her own name. In term of social cognition, an infant will seek reassurance from a familiar person, usually parents or caretakers, when frightened. By 9 months, an infant can also wave bye-bye.
At 3 months (choice A), neurodevelopment is more important. At this time, an infant can raise his or her head when place on a firm surface. The infant may be able to laugh at pleasurable social contacts.
At 5 months (choice B), an infant can often be pulled from a sitting to a standing position. The infant can also support his or her weight on extended legs.
At 7 months (choice C), the infant can make repetitive vowel sounds but is not able to recognize his or her own name yet. A prone infant at this age is able to pivot in pursuit of an object.
At 11 months (choice E), the infant enjoys playing ball with the examiner. He or she can also use a few words other than “mama” or “dada.”
A 2-week-old infant is noted to be jaundiced. The baby’s stools are pale, and his urine is darkly colored. Physical examination demonstrates hepatomegaly. Serum studies show elevations of AST, ALT, conjugated bilirubin, and unconjugated bilirubin. By 2 months of age, the baby is notably irritated by pruritus, has retarded growth, and has visible dilated veins in the periumbilical area. Ultrasound fails to demonstrate a gallbladder. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
(B) Biliary atresia
(C) Cystic fibrosis
(D) Hepatitis B
(E) Hepatitis C
(F) Toxoplasmosis
Respuesta: B
The correct answer is B. The child has biliary atresia. This condition may either develop prenatally, in which case the gallbladder may be absent, or postnatally, probably after inflammation and scarring of the extrahepatic (and intrahepatic) biliary ducts. The underlying etiology is unclear. The history illustrated in the question stem is typical. In cases in which ultrasound is unrevealing, needle biopsy of the liver can yield tissue that usually excludes alternative diagnoses and can sometimes definitively demonstrate the atresia.
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (choice A), cystic fibrosis (choice C), hepatitis B (choice D), and hepatitis C (choice E) can all cause hepatitis in infancy but would not cause the gallbladder to be absent.
Congenital toxoplasmosis (choice F) results from a systemic infection with Toxoplasma gondii. When found in the newborn, congenital toxoplasmosis is always severe, and neurologic signs are always present. The classic triad is chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications. Other characteristic features include intrauterine growth, retardation, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and rash.
A 3-year-old girl with a ventricular septal defect (VSD) presents to the emergency department after a 15-minute focal seizure of her left arm and leg. A brief history reveals that the child has no known seizure disorder and has been having a low-grade fever at home for about 4 days. She also has been less active and has had poor appetite. On physical examination, her temperature is 40.2 C (104.3 F), and her pulse is 82/min. She is not responsive to her name, but she is responsive to painful stimuli with withdrawal of her extremities. Cardiac examination is significant for a grade 3 systolic murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border. Neurologic examination reveals anisocoria with a dilated right pupil. After stabilization, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
(A) CT of the brain
(B) ECG
(C) Electroencephalography
(D) MRI of the brain
(E) Complete blood count and blood culture
(F) Lumbar puncture
Respuesta: A
The correct answer is A. A child with a known cardiac defect now presenting with fever, seizure, and focal neurologic deficit (anisocoria) is likely to have a brain abscess. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) predisposes the patient to an occult infection in the heart, i.e., endocarditis. Vegetations usually develop around the defect. Seeding of the bacteria may occur, and the patient thus becomes bacteremic. The bacteria may travel to the brain and cause a brain abscess. Common pathogens include Streptococcus viridans, Bacteroides, Enterobacteriaceae and Staphylococcus aureus. Brain abscess is a life-threatening condition that requires rapid recognition and treatment. CT of the brain is the best diagnostic test for brain abscess. Surgical drainage and IV antibiotics are the treatment of choice. Broad spectrum antibiotics, such as a third generation cephalosporin with metronidazole, are necessary. Oxacillin or vancomycin can be used if S. aureus is present. If CT scan reveals that the abscess is less than 2.5 cm and the patient is neurologically stable and conscious, it is recommended to just start antibiotics and observe. Otherwise, surgical drainage is necessary.
ECG (choice B) is not helpful in the diagnosis of this child. Even though she has a cardiac condition (VSD), it is apparent that her clinical deterioration is secondary to a serious infection and a neurologic condition, rather than an abnormal heart rhythm.
Electroencephalography (choice C) is an appropriate initial diagnostic procedure for this critically ill child. It may help to elucidate the kind of seizure that she had. It is not immediately necessary, however, because the confirmation of a brain abscess by a CT scan is more crucial for prompt diagnosis and intervention.
MRI of the brain (choice D) can show fine details of the soft tissue. In this case of brain abscess, however, a rapid study such as the CT scan is more appropriate because it is faster and easier to obtain and is adequate to diagnose a brain abscess.
Complete blood count and blood cultures (choice E) are helpful but are not diagnostic of brain abscess. An elevated white count is not always present. Multiple blood cultures should be obtained but they are not as helpful as the CT scan.
Lumbar puncture (choice F) is contraindicated in this case because the child might have increased intracranial pressure. Brain stem or uncal herniation might occur.
A mother brings her 7-year-old son to the clinic because, over the past several days, his urine has become pink and his eyes have looked puffy. About 2 weeks ago, he missed school because of fever and a sore throat. On examination, the boy’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, his eyelids and scrotum appear puffy, and he has 1+ tibial edema. No rashes are noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
(B) Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
(C) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
(D) Nephrotic syndrome
(E) Vesicoureteral reflux
Respuesta: A
The correct answer is A. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is characterized by hematuria with either no or mild edema and elevated blood pressure. In cooler weather, it is often preceded by a sore throat. During warmer weather, a skin infection, such as impetigo, may be the preceding infection. This illness is thought to be mediated by immune complexes, and serum complement (C3) is reduced. When edema is mild, it is most easily seen in loose, thin tissues, such as the eyelids or scrotum. It is uncommon before 3 years of age.
Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (choice B) is a systemic disease, which often follows an acute diarrheal illness and occurs most frequently in children younger than 4 years. Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli strains (O157:H7) have been associated with this illness. Following an attack of gastroenteritis, the child becomes pale and lethargic, and urine output falls. Examination often shows edema, petechiae, and hepatosplenomegaly. It is a major cause of renal failure in children.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (choice C) is associated with a characteristic petechial or purpuric rash, followed by edema. Some patients have bloody stools and abdominal cramping. Glomerulonephritis may occur 1-2 months after the first symptoms appear and usually presents as asymptomatic hematuria.
The characteristic clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome (choice D) is edema. In addition, children with nephrotic syndrome have proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, and hyperlipidemia. Although individuals with poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis and HenochSchönlein purpura may develop nephrotic syndrome, hematuria is rare in nephrotic syndrome.
Vesicoureteral reflux (choice E) is usually discovered during an evaluation for a urinary tract infection. Significant hematuria or edema is uncommon.
A 3-month-old infant is brought to the emergency department for severe vomiting over the past 6 hours. The mother tells the physician that she has vomited at least 4 times during this period. She also noticed the infant was having difficulty feeding for 2 days. On examination, she is very fussy, and there is a swelling over the left side of the head. CT of the head shows a skull fracture of the left parietal bone with no evidence of intracranial damage. The mother explains that the baby rolled off the sofa onto the floor yesterday. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
(A) Discharge the patient home with instructions concerning postconcussion symptoms
(B) Monitor the infant for 12 hours for signs of increased intracranial pressure, discharge the patient home if asymptomatic thereafter
(C) Obtain a neurosurgical consultation for the skull fracture
(D) Obtain a skeletal survey
(E) Repeat the CT scan of the head in 24 hours
Respuesta: D
The correct answer is D. In this case, the mechanism of the injury (i.e., that the 3-month-old infant rolled off the sofa and hit her head) is inconsistent with the developmental age of the child. A normal 3- month-old infant is unable to roll. Child abuse is suspected in this scenario. In addition, when a parent seeks medical care for the child with a head injury, he or she usually volunteers the mechanism of injury right away, rather than waiting until a CT scan is done to confirm the injury. Such reluctance to give related history is highly suspicious of child abuse. Other clues of injury secondary to child abuse include a changing history, a conflicting history by different caretakers, and a history that is inconsistent with the severity or the type of the injury. In this case, a skeletal survey is indicated to detect any other skeletal injury and to document the findings for legal purpose. A detailed and well-documented physical examination should also be performed to identify any other injury. Other physical findings that are highly suggestive of child abuse include bruises of buttocks, cigarette burns, circular burns from hot water immersion, human bites, lash marks, spiral fractures of the long bones, subdural hematoma, and multiple bony injuries at different stages of healing. Child abuse continues to be a major problem in this country and is a major threat to the wellness of affected children. Pediatricians should always be advocates of the children; they are required by law to report any suspected case of child abuse.
Discharging the patient home (choice A) is inappropriate because a full evaluation of other possible injuries related to child abuse has not been completed. Failure to recognize child abuse may lead to further serious injury of the victim.
The problem with 12-hour monitoring of this child (choice B) is similar to the choice above. Further investigation of the child abuse is necessary. If this is not a child abuse case, monitoring may be useful to detect any development of signs of increased cranial pressure, such as worsening vomiting, lethargy, seizure activities, and Cushing’s triad (hypertension, bradycardia, and change in respiration).
Neurosurgical consultation (choice C) is not indicated without any evidence of intracranial hemorrhage. A simple linear fracture of the skull does not require immediate surgical intervention.
Repeating the CT scan in 24 hours (choice E) is not helpful if the infant remains clinically stable.
A 9-month-old, chubby, healthy-appearing boy is brought to the pediatrician because of episodes of colicky abdominal pain and blood-tinged stools. The pain lasts from 1 to 10 minutes and causes the infant to double up; he then appears normal until his next bout of colic. During the examination, the infant has another episode, at which time a vague mass can be felt on the right side of the abdomen, and the right lower quadrant has an “empty” feeling to deep palpation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
(A) Barium enema
(B) Colonoscopy
(C) Gastrografin enema
(D) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
(E) Exploratory surgery
Respuesta: A
The correct answer is A. The clinical picture is that of intussusception, which occurs in this age group with the presentation given and the classic bloody stools (often referred to as “currant jelly stools”) mentioned. A barium enema is both diagnostic and therapeutic, as the heavy column of barium coils around the intussuscepted ileum at the same time that it pushes it back out of the ascending colon.
Colonoscopy (choice B) could give the diagnosis (in an expensive and invasive way) but would not help resolve the problem. Colonoscopy is extensively used to decompress a distended colon (such as in Ogilvie syndrome), but it offers no way to push back the ileum.
A Gastrografin enema (choice C) also has a dual diagnostic/therapeutic role in pediatric surgery, but for a different disease: meconium ileus.
The upper gastrointestinal tract (choice D) is not the seat of the problem. The bloody stools may have lured you into this choice, but in this case the blood comes from the engorged, irritated, and battered intussuscepted bowel.
Exploratory surgery (choice E) may eventually be needed to fix a recurring problem, but it is not the first step.
A 12-year-old boy presents with an intensely pruritic rash for 3 days. He just went on a camping trip, during which he wore only short-sleeve shirts and short pants. His temperature is 37.6 C (99.7 F), blood pressure is 96/62 mm Hg, pulse is 65/min, and respirations are 12/min. There are numerous erythematous papules and vesicles on both arms and legs. Most of them are in a linear array. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
(A) Oral cephalexin
(B) Oral prednisone
(C) Topical diphenhydramine
(D) Topical mupirocin
(E) Topical 1% hydrocortisone
Respuesta: B
The correct answer is B. History and physical examination are crucial in the diagnosis of contact dermatitis. The appearance of the erythematous papules and vesicles in a linear fashion on the exposed skin suggests contact dermatitis due to plant allergens. The most common culprits are poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac. The chemical found in these plants, urushiol, is a very potent allergen that causes an acute dermatitis that presents as vesicles, bullae, papules, and edema. If the contact dermatitis covers more than 10 to 15% of the body surface area, oral prednisone is indicated for 14-21 days. An initial dose of 1 mg/kg/day may be used, tapered every 3 days to complete the whole course. Taking tepid baths or applying calamine lotions may promote drying when the vesicles rupture.
Oral cephalexin (choice A) is an antibiotic and is not indicated in this case because there is no evidence that the dermatitis is complicated with a bacterial infection.
Topical diphenhydramine (choice C) should be avoided because it may cause a secondary dermatitis that complicates the primary process. Oral diphenhydramine may be considered to treat burning and itching.
Topical mupirocin (choice D) is a topical antibiotic. Unless secondary bacterial infection is present, a topical antibiotic is not necessary.
Topical 1% hydrocortisone (choice E) is a low-potency topical corticosteroid, which is ineffective in treatment of contact dermatitis. If the contact dermatitis is localized to a small area, and if it is mild, a mid-potency topical corticosteroid (e.g., mometasone furoate 0.1% or triamcinolone acetonide 0.1%) may be used instead of oral prednisone.
A premature infant has a difficult delivery with episodes of arrhythmia and suspected hypoxia-ischemia. After the delivery, the infant is lethargic and has periods of apnea. Intracranial hemorrhage is suspected. No obvious head trauma is noted. Cranial ultrasound identifies blood within the ventricles. Which of the following structures is the most likely source of the hemorrhage?
(A) Bridging veins of the skull
(B) Cerebral cortex
(C) Germinal matrix
(D) Middle meningeal artery
(E) Thalamus
(F) Vessels of the circle of Willis
Respuesta: C
The correct answer is C. Intraventricular and/or intraparenchymal intracranial bleeding is a common serious problem among newborns, particularly those born prematurely. This diagnosis should be suspected in infants with apnea, seizures, lethargy, or an abnormal neurologic examination. CT scan or ultrasound of the head can confirm the diagnosis. The usual source of the bleeding is the germinal matrix (a mass of embryonic tissue near the caudate nucleus that is not present in adults), which often has been damaged by episodes of hypotension or hypoxia/ischemia. Depending on the exact sites that start to bleed, the blood may either flow into the ventricles or spread into the adjacent brain tissue, “dissecting” a path (and rupturing neuron axons as it goes). This latter form of hemorrhage, which is considered the most serious (and potentially fatal) form of intracranial hemorrhage in infants, typically develops in the first 3 days of life. Infants with small intraventricular hemorrhages often do well; those with large hemorrhages may either die or be left with severe neurologic defects.
Bridging veins of the skull (choice A) can be a source of bleeding and cause subdural hemorrhage. These vessels are damaged in shaken baby syndrome.
The cerebral cortex (choice B) may be damaged by dissecting blood but is not the usual site of initial bleeding in these infants.
Bleeding from the middle meningeal artery (choice D) results in an epidural hematoma. This typically follows trauma. It is, however, an unusual source of bleeding in newborns.
The thalamus (choice E) and other areas in the deeper aspects of the brain can be damaged by dissecting blood but are not the usual site of initial bleeding in these infants.
Bleeding from the vessels of the circle of Willis (choice F) causes subarachnoid hemorrhage.
A 6-year-old boy has had a fever for 8 days. He just finished a 5- day course of amoxicillin for otitis media. On examination, his temperature is 38.6 C (101.4 F). He has meningismus and palsy of the left sixth cranial nerve. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals 200 white cells per mL with 80% lymphocytes and 20% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, glucose of 18 mg/dL, protein of 260 mg/dL, and a negative Gram stain. There is basilar enhancement without focal lesions on CT. Which of the following CSF tests will most likely identify the cause of meningitis?
(A) Antigen test for Cryptococcus
(B) Bacterial culture
(C) Culture for mycobacteria
(D) Latex agglutination test for pneumococcus
(E) Test for Treponema pallidum
Respuesta: C
The correct answer is C. Most cases of meningitis in children will be one of two types: bacterial, usually caused by pneumococci or meningococci, or viral, usually caused by enteroviruses. Analysis of the CSF can be very helpful in differentiating the various types of meningitis. Clinicians should also be familiar with other treatable causes of meningitis. Tuberculous meningitis and fugal meningitis have similar clinical presentations and CSF findings. Affected patients have a subacute presentation, focal neurologic abnormalities (in this case a sixth cranial nerve palsy), a CSF pleocytosis with a predominance of lymphocytes (100-400 cells/mL), a low glucose level (20-45 mg/dL), and an increased protein concentration (100-500 mg/dL). Rapid diagnosis of tuberculous meningitis may be difficult, because most patients will have negative results on acid-fast smear. Results of cerebral CT are usually abnormal, showing enhancement of the cerebral cortex, cerebral edema, infarctions, or obstructive hydrocephalus. Accordingly, the findings in this patient are most consistent with tuberculous meningitis, and mycobacterial culture will be the most helpful CSF test.
The cryptococcal antigen test (choice A) has good sensitivity and specificity and has replaced the India ink stain for diagnosis. In approximately 95% of cases of meningitis due to Coccidioides immitis, complement-fixing antibodies will be present in the CSF.
Bacterial culture (choice B) is important in the work-up of bacterial meningitis. Acute bacterial meningitis is typically characterized by an elevated CSF white blood cell count with a predominance of neutrophils, an elevated CSF protein concentration, a low CSF glucose level, and positive findings on Gram stain and culture. Prior treatment with oral antibiotics does not alter these diagnostic parameters significantly, although the yield of the CSF Gram stain and culture may be somewhat decreased.
Latex agglutination tests (choice D) for pneumococcal or meningococcal antigens rarely are helpful. The CSF Gram stain has a much higher likelihood of providing early diagnostic help.
Treponema pallidum (choice E) is the cause of syphilis. Clinical manifestations of CNS disease usually appear during the tertiary stages of the disease. A picture of aseptic meningitis can occur rarely and may be confirmed by a reactive CSF Venereal Disease Research Laboratories (VDRL) test. Classic neuro-syphilis has an indolent course, and psychiatric or neurologic symptoms will not manifest for decades following the initial infection.
A previously healthy 5-month-old boy has been irritable and has had a decreased oral intake for 2 days. His rectal temperature is 37.4 C (99.3 F), pulse is 220/min, and respirations are 50/min. The radial and posterior tibial pulses are diminished with good brachial and femoral pulses. ECG shows tachycardia; QRS complexes are narrow without preceding P waves. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
(A) Administer adenosine intravenously
(B) Administer verapamil intravenously
(C) Apply an ice-filled plastic bag to the entire face for 5 to 10 seconds
(D) Cardiac pacing
(E) Perform synchronized direct current cardioversion
Respuesta: C
The correct answer is C. This child most likely has supraventricular tachycardia. To be more specific, it is atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT), a relatively common cardiac emergency among infants. In this condition, the electric impulse is conducted through the AV node, then re-enters the atria via an accessory atrioventricular pathway, producing the arrhythmia. The QRS complexes are narrow, and there are no preceding P waves. The pulse is usually 220-270/min. The best means of converting this rhythm to sinus rhythm is to interrupt the re-entry circuit by blocking atrial to ventricular conduction within the AV node. Both vagal maneuvers and drugs that block AV node conduction can be effective treatments. Applying an ice bag to the face is believed to cause a powerful vagal nerve discharge. Most authorities advise using a large plastic bag filled with ice that covers the entire face of the infant; adding some water to the bag appears to achieve the lowest temperature. The face should be covered for only about 5 seconds because the infant will become apneic during the maneuver.
The IV administration of adenosine (choice A) is an effective and safe method of blocking AV nodal conduction and converting an AVRT to normal sinus rhythm. However, this therapy requires good IV access because the drug must be administered as a rapid bolus. Following this bolus with a rapid infusion of 5-10 mL normal saline ensures that adenosine will be carried through the central circulation before it is metabolized within seconds. Because obtaining IV access can stress these already compromised infants, adenosine should be administered only if a properly performed ice bag maneuver has failed.
The IV administration of verapamil (choice B) effectively blocks AV conduction, but its use in infants younger than 1 year is extremely dangerous and is contraindicated. Serious side effects include asystole, bradycardia, and shock.
Cardiac pacing (choice D) is the treatment for bradycardia secondary to third degree or complete AV block. It is required in neonates with ventricular rates less than or equal to 50/min who have evidence of heart failure.
Synchronized direct current cardioversion (choice E) should be reserved for the rare infant who presents in a moribund state, because application of an ice bag to the face often can reinstate sinus rhythm even in infants who appear quite ill.
A 3-month-old boy is brought to the pediatrician because of a red growth on his arm. The pregnancy had been uncomplicated, and the infant has been meeting all development milestones. He has been healthy so far and has received all scheduled immunizations. He is currently being breast-fed. His skin was clear at birth, but when he was 2 months old, his mother noted a light red growth on his arm. Within the past month, it has increased in size and has turned bright red. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this disorder?
(A) Observation
(B) Topical corticosteroids
(C) Argon laser therapy
(D) Radiation therapy
(E) Surgery
Respuesta: A
The correct answer is A. This child has a strawberry hemangioma, which arises when vascular tissue fails to communicate with adjoining tissue. This enlarges and creates a raised erythematous tumor. Strawberry hemangiomas develop after birth and have a benign course if left alone. They enlarge in the first year of life and then regress. In 90% of patients, the strawberry hemangioma resolves by 9 years of age.
These lesions are not inflammatory in nature, and topical steroids (choice B) have not been shown to be of benefit in their treatment.
If the hemangioma is pressing on a vital organ, argon laser therapy (choice C) may be needed.
These lesions are not malignant; therefore, radiation (choice D) is not needed.
Surgical resection (choice E) is rarely needed in these cases
A 5-year-old girl is being evaluated for generalized swelling. Her blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg. Her laboratory results show:
- Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
- Albumin 1.6 g/dL
- Cholesterol 360 mg/dL
- Triglycerides 400 mg/dL
- C3 complement 120 mg/dL (normal, >80 mg/dL)
- Antinuclear antibody Negative
- Urinalysis 1 RBC/hpf protein 400 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
(B) Membranous glomerulopathy
(C) Minimal change disease
(D) Postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis
(E) Systemic lupus erythematosus
Respuesta: C
The correct answer is C. Generalized swelling in a 5-year-old girl with proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia suggests nephrotic syndrome. In the absence of other pathology, minimal change disease is the most common etiology of primary nephrotic syndrome in childhood. It accounts for 80 to 85% of the cases of nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease has a peak occurrence between ages 2 and 8 years. In most of the cases, a viral illness precedes the proteinuria. The initial symptom is typically edema, which can happen around the eyes (periorbital edema) and in the feet (pretibial edema). Both blood pressure and renal function are normal in most patients. Hematuria is absent; complement C3 and C4 levels are normal. Immunosuppressive therapy with steroids is the mainstay of treatment. Minimal change disease is strikingly responsive to steroid therapy, with a 93% success rate with resolution of proteinuria. In cases that are resistant to steroids, cyclophosphamide may be used. In general, the prognosis for minimal change disease is excellent.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (choice A) is the most common cause of primary glomerulonephritis. It often presents in the 2nd decade of life with proteinuria, microscopic or gross hematuria, and hypertension. Renal function is usually normal. Hypocomplementemia is also commonly seen. Renal biopsy is diagnostic. The mainstay of treatment is alternate-day steroids.
Membranous glomerulopathy (choice B) is very rare in the pediatric age group. Most cases are asymptomatic. It has been associated with various infections, the most frequent being hepatitis B infection. The diagnosis is confirmed by renal biopsy. The clinical course is very variable in children, but the overall prognosis is excellent, with a 50 to 60% spontaneous remission rate. Alternate-day steroid therapy may improve the prognosis.
Postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis (choice D) is a common cause of gross hematuria in children and usually develops 1-2 weeks after a streptococcal infection. Other organisms may also cause this disease. Clinical manifestations vary from asymptomatic microscopic hematuria to gross hematuria to acute renal failure. Tubular casts may be seen on microscopic examination of the urine specimen; C3 levels are decreased. The prognosis is generally good.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (choice E) is a systemic rheumatologic disease that usually presents with malar rash, photosensitivity, arthralgia, serositis, neurologic disorders, and immunologic abnormalities. It is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies. Different forms of glomerulonephritis can occur in patients with this disease.
A 13-year-old girl presents with a 1-week history of a sore throat and a nonproductive cough. She has been previously healthy and has not been exposed to any other sick person. She has not been taking any medications. On examination, she has normal oxygen saturation and a low-grade fever. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
(A) Amoxicillin
(B) Cefazolin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Metronidazole
(E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Respuesta: C
The correct answer C. The patient is older than 6 years, and the most common pneumonias in this age group are due to Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Streptococcus pneumoniae. The girl in this vignette most likely has Mycoplasma pneumonia, which is milder than that due to traditional bacteria. It is characterized by gradual onset of fever, headache, and a nonproductive cough. The treatment of choice is erythromycin.
Amoxicillin (choice A) would be good coverage for Streptococcus, but not for Mycoplasma.
Cefazolin (choice B) would be a good choice for typical bacteria and for coverage against gram-negative rods, but would not be appropriate for M. pneumoniae.
Metronidazole (choice D) would provide anaerobic coverage, but would not be appropriate for M. pneumoniae.
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (choice E) is good prophylaxis for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, but this is very unlikely in this presumably immunocompetent patient.
A 10-year-old girl is evaluated by a pediatrician. She is already 5’8” tall and is taller than other members of her family were at this age. Her arms are disproportionately long compared with her trunk, and her sternum is outwardly displaced. Her joints are hyperextensible, particularly at the knees. Ocular examination demonstrates dislocation of one lens. Based on the most likely diagnosis, which of the following conditions is the most appropriate screening method to prevent morbidity?
(A) Bone density
(B) CT scan of the pituitary stalk
(C) Dexamethasone suppression test
(D) Echocardiography
(E) Electrocardiogram
(F) Glucose tolerance test
Respuesta: D
The correct answer is D. Marfan syndrome is a connective tissue disease with an autosomal-dominant inheritance. Cardinal features of the disorder include tall stature, ectopia lentis, mitral valve prolapse, aortic root dilatation, and aortic dissection. Because cardiovascular disease (aortic dilatation and dissection) is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in these patients, early intervention with beta-adrenergic blocking agents and careful echocardiography screening may help slow aortic dilatation and allow prophylactic aortic root replacement before dissection occurs. The average lifespan of an affected individual is reduced by 50% but is improving because of better recognition and management of cardiovascular abnormalities.
Bone density (choice A) is performed in conditions predisposing to secondary osteoporosis, including Cushing syndrome, thyrotoxicosis, hyperparathyroidism, malabsorption syndrome, and long-term steroid use. However, osteoporosis is not associated with Marfan syndrome.
CT scan of the pituitary stalk (choice B) is appropriate when evaluating for a pituitary tumor as the source of this child’s tall stature. It may also help in identifying a cause of precocious puberty. Most commonly, these pituitary tumors are growthhormone secreting tumors. However, this patient presents with the characteristic features of Marfan syndrome.
Dexamethasone suppression test (choice C) is the screening and confirmatory test of Cushing syndrome. Patients with Marfan syndrome are not at risk for Cushing syndrome.
Electrocardiogram (choice E) can identify changes in rhythm and electrical activity, ischemia, and muscular hypertrophy. However, it is not a good method of evaluating the risk for aortic root dilatation and dissection in Marfan syndrome patients.
Glucose tolerance test (choice F) is the screening test for diabetes of any cause. Although it is not associated with Marfan syndrome, it can be associated with conditions of growth-hormone hypersecretion (acromegaly and gigantism), Cushing disease, and thyrotoxicosis. Although this child is tall for her age, gigantism is not the cause.
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of recurrent headaches. The child feels nauseated before and during each attack, and derives some relief from lying down in a dark room. Noises, bright light, and fatigue seem to trigger the episodes. The child frequently complains of headaches at school, and his mother has been occasionally compelled to take him home. The mother is worried about the possibility of a serious illness. She reports that the child’s father has similar headaches. The child’s growth is normal, and a neurologic examination fails to reveal any abnormality. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Brain tumor
(B) Cluster headache
(C) Conduct disorder
(D) Migraine
(E) Tension headache
Respuesta: D
The correct answer is D. Migraine may affect children as well as adults. It is the most common cause of headaches in children. Migraine in children manifests with symptomatology similar to that observed in adult patients. Certain triggers are easily identified, such as loud noises, bright lights, stress, fatigue, caffeine-containing drinks, and some foods. Parent education on what is known about migraine etiology is essential in management. Treatment consists of the measures that the parents or patients themselves have found to provide relief, plus acetaminophen or a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) if such measures are insufficient. Ergotamine should be reserved for the most severe cases, and sumatriptan is not yet approved for use in children.
Brain tumor (choice A) is very unlikely in the presence of classic symptoms of migraine, as in this case. The manifestations of a brain tumor in children are usually accompanied by evidence of increased intracranial pressure.
Cluster headache (choice B) is extremely rare in childhood. It manifests as attacks of intense pain occurring at night and is often precipitated by alcohol consumption. Each attack lasts up to 2 hours and recurs daily for a period of up to 8 weeks. These periods are then followed by a headache-free interval that usually lasts 1 year.
Conduct disorder (choice C) is a childhood behavioral disorder that is similar to antisocial behavior disorder in adults. The child displays persistent patterns of aggression to animals or people, destruction of property, stealing, and opposition to parental guidance.
Tension headache (choice E) is the second most important cause of headache in children and is more common in adolescents. This form of headache manifests as a viselike tightness around the head and in the neck muscles. Tension headache is frequently a response to stress or fatigue.
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F) at home, difficulty speaking, and odynophagia for 2 days. Physical examination reveals marked erythema of the right tonsil pillar and edema of the uvula with deviation to the left. In addition to anaerobic bacteria, which of the following organisms is most likely to be isolated from a tonsillar pillar aspirate?
(A) Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus
(B) Enterococcus
(C) Haemophilus influenzae type b
(D) Staphylococcus aureus
(E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Respuesta: A
The correct answer is A. The probable diagnosis is peritonsillar abscess, which is the most common complication of pharyngitis or tonsillitis. Patients usually present with fever, dysphagia, and odynophagia (pain when swallowing). Drooling is common. Physical examination findings include erythema of the involved tonsillar pillar, edema of the pillar and soft palate, deviation of the uvula toward the contralateral side, and trismus. The tonsils may be inflamed and exudative. The most common organisms isolated from peritonsillar abscesses are beta-hemolytic streptococci (choice A) and anaerobic bacteria.
Haemophilus influenzae type b (choice C), Moraxella catarrhalis, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa are cultured less frequently. As is typical for most oral infections, mixed cultures are common.
Enterococci (choice B), Staphylococcus aureus (choice D), and Streptococcus pneumoniae (choice E) generally are not isolated. Treatment of peritonsillar abscess includes parenteral antibiotics that are active against anaerobes and streptococci, as well as drainage of the abscess. Penicillin remains the drug of choice. In patients who are allergic to penicillin, clindamycin or a cephalosporin can be used as an alternative with the addition of metronidazole. Needle aspiration of the abscess is usually performed in the emergency department. In those in whom needle aspiration fails, subsequent incision and drainage, or tonsillectomy may be necessary.
A term neonate is noted at birth to have multiple structural defects, many of which are midline in location. He has a bilateral cleft lip and palate, very small eyes with fissures of the iris, shallow supraorbital ridges, and slanted palpebral fissures. His ears are malformed and low set. Both hands have six fingers and a single simian crease, and his feet are shaped like the runner of a rocking chair. There is no family history of congenital abnormalities. At 1 month of age, he dies from heart failure. Which of the following neurologic abnormalities was likely to have been present in this infant?
(A) Anencephaly
(B) Encephalocele
(C) Hydranencephaly
(D) Holoprosencephaly
(E) Porencephaly
Respuesta: D
The correct answer is D. This is trisomy 13, also known as Patau syndrome. The presentation illustrated is typical. These infants usually die before 1 year of age from multiple congenital anomalies, particularly severe congenital heart defects. Patau syndrome is associated with holoprosencephaly due to a failure of forebrain development and consequent failure to form paired cerebral hemispheres. It is associated with midface developmental abnormalities. Other features include hyperconvex, narrow fingernails, scalp defects, abnormal genitalia, apneic spells, holoprosencephaly, and severe mental retardation.
Anencephaly (choice A) is a complete failure of higher brain structures to develop. It is accompanied by a grossly deformed head with virtually no cranial vault.
Encephalocele (choice B) is protrusion of brain and meninges due to a developmental defect in the skull.
Hydranencephaly (choice C) is an extreme form of porencephaly in which the cerebral hemispheres are destroyed. Unlike in anencephaly, the external head forms normally.
Porencephaly (choice E) is a cyst or cavity in the brain that communicates with the ventricles; it may occur as a developmental anomaly or secondary to inflammatory disease or a vascular accident.
A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with generalized tonic-clonic seizures. On physical examination, the child is noted to be lethargic. His temperature is 37.4 C (99.3 F), blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 16/min. His oral mucosa is moist, and there is no peripheral edema. Laboratory tests show:
Blood:
* Sodium 120 mEq/L
* Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
* Chloride 96 mEq/L
* Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
* Blood urea nitrogen 9.6 mg/dL
* Creatinine 0.4 mg/dL
* Glucose 88 mg/dL
Urine:
* Sodium 55 mEq/L
* Potassium 16 mEq/L
* Osmolality 530 mOsmol/kg
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Acute renal failure
(B) Addison disease
(C) Congestive heart failure
(D) Hyponatremic dehydration
(E) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Respuesta: E
The correct answer is E. Hyponatremia is clinically important because it can cause substantial morbidity and mortality. Although most cases are mild, hyponatremia can cause a generalized seizure. The diagnostic approach to hyponatremia should include a careful history (especially concerning medication), clinical assessment of the extracellular fluid (ECF) volume status, and a thorough neurologic evaluation. The differential diagnosis of hyponatremia is categorized into three different groups: hypovolemic hyponatremia, euvolemic hyponatremia, and hypervolemic hyponatremia. The ECF volume status of the boy in this clinical vignette appears to be euvolemic. There is no evidence of hypovolemia. His heart rate is normal, his oral mucosa is moist, and there is no evidence of hypervolemia. The differential diagnosis of euvolemic hyponatremia includes syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), glucocorticoid deficiency, hypothyroidism, and water intoxication. With such increased urinary sodium concentration (55 mEq/L) and concentrated urine (550 mOsmol/kg H2O), SIADH is the most likely explanation of the etiology of the hyponatremia in this child. In SIADH, the urine concentration is increased with respect to serum in the presence of normal renal function and the absence of dehydration. Patients have hyponatremia, normal potassium, concentrated urine, and urinary sodium concentration more than 20 mEq/L. Symptoms include nausea, irritability, loss of appetite, and lethargy. Stupor and seizures occur in severe hyponatremia. Since the underlying problem is retention of water rather than salt wasting, the treatment for SIADH is restriction of fluid.
The child’s renal function is normal, as evidenced by the normal blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels. Hyponatremia associated with acute renal failure (choice A) is usually hypervolemic, not euvolemic.
Addison disease (choice B) is adrenal insufficiency secondary to destruction of the adrenal cortex. The most common cause is an autoimmune destruction of the glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, acute adrenal hemorrhage, and congenital adrenal hypoplasia. Patients have hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypovolemia. In severe cases, severe hypotension and shock can occur.
In congestive heart failure (choice C), the heart fails to pump enough cardiac output to supply the body’s metabolic needs. Signs and symptoms include shortness of breath, lower extremity edema, increased jugular venous pressure, and volume overload. Hyponatremia is a commonly associated with metabolic abnormality.
The child in this clinical vignette has no signs of dehydration. Hyponatremic dehydration (choice D) is most commonly due to external losses of sodium through the gastrointestinal tract. Sodium deficit must be replaced over several days to avoid neurologic complications.
A 1-month-old, previously healthy infant develops forceful projectile vomiting. No bile is seen in the vomitus. After the infant feeds, gastric peristaltic waves are visible crossing the epigastrium from left to right. Several minutes later, the projectile vomiting occurs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Diaphragmatic hernia
(B) Duodenal atresia
(C) Esophageal atresia
(D) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (E) Meconium plug syndrome
Respuesta: D
The correct answer is D. This infant has hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which is characterized by obstruction of the pyloric lumen by pyloric muscular hypertrophy. The hypertrophy develops after birth, and typically presents at 4-6 weeks of life. The presentation illustrated in the question stem is typical. The diagnosis can be confirmed by palpation of a 2- to 3-cm (“walnut-sized”) movable mass deep in the right side of the epigastrium. Ultrasound can also demonstrate the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Surgical correction is with pyloromyotomy, in which the gastric mucosa is left intact but the muscles of the pyloric areas are incised.
Diaphragmatic hernia (choice A), in which loops of bowel protrude into the chest cavity, produces respiratory distress with bowel sounds heard over the chest.
Duodenal atresia (choice B) also causes projectile vomiting in infants, but the vomitus is bile stained.
Esophageal atresia (choice C) causes regurgitation on feeding but not projectile vomiting.
Meconium plug syndrome (choice E) causes bowel obstruction in neonates.
A 2-month-old girl presents to her pediatrician’s office for wellchild care. Her mother complains of excessive tearing of the baby’s left eye for the past 4 weeks. Each morning, a yellow crusty discharge is noted along the lashes of the left eye. The conjunctiva appears uninflamed. The right eye is not affected. On physical examination, the infant is otherwise well and achieving adequate weight gain on an exclusive breast milk diet. She is developmentally appropriate, including visually tracking 180 degrees. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Dacryostenosis
(B) Gonococcal conjunctivitis
(C) Normal infant eye
(D) Viral conjunctivitis
(E) Vitamin A deficiency
Respuesta: A
The correct answer is A. Dacryostenosis, or congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction, occurs in at least 6% of all newborns. It is characterized by unilateral tearing and yellow crusting of the eye each morning, sometimes so thick that the infant cannot open the eyelids. Although uncommon, dacryostenosis can be bilateral. Parents are advised to massage the inner canthus of the eye twice daily to encourage resolution of the obstruction. Resolution occurs by 1 year of age in 90% of infants.
Gonococcal conjunctivitis (choice B) is unlikely because perinatal transmission of gonococcus results in conjunctivitis several days after birth. Clinical findings include lid edema, purulent exudate, and corneal ulcerations. Early diagnosis requires Gram staining of the exudate.
Eye discharge is never a normal finding in infants, therefore choice C is incorrect.
Viral conjunctivitis (choice D) is unlikely without symptoms of upper respiratory infection, such as rhinorrhea, cough, fever, lethargy, or poor feeding. Eye involvement may begin unilaterally but progresses to bilateral involvement within 1-2 days. The major clinical finding is an inflamed or red conjunctiva.
In breast-fed infants, vitamin A deficiency (choice E) is extremely unlikely. The major clinical finding of avitaminosis is a thick and hazy cornea (keratomalacia). Bottle-fed infants are also unlikely to have vitamin A deficiency, since commercial formulas contain adequate daily allowances of essential vitamins if they are mixed to the correct concentration. Unfortunately, this is not always the case.