Modules 12-18 Flashcards

1
Q

to pass legal title from grantor to grantee, the deed must be LEAD

A

lawfully
executed
and
delivered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

lawful execution of deed

A
  1. a writing signed by grantor
  2. unambiguous description of the land
  3. identification of the parties by name/description
  4. words of intent to transfer (“grant”)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

description of land

A

doesnt have to be perfect, but must be unambiguous and at least provide a good lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

effect of insufficient land description

A

title cant be transferred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

delivery of a deed

A

physically or manually transferred (mailing it is fine)

standard: present intent to transfer the instrument itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

acceptance of deed

A

presumed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

rejection of deed

A

expressly reject; title does not pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

presumptions concerning delivery of deed

A
  • grantor retains possession = no delivery
  • grantee has possession = delivery
  • handed to grantee = delivery
  • acknowledged by grantor in front of a notary = delivery
  • recorded = delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

use of extrinsic evidence with deeds

A

all types of evidence, including grantor’s conduct or statements BEFORE OR AFTER the alleged delivery, is admissible to prove grantor’s intent to pass title

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a deed is absolute on its face and is transferred to grantee with an oral condition, what happens?

A

oral condition is dropped b/c it is too vulnerable to fraud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

delivery of deed with written conditions

A

generally valid when delivered; if the condition is the grantor’s death, the deed creates a future interest in the grantee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

transfer of deed to third party with conditions (escrow transaction)

A

grantor may deliver an executed deed to a third party with instructions that the deed be delivered to the grantee once certain conditions are met

if written instructions are given to escrow agent, grantor is bound by the delivery to the agent

if oral instructions are given to escrow agent, grantor can change the instructions and recall the deed while it is still in the agent’s hands, UNLESS THERE IS A WRITTEN K OF SALE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

donative escrow with conditions

A

if condition is grantor’s death - grantor cannot retrieve b/c they had the present intent to convey future interest

if condition is something other than grantor’s death - grantor can retrieve it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

quitclaim deed

A

grantor guarantees NOTHING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

general warranty deed

A

includes 6 covenants that are attributable to grantor OR their predecessors
1. (p) seisin - grantor owns the estate
2. (p) right to convey - grantor has power to transfer
3. (p) against encumbrances - no servitudes/liens
4. (f) quiet enjoyment - grantee will not be disturbed by third party’s lawful claim of title
5. (f) warranty - defend against reasonable claims of title by third party and compensate the grantee for any loss sustained by claim of superior title
6. (f) further assurances - do whatever is needed to perfect grantee’s title if it later turns out to be imperfect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

special warranty deed

A

same covenants as general warranty deed, but grantor makes those promises only on behalf of himself, not his predecessors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

statutory special warranty deed

A

creates by implication two limited assurances against acts of grantor only
1. grantor has not conveyed the same estate or any interest therein to anyone other than the grantee
2. estate is free from encumbrances made by the grantor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

damages and remote grantees

A

remote grantees cannot enforce present covenants

if there are successive conveyances by GWD and the last grantee is evicted by lawful claim of title, HE MAY SUE ANYONE UP THE LINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

defective deeds

A

void - set aside even if property has passed to BFP (forged, never delivered, issued to nonexistent grantee, obtained by fraud in the fact [grantor was deceived and did not realize that she was executing deed])

voidable - set aside only if the property has not passed to BFP (executed by minors/incapacitated people, fraud in inducement, duress, undue influence, mistake, breach of fiduciary duty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fraudulent conveyances of deeds

A

may be set aside by grantor’s creditors if it was made:
1. with actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud any creditor of the grantor; or
2. without receiving aa reasonably equivalent value in exchange for the transfer, and the debtor was insolvent or became insolvent as a result of the transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when are deeds based on fraudulent conveyance not set aside?

A

against any grantee who took in good faith and paid reasonably equivalent value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

closing disclosures

A

residential mortgage lenders must provide within 3 business days prior to closing; details about mortgage including:
1. principal, interest, and payment amounts
2. closing costs
3. any potential surprises to mortgagors
4. cash required to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

notice of defects upon closing (disclosures)

A

seller who fails to disclose KNOWN defect that must be disclosed in disclosure form will be liable for defect AFTER closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

race statutes

A

first in time, first in right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

notice statutes

A

last BFP to take wins; recording does not matter

subsequent purchaser who had NO NOTICE of a prior conveyance by the grantor will prevail over a prior grantee who failed to record

ex. A conveyance of an interest in land (O to A) shall not be valid against any subsequent purchaser for value (B), without notice thereof, unless the conveyance is recorded (duty on A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

race-notice statutes

A

last BFP wins if he is the last to take AND he records

ex. Any conveyance of an interest in land (O to A) shall not be valid against any subsequent purchaser for value (B) without notice thereof, whose conveyance is first recorded (duty on B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

can donees, heirs, and devisees ever be BFPs?

A

generally no; they have to be a purchaser for value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

does the shelter rule protect the doomed donee?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

chain of title - transferees from BFP (shelter rule)

A

anyone who takes from BFP will prevail against any interest the BFP would have prevailed against

steps into shoes of transferor even if they would fail under the statute

ex. O conveys to A, who does not record. Later, O transfers the same parcel to B, a BFP, who records. B then conveys to CC, who is a mere donee or who has actual knowledge of the O to A transfer. In the contest of A vs. C, who wins? C (B was a BFP)

30
Q

chain of title - wild deeds

A

recorded deed that is NOT connected to the chain of title; not recorded = still inquiry notice

if a deed, entered on the records, has a grantor unconnected to the chain of title, the deed is wild and is incapable of giving record notice of its existence

31
Q

chain of title - estoppel by deed

A

one who conveys realty in which he has NO INTEREST is estopped from denying the validity of that conveyance if he subsequently acquires the title that he had previously purported to transfer

shoots back in time to protect first BFP

32
Q

chain of title - deeds recorded late

A

deed recorded after the grantor parts with title through subsequent deed is NOT constructive notice in most states

33
Q

who is the mortgagor

A

borrower

34
Q

who is the mortgagee

A

lender

35
Q

2 documents involved in mortgage

A
  1. promissory note (mortgagor’s personal obligation)
  2. mortgage (agreement that says if the mortgagor quits paying, the land can be sold to pay the mortgagee)
36
Q

purchase-money mortgage

A

extension of value by a lender who takes as collateral a security interest in the very real estate that the loan enables the debtor to acquire

37
Q

creation of purchase-money mortgage

A

2 union elements: debt & voluntary transfer of debtor’s land to satisfy debt

  • WRITING (legal mortgage)
38
Q

transfer of interests by mortgagee

A

indorse note & deliver to transferee; or execute separate document of assignment

39
Q

transfer of interests by mortgagor**

A

buyer either assumes the mortgage or takes the property subject to the mortgage

if assume - grantee agrees to be responsible for mortgage note –> original mortgagor secondarily liable (mortgagee can sue either one or both at the same time under joint liability)

subject to - not agreeing to be responsible for note; mortgagee’s only recourse its foreclosure –> original mortgagor primarily liable, nothing re grantee

40
Q

If O (mortgagor) sells Blackacre, which is now mortgaged, what happens to the mortgage?

A

if it is recorded, IT REMAINS ON THE LAND

grantee will not be personally liable unless they assume it; mortgage remains on the land b/c recording statutes protect mortgages

41
Q

deed in lieu of foreclosure

A

permits mortgagee to take immediate possession without a foreclosure sale

42
Q

Are junior mortgagees required to be named in foreclosure actions?

A

YES; jr mortgagees have the right to pay off the sr mortgagee in order to avoid being wiped out by foreclosure

43
Q

What if the proceeds from the sale of Blackacre are less than the amount owed? What happens if there is a surplus?

A

mortgagee brings deficiency action against mortgagor; jr liens are paid off in order of priority, then remainder to debtor

44
Q

Each claimant is entitled to satisfaction _________________ before a junior lien holder may take.

A

IN FULL

45
Q

necessary parties to foreclosure action

A

jr lienholders, debtor

if a necessary party is NOT jointed, their mortgage will remain on the land

46
Q

senior interests (mortgages)

A

foreclosure DOES NOT affect any interest senior to the mortgage being foreclosed; the buyer at the sale takes subject to such interest, but is not personally liable for it

if the senior mortgage is not paid sooner or later, the senior creditor will foreclose against the land

47
Q

priorities of creditors

A

creditors MUST record or they will have no priority; determined by first-in-time, first-in-right

48
Q

subordination agreements

A

by private agreement, sr creditor may agree to subordinate its priority to a jr creditor; this is allowed

49
Q

redemption in equity

A

universally recognized up until the date of foreclosure sale; at any time prior, the debtor has the right to redeem the land by freeing it of the mortgage

debtor cannot waive the right to redeem the mortgage itself

50
Q

statutory right of redemption

A

statute gives debtor right to redeem for a fixed period after the foreclosure sale; amount to be paid is usually the foreclosure price, rather than the amount of the original debt

51
Q

zoning (generally)

A

government may reasonably control land use for the protection of the health, safety, morals, and welfare of its citizens

limited by DPC and EPC of 14A

52
Q

zoning variance

A

grants the landowner permission to depart from the literal restrictions of a zoning ordinance

landowner must show: undue hardship, no diminution in neighboring property values

53
Q

when will a variance not be granted?

A

hardship has been created by the applicant themselves

54
Q

nonconforming use

A

cannot eliminate a once-lawful use altogether; insubstantial changes are permitted

55
Q

cumulative zoning

A

creates a hierarchy of uses of land, where a single-family home is the highest use, followed by a two family home, then an apartment building, and then a strip mall, then a factory

land that is zoned for a particular use may be used FOR THE STATED PURPOSE

higher use is allowed in lesser ranked districts

56
Q

noncumulative zoning

A

land may be used ONLY FOR THE PURPOSE IN WHICH IT IS ZONED; no trading up or down

57
Q

special use permits

A

must be obtained even though zoning is proper for intended use; checklist

often required for hospitals, funeral homes, drive-in businesses

must comply with safety requirements even though it is allowed

58
Q

condominium ownership

A

treated as fee ownership

59
Q

HOAs

A

oversees all common elements and enforces governing rules

60
Q

HOA rules

A

declaration of covenants, conditions, and restrictions (CC&R) that prescribe what owners can and cannot do with their property; enforced by board with oversight from HOA

61
Q

condo fees

A

dues to HOA, used for maintaining common elements

if fees cannot cover a necessary repair, 1 time fee is assessed against all condo owners

62
Q

cooperatives

A

title to land and building is held by a corporation that leases individual apartments to its shareholders; direct restraint on alienation of an individual interest is valid

63
Q

lateral support of land

A

right to have land supported in its natural state; landowner is strictly liable if their excavation causes adjacent land to subside

if land is improved by buildings and an adjacent landowner excavates causing improved land to cave in, the excavator will be liable ONLY IF they were negligent

strict liability will apply to the excavator’s actions if plaintiff shows that, b/c of the excavator’s actions, the plaintiff’s improved land would have collapsed EVEN IN ITS NATURAL STATE

64
Q

subjacent support of land

A

underground occupant of land must support the surface and buildings existing on the date the subjacent land was created; liability requires negligence

65
Q

water rights - watercourses (streams, rivers, lakes)

A

riparian doctrine - water belongs to those who own the land bordering the watercourse

prior appropriation doctrine - water initially belongs to the state, but the right to divert it and use it can be acquired by an individual through their actual use, regardless of whether or not they happen to be a riparian owner (can be lost by abandonment)

66
Q

types of riparian doctrines

A

natural flow theory - use is enjoinable if it results in substantial/material diminution of the water’s quantity, quality, or velocity

reasonable use theory - an owner’s use is not enjoinable unless it substantially interferes with other riparian owners (alteration of flow, purpose of use, pollution, extent of use, destination of water taken, misc conduct that may give rise to litigation)

natural vs. artificial use - natural uses (human uses - gardening, consumption) prevail over artificial uses (irrigation, manufacturing)

67
Q

groundwater (percolating water)

A

absolute ownership doctrine - owner of overlying land can take all the water they wish, for any purpose, including export (reasonable use is default)

reasonable use - exporting is allowed only if it does not harm other owners who have rights in the same aquifer

correlative rights - owners of overlying land own the underground water basin as joint tenants, each is allowed a reasonable amount of his own use

appropriative rights - priority of use is determinative

restatement - owner may pump groundwater UNLESS unreasonably harms neighboring landowners, exceeds the pumper’s reasonable share, or directly/substantially affects surface waters and unreasonably harms surface water users

68
Q

surface waters

A

general: landowner can use surface water within their boundaries for any purpose they desire

natural flow theory - cannot alter natural drainage patterns

common enemy (default) - an owner can Taake any protective measures to get rid of water or combat its flow

reasonable use - balance utility of use against gravity of harm

69
Q

right in airspace

A

right to airspace above a parcel is not absolute, owner is entitled to freedom from excessive noise

70
Q

right to exclude - remedies for possessor

A
  1. trespass - ejectment
  2. private nuisance - injunction
  3. continuing trespass - ejectment
  4. ejectment or unlawful detainer to remove trespasser/tenant; pair with money damages