Modulel 1 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the two primary types of physicians?
A
Medical doctor (MD) and
doctor of osteopathy (DO)
These are the most recognized types of physicians.
2
Q
What type of providers are medical doctors categorized as?
A
Allopathic providers
This refers to the conventional approach to medicine.
3
Q
What are the primary responsibilities of medical doctors?
A
- Diagnose illnesses
- Provide treatments
- Perform surgical procedures
- Write prescriptions
These responsibilities encompass a wide range of medical care.
4
Q
What additional therapy asides modern medicine and surgical procedures do doctors of osteopathy utilize?
A
Osteopathic manipulative therapy
This therapy is a distinctive aspect of osteopathic medicine.
5
Q
True or False: The training and expertise of MDs and DOs are identical.
A
False
While their scope of practice is nearly the same, there are slight variations in training and expertise.
6
Q
What is the role of physician assistants (PA)?
A
Practice medicine under the direction and supervision of a licensed MD or DO, while making clinical decisions.
PAs are trained to perform many of the same functions as physicians, including patient assessments, diagnosis, and treatment.
7
Q
What services do nurse practitioners (NP) provide?
A
Basic patient care services, including diagnosing and prescribing medications for common illnesses.
NPs often focus on preventive care and patient education.
8
Q
Where can registered nurses (RNs) work?
A
Clinical settings, public health agencies, administrative capacities, educational settings
RNs have opportunities in various fields due to their extensive training.
9
Q
assist patients who have conditions that disable them developmentally, emotionally, mentally, or physically.
A
occupational therapists
10
Q
what therapist assists patients in improving mobility, strength, and range of motion.
A
physical therapists
11
Q
In Washington, what must nationally certified medical assistants obtain to perform phlebotomy or EKGs?
A
Licensing credentials through the Washington State Department of Health
12
Q
What are the advantages of certification for medical assistants?
A
Increased initial job placement, higher wages, and career advancement opportunities
13
Q
How long is the certification valid for those certified through NHA?
A
Two years
14
Q
What must certified professionals do to renew their certification after two years?
A
Retake the certification exam or complete 10 hours of continuing education
15
Q
True or False: Only licensed medical professionals can provide treatment in Washington.
A
True
16
Q
Which of the following describes the process for obtaining a medical license from one state based on requirements being met in another state?
A
reciprocity
17
Q
What is inpatient care?
A
Care that occurs while the patient is admitted to a hospital or facility.
18
Q
What does ambulatory care refer to?
A
Any care received in an outpatient facility.
19
Q
What types of visits are common in primary care clinics?
A
- Wellness checks
- Prevention counseling
- Chronic conditions
- Medication management
- Minor acute needs
20
Q
What are specialty care clinics?
A
Outpatient facilities where patients with complex or severe diseases are seen for routine visits by specialists.
21
Q
What is home health care?
A
Care provided to patients who cannot easily leave their home, including physical, occupational, and speech therapy.
22
Q
Who typically oversees home health care?
A
A primary care provider (PCP).
23
Q
What are mobile health units?
A
Teams that bring health care to communities lacking access, equipped with transportation and medical equipment.
24
Q
What is hospice care?
A
End-of-life care focused on comfort rather than curative efforts.
25
What qualifies a patient for hospice care?
Having a terminal illness at the end stage.
26
What is the patient-centered medical home (PCMH)?
A care delivery model where a PCP coordinates treatment to ensure patients receive required care when and where they need it.
27
What aspects of care does the PCMH encompass?
* Prevention
* Wellness education
* Acute illness management
* Chronic disease management
* End-of-life care
28
What type of approach does the PCMH represent in health care?
A team-based approach to health care.
29
Who leads the interprofessional team in a PCMH?
A provider.
30
What roles do medical assistants play in the PCMH?
* Assisting with direct patient care
* Care coordination
* Patient education
* Administrative tasks
31
What is telehealth?
Health care delivered virtually, most commonly via video call
32
Why might scheduling virtual visits require more time?
The MA must gather or confirm the patient’s email address, ensure the link has been sent, and review instructions
33
What is a test visit in the context of telehealth?
An administrator or MA logs into the link to ensure the patient can access it when it is time for their appointment
34
In what ways can medical assistants participate in virtual visits?
Gathering history, verifying medication and pharmacy information, setting an agenda, and following up on next steps
35
What are patient portals?
It lets patients log in online to view their health information, like test results, medications, and appointment details.
36
What types of information can patients view through patient portals?
* Test results
* Visit notes
* Patient education materials
37
What is the primary payment model used in the U.S. healthcare system?
The fee-for-service model.
38
What is associated with every medical service, test, and procedure?
A procedural code and charge.
39
Who manages the charges for medical services in the fee-for-service model?
The provider’s medical billing department.
40
Who receives the bill for medical services?
The insurance company or directly the patient.
41
What happens after the insurance company receives the bill for medical services?
The insurance charges the patient a predetermined amount for which they are responsible.
42
Service where the cost to the insurance and patient is determined by the cost of services provided
and/or
Doctors get paid for every visit or treatment you get, so they’re paid more the more they do for you.
Fee-for-Service:
43
service where the cost is determined by the value to the patient and their long-term health.
and/or
Doctors get paid based on how well you’re doing health-wise, not just how many visits or treatments you have. The goal is to keep you healthy and avoid unnecessary care.
Value-Based Care:
44
Q: How do general practitioners (GPs) approach patient care?
A: GPs may take a holistic approach, considering biological, psychological, and social aspects of the patient’s illness.
45
Q: Who do family practitioners provide care for?
A: Family practitioners care for the whole family, from newborns to older adults.
46
Q: What type of care do internists provide?
A: Internists provide comprehensive care for adults, focusing on chronic conditions, common illnesses, and preventive care.
47
Q: How can medical assistants interact with specialists?
A: Medical assistants can manage and coordinate referrals from primary care offices to specialists.
48
Q: What role do medical assistants play in supporting specialists?
A: Medical assistants directly support the specialist provider by assisting with various tasks.
49
what are ancilllary servies?
services that are additional healthcare services provided to support the main care a patient receives. They are often offered alongside primary medical treatments and help meet specific medical needs.
Examples of ancillary services include:
Laboratory tests (e.g., blood tests)
X-rays and imaging (e.g., MRIs, CT scans)
Physical therapy
Pharmacy services (e.g., filling prescriptions)
Diagnostic services (e.g., EKGs, sleep studies)
50
Q: What is the goal of energy therapy?
A: Energy therapy clears cellular memory through the human energy field, promoting health, balance, and relaxation, focusing on the connection between physical, emotional, and mental states.
51
Q: What do dietary supplements contain?
A: Dietary supplements contain ingredients like vitamins, minerals, herbs, or botanicals, which can come from various plant parts for flavor, scent, or therapeutic properties.
51
When and why may a patient benefit from going to urgent care rather than an emergency department?
Urgent care costs less, has a shorter wait time, and is often conveniently located. Most have flexible hours and offer walk-in appointments. They are appropriate to use for non-life-threatening acute injuries and illnesses.
52
How are medications classified?
they are classified based on their therapeutic action, but they can also be grouped by their chemical makeup, the body systems they affect, or the symptoms they treat. Some medications fit into more than one category.
53
Q: What did the federal Controlled Substances Act (CSA) create?
A: The CSA created five schedules for controlled substances based on their potential for abuse and addiction.
54
This schedule includes substances with a high potential for abuse and no approved medical use in the U.S. These substances are illegal and cannot be prescribed. Examples include heroin, mescaline, and LSD.
Schedule 1
54
Q: Why must medical assistants understand the schedules of controlled substances?
A: Medical assistants need to understand these schedules to ensure medications are prescribed and managed according to appropriate protocols.
55
This schedule includes substances with a high potential for abuse, danger of physical and psychological dependence, but they are approved for medical use. Examples include morphine, oxycodone, and amphetamines.
Schedule 2
56
Q: How should Schedule II substances be stored?
A: They must be stored in a safe or steel cabinet of substantial construction, and if under 750 pounds, must be mounted or secured to something sturdy. The safe should have locks on both inner and outer doors.
57
This schedule includes substances that have moderate to low potential for abuse and include ketamine, anabolic steroids, and acetaminophen with codeine.
schedule 3
58
This schedule includes substances that have a low potential for abuse and dependence. Examples include tramadol and benzodiazepines like diazepam and alprazolam.
schedule 4
59
This schedule includes substances with limited narcotic quantities, typically for antidiarrheal, antitussive, or analgesic purposes. Examples include diphenoxylate with atropine and pregabalin.
schedule 5
60
what a U.S. law that regulates the manufacture, distribution, and use of controlled substances—drugs and chemicals that have the potential for abuse and addiction. The CSA classifies these substances into five schedules (I-V) based on their potential for abuse, medical use, and the risk of addiction.
Controlled Substances Act (CSA)
60
what are the good effects for which medications are prescribed, helping to treat a condition.
therapeutic effects
61
effects that are undesirable, unintended effects on the body, like nausea or dry mouth, which can limit the medication’s usefulness.
Side effects
62
effects that are harmful, unintended reactions, like an allergic reaction, that prevent further use of the medication.
Q: What are adverse effects of medications?
63
Q: What are the typical symptoms of a mild allergic reaction?
A: Mild allergic reactions usually manifest as itchy rashes.
64
Q: What are the symptoms of a serious allergic reaction?
A: Serious allergic reactions involve spasms of the airways, swelling of the face and throat, and a serious decrease in blood pressure.
65
Q: What should be done if a patient has a serious or anaphylactic allergic reaction?
A: The patient needs epinephrine and immediate medical attention.
66
Q: When should medication allergies be reviewed?
A: Medication allergies should be discussed, reviewed, and updated at every visit and confirmed before prescribing or administering medications.
67
Q: What over-the-counter medication can help relieve a minor allergic reaction?
A: An antihistamine like diphenhydramine can help relieve a mild allergic reaction.
68
Q: What is the indication for a medication?
A: The indication for a medication is the symptoms or reason a medication is prescribed.
69
Q: What are contraindications?
A: Contraindications are symptoms or conditions that make a medication inadvisable or dangerous to use.
70
Q: What is the most common contraindication for a medication?
A: The most common contraindication is hypersensitivity (an allergic reaction) to that medication.
71
Q: Give an example of a contraindication related to liver disease.
A: Cirrhosis of the liver is a contraindication for taking acarbose, and hepatitis is a contraindication for taking duloxetine.
72
Q: What are some medications toxic to the liver and require caution in patients with liver disease?
A: Medications like acetaminophen, phenytoin, fluconazole, bupropion, penicillin, erythromycin, rifampin, ritonavir, lisinopril, and losartan require caution in patients with liver disease.
73
Q: What is the difference between contraindications and interactions?
A: Contraindications are conditions that make a medication dangerous to use, while interactions are how a medication may interact with food or other medications, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing harm.
74
Q: What effect does grapefruit juice have on medications?
A: Grapefruit juice interferes with the metabolism of many medications, raising their levels and increasing the risk of toxicity. Medications affected include dextromethorphan, simvastatin, and sildenafil.
75
Q: How does St. John’s wort interact with other medications?
A: St. John’s wort reduces the effectiveness of medications like warfarin and oral contraceptives.
76
Q: What are some common effects of medications on the cardiovascular system?
A: Medications may cause changes in heart rate, blood pressure, vision, and hearing.
77
Q: In which system are most medication prescriptions and dosages written?
metric system
78
Q: Why do medical assistants need to understand conversions and calculations?
A: Medical assistants need to understand conversions and calculations because some medications are in different systems (apothecary, standard), and some doses depend on a patient's weight in kilograms, especially for pediatric doses.
79
Q: What are the common units of weight in the metric system used in the medical field?
A: The common units of weight in the metric system are kilograms (kg), grams (g), milligrams (mg), and micrograms (mcg).
80
Q: What are the common units of volume in the metric system used in the medical field?
A: The common units of volume in the metric system are deciliters (dL), liters (L), and milliliters (mL).
81
Q: What are the common units of length in the metric system?
A: The common units of length in the metric system are kilometers (km), meters (m), centimeters (cm), and millimeters (mm).
82
Q: When might metric length measurements be used in clinical practice?
A: Metric length measurements may be used for measuring wounds or distances in medical procedures.
83
1 kilogram (kg) is how many lbs?
2.2 pounds
84
Creams can be used where?
topical, vaginal, rectal
85
Drops can be used where?
Otic, ophthalmic, nasal
86
Foams can be used where on the body?
vaginal
87
Gels can be used where on the body?
topical, rectal, oral
88
Tablets can be used where on the body?
oral, buccal, sublingual, vaginal
89
Q: Why is it important to be careful when handling and administering medications with similar names or labels?
A: It’s important because medications with similar names or labels can lead to serious medication errors. Always check the label against the prescription to ensure accuracy.
90
Q: How many checks should be performed before administering any medication?
A: Three checks should be performed before administering any medication.
91
Q: What is the first check to perform before administering medication?
A: The first check is to check the medication against the prescription when the medication is selected.
92
Q: What is the second check to perform before administering medication?
A: The second check is to check the medication and prescription when preparing the dose.
93
Q: What is the third check to perform before administering medication?
A: The third check is to recheck the medication before restocking the bottle.
94
Q: What does enteral medication administration involve?
A: Enteral medication administration involves taking medication through the gastrointestinal tract, such as orally (by mouth).
95
Q: What does parenteral medication administration involve?
A: Parenteral medication administration involves taking medication outside the gastrointestinal tract, such as through injections (intramuscular, intradermal, subcutaneous, intravenous), as well as topical, vaginal, and inhalation routes.
96
Q: What is the most common form of parenteral medication?
A: The most common form of parenteral medication is injections, including intramuscular, intradermal, subcutaneous, and intravenous routes.
97
Q: What is the location for intradermal injections?
A: Intradermal injections are administered in the skin of the upper chest, forearms, and upper back.
98
Q: What is the location for intramuscular (IM) injections?
A: Intramuscular (IM) injections are administered in the deltoid, vastus lateralis, and ventrogluteal muscles.
99
Q: What is the location for subcutaneous (SQ or Sub-Q) injections?
A: Subcutaneous (SQ or Sub-Q) injections are administered in the upper arms, abdomen, buttocks, and upper outer thighs.
100
Q: What is pharmacokinetics?
A: Pharmacokinetics is the study of how medications move through the body.
101
Q: What are the four actions involved in pharmacokinetics?
A: The four actions involved in pharmacokinetics are absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
102
Q: How are oral tablets and capsules absorbed?
A: Oral tablets and capsules move through the stomach or intestines to be absorbed into the bloodstream.
103
Q: Why are oral liquids absorbed faster than tablets or capsules?
A: Oral liquids are absorbed faster because the stomach’s fluids don’t need to break them down, allowing quicker absorption.
104
Q: How does the route of administration affect absorption?
A: The route of administration affects absorption because, for example, with IV administration, the medication goes directly into the bloodstream, leading to a quicker onset of action compared to other routes.
105
Q: What is distribution in pharmacokinetics?
A: Distribution is the process of transporting the medication throughout the body via the bloodstream to tissues and organs.
106
Q: How does the placental barrier affect medication distribution?
A: The placental barrier allows some medications to cross very easily, which is why many medications can be risky for pregnant patients.
107
Q: Which organ is the primary site of medication metabolism?
A: The liver is the primary organ for medication metabolism.
108
Q: What factors can affect a patient's ability to metabolize medications?
A: Factors include the patient’s age, the number of medications they take, the health of organs like the liver and kidneys, and even their genetic makeup.
109
Q: Do the kidneys play a role in medication metabolism?
A: Yes, the kidneys also metabolize some medications.
110
Q: How do the kidneys contribute to medication excretion?
A: The kidneys primarily remove medication metabolites through urine.
111
Q: Besides urine, which other ways can medications be excreted from the body?
A: Medications can also be excreted through feces, saliva, bile, sweat glands, breast milk, and even exhaled air.
112
Q: Which of the four actions of pharmacokinetics affects the ability of a patient who is pregnant to take medications and why?
A: Distribution affects the ability of a pregnant patient to take medications because some medications can easily cross the placental barrier, which can expose the fetus to potentially harmful substances.
113
Which of the following actions of pharmacokinetics changes active forms of the medication into harmless metabolites?
metabolism
114
Q: What were the original five rights of medication administration?
A: The original five rights are the right patient, right medication, right dose, right time, and right route.
115
Q: What additional rights are considered essential in medication administration?
A: In addition to the five rights, the right technique and right documentation are also considered essential.
116
Q: How many patient identifiers should medical assistants use before administering medication?
A: Medical assistants should use two patient identifiers to verify the correct patient.
117
Q: What is the most common method for verifying a patient’s identity?
A: The most common method is asking the patient to state their full name and date of birth.
118
Q: Can other forms of identification be used besides name and date of birth?
A: Yes, other acceptable identifiers include a mobile phone number or a photo ID card that pertains only to that patient.
119
Q: What is the triple-check process for verifying medication?
A: The triple-check process, also known as the “three befores,” involves checking the medication label three times:
When taking the medication container from storage.
When preparing the medication for administration.
When putting the container back in storage or discarding it.
120
Q: What should you check on the medication label during the triple-check process?
A: During the triple-check process, you should verify the medication name, strength, and dose.
121
Q: What should you also check for when reviewing the medication label?
A: Always check the expiration date to ensure the medication has not expired.
122
Q: What should medical assistants compare before administering medication?
A: Medical assistants must compare the route on the prescription in the medical record with the route they are planning to use.
123
Q: Where can medical assistants find information on the correct route of administration for a medication?
A: The correct route of administration can be confirmed by checking the medication’s product insert, the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR), or another reliable reference source.
124
Q: What is the correct angle of insertion for an intramuscular (IM) injection?
A: The correct angle of insertion for an intramuscular injection is 90 degrees.
125
Q: What is the correct angle of insertion for an intradermal injection?
A: The correct angle of insertion for an intradermal injection is 10 to 15 degrees.
126
Q: What is the correct angle of insertion for a subcutaneous (SQ) injection?
A: The correct angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection is 45 degrees.
127
Q: When should medication administration be documented?
A: Medication administration should be documented after the patient receives the medication, not before.
128
Q: What must be documented if a medication was not administered as prescribed?
A: If a medication is not administered as prescribed, the documentation must include why the medication was not given.
129
Q: What are the key elements that must be documented when administering medication?
Key elements to document include:
Date and time
Quantity
Medication
Strength
Method and location of administration
Lot number, manufacturer, and expiration date
Patient outcome, including any reaction or adverse effects.
130
Q: How should a patient's response to medication be documented?
A: The documentation should note how the patient tolerated the medication, including whether there were any adverse effects or reactions.
131
Q: What is the Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR)?
A: The Physicians’ Desk Reference (PDR) is a comprehensive reference book that contains detailed information about thousands of medications.
132
Q: How is the PDR updated each year?
A: A new edition of the PDR is published annually, with free copies sent to providers’ offices, and additional copies available for purchase.
133
what are essential food substances—both organic and inorganic—that the body needs for energy, growth, repair, disease resistance, fluid balance, and thermoregulation.
nutrients
134
what are those nutrients the body cannot produce on its own and must obtain from food, such as certain vitamins, minerals, and amino acids.
essential nutrients
135
Q: Can the body produce nonessential nutrients?
A: Yes, nonessential nutrients are those the body can produce, such as vitamin D and cholesterol, which do not need to come from the diet.
136
Q: Which nutrients provide calories?
A: Proteins, carbohydrates, and fats (lipids) are nutrients that contain calories.
137
Q: Which nutrients do not contain calories?
A: Water, vitamins, minerals, and fiber do not contain calories.
138
Q: How many primary nutrients are there?
A: There are six primary nutrients: water, carbohydrates, protein, fat, minerals, and vitamins.
139
Q: How much water should a person drink each day for optimal health?
A: It is recommended that people drink 2 to 3 L (64 to 96 oz) of water each day.
140
Q: What are the main functions of water in the body?
A: Water has many functions, including:
Transporting nutrients and oxygen
Helping remove waste
Regulating body temperature through perspiration
Providing the basic component of blood and other bodily fluids.
141
Q: How does the body use amino acids from proteins?
A: The body uses amino acids from proteins to repair and build tissues.
142
Q: What are the two types of carbohydrates?
Simple sugars – Examples: honey, candy, cane sugar.
Complex carbohydrates – Examples: fruits, vegetables, cereal, pasta, rice, beans, whole-grain products.
143
Q: What is the main energy source from carbohydrates for the body?
A: The body uses glucose, a simple sugar, as the primary energy source for its cells.
144
Q: How many calories are in 1 gram of carbohydrate?
A: 1 gram of carbohydrate provides 4 calories.
145
Q: What is Ginkgo biloba used for?
A: Ginkgo biloba is used to improve memory and mental function by increasing blood flow to the brain.
146
Q: What factors should be considered when coaching a patient on nutrition?
A: Factors like age, sex, height, weight, and chronic diseases should be considered when coaching a patient on nutrition.
147
Q: What should be avoided or severely limited for better health?
A: Foods high in added sugars should be avoided or severely limited.
148
Q: What type of foods should be limited to promote better nutrition?
A: Foods high in carbohydrates, especially those with refined grains, should be limited.
149
Q: What is chronic kidney disease (CKD) and who is most affected?
A: CKD is the gradual decrease in kidney function, primarily affecting older adults. Many individuals have early-stage CKD without knowing it.
149
Q: What is celiac disease?
A: Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder where individuals cannot consume gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) without adverse effects.
150
Q: What are eating disorders, and which are the most common types?
A: Eating disorders are unhealthy food patterns that impair health. The most common are anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge-eating disorder.
151
Q: What are the key warning signs and symptoms of anorexia nervosa?
Self-starvation
Perfectionism
Extreme sensitivity to criticism
Fear of weight gain
Weight loss of at least 15%
Amenorrhea (no menstrual periods)
Denial of hunger
Excessive exercise
Ritualistic eating behavior
Unrealistic view of self as obese
152
Q: What should medical assistants do if they suspect a patient has anorexia nervosa?
A: Alert the provider immediately because anorexia nervosa can be life-threatening.
153
Q: What is bulimia nervosa?
A: Bulimia nervosa involves binge eating (eating large amounts of food) followed by purging through self-induced vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics.
154
Q: What are some common warning signs and symptoms of bulimia nervosa?
Buying and consuming large amounts of food
Purging after eating excessive food
Going to the bathroom immediately after eating when dining with others
Using laxatives or diuretics
Maintaining constant weight while overeating
Mood swings
Depression and guilt after binging and purging
155
Q: What is binge eating disorder?
A: Binge eating disorder involves binge eating (eating large amounts of food) without purging behaviors (like vomiting, laxatives, or diuretics).
156
How could the MA explain the mild side effects a patients may experience with the medications to help them understand that they are not worrisome?
The MA can help Mr. Turner understand that mild side effects from his new medications are common and usually not a cause for concern, especially early on in treatment. Here's how the MA might explain it:
"Mr. Turner, it’s great that you’re committed to managing your health. As you start these new medications, it's important to remember that some mild side effects can happen as your body adjusts. These effects are usually temporary and tend to improve after a few days or weeks. Let me explain some of the more common ones so you know what to expect:
It’s important to keep in mind that if you experience any severe symptoms—like chest pain, severe dizziness, or swelling in your face or throat—please contact us right away, as those could be signs of a more serious reaction. But in general, most side effects are mild and temporary. I’m here to help answer any questions you might have along the way.
Also, with your lifestyle changes, like diet and exercise, your body will start adjusting, and we’ll keep monitoring your progress to make sure everything is working the way it should."
157
Q: What does the sagittal plane divide the body into?
A: The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right sides.
158
Q: What does the transverse plane divide the body into?
A: The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower sections, but not necessarily equally.
159
Q: What does the frontal plane (also called the coronal plane) divide the body into?
A: The frontal plane divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) sections.
160
Q: What does the cranial cavity house?
A: The cranial cavity houses the meninges and the brain.
161
Q: What does the spinal cavity contain?
A: The spinal cavity contains the spinal cord and is formed by the vertebrae.
162
Q: What is housed within the thoracic cavity?
A: The thoracic cavity houses the lungs, heart, and major vessels.
163
Q: What organs are found in the abdominal cavity?
A: The abdominal cavity houses several major organs such as the stomach, liver, gallbladder, and intestines.
164
Q: What is located in the pelvic cavity?
A: The pelvic cavity houses the bladder and reproductive organs.
165
right upper quadrant
left upper quadrant
right lower
left lower
166
Q: What is the purpose of body systems, and how do they contribute to the body?
A: Body systems are groups of organs working together to perform complex tasks, and when they function efficiently, they help the body achieve homeostasis.
167
State in which the body’s systems and biological processes maintain stability.
homeostasis
168
Q: What is the largest organ of the body, and what are its accessory organs?
A: The largest organ of the body is the skin, and its accessory organs include hair, nails, and glands.
169
Q: What are the functions of the skin, and how do its accessory organs help?
A: The skin has several functions, such as protection, sensation, and temperature regulation, and its accessory organs, like hair, nails, and glands, assist in these functions.
170
Q: What are the two main parts of the skeletal system, and what do they include?
A: The skeletal system is divided into the axial skeleton (80 bones, including the skull, vertebrae, and ribs) and the appendicular skeleton (126 bones, including arms, legs, and pelvic girdle).
171
Q: What role do ligaments play in the skeletal system?
Ligaments attach bone to bone,
172
Q: What role do tendons play in the skeletal system?
A: Ligaments attach bone to bone, providing joint stability, while tendons attach muscles to bones, aiding in movement and reducing muscle injury by absorbing impact.
173
Q: How many times does the average adult heart beat per minute while at rest?
A: The average adult heart beats 60 to 80 times per minute while at rest.
174
Q: Where are the kidneys located and what is their primary function?
A: The kidneys are located on either side of the vertebral column at the level of the top lumbar vertebrae. Their primary function is to remove waste from the blood and produce urine.
175
include 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and they carry nerve signals between the body and the brain.
peripheral nerves
176
Q: What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
A: The two main divisions of the nervous system are the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).
177
Q: What does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?
A: The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord.
178
Q: What is the primary function of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
A: The primary function of the peripheral nervous system is to carry nerve signals between the body and the brain.
179
Q: What is the primary difference between endemic, epidemic, and pandemic diseases?
A: An endemic disease spreads at a normal rate within a community, an epidemic occurs when a disease spreads rapidly to a large number of people, and a pandemic is a worldwide outbreak of a disease.
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Q: Which organizations monitor disease outbreaks to prevent pandemics?
A: The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the World Health Organization (WHO) closely monitor disease outbreaks.
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Accrediting body that focuses on quality improvement and patient safety, certifying health care organizations and programs in the U.S. including hospitals and health care organizations that provide ambulatory and office-based surgery, behavioral health, home health care, laboratory, and nursing care center services.
The Joint Commission
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what is abbreviation: NPO
nothing by mouth
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what is abbreviation: PRN
as needed
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what is abbreviation: a.c.
before meals
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what is abbreviation: Ad Lib
As desired
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what is abbreviation: p.c.
After meals
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what is abbreviation: PO
By mouth
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Heart rate less than 60/min.
brachycardia
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Heart rate greater than 100/min.
tachycardia
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Which of the following is a patient likely referring to if they say they have “wear and tear” causing knee pain?
osteoarthritis
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what act requires medical offices and facilities to have appropriate access for patients who use wheelchairs or other assistive devices.
Americans with Disabilities Act
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Coping strategies individuals use to protect themselves from negative emotions such as guilt, anxiety, fear, and shame.
defence mechanism
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Stages of grief - DABDA
Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance
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Q: What is the most common method used for patient identification to ensure safety?
A: The most common method is asking patients to state their full name and date of birth.
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Q: What does the PHQ-2 screening assess?
A: The PHQ-2 assesses the frequency of depressed mood over the past two weeks.
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Q: What does one respiration include?
A: One respiration includes one complete inhalation and exhalation, marked by the rise and fall of the chest.
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Q: What is the expected respiratory rate for adolescents and adults?
A: The expected respiratory rate for adolescents and adults (12+ years) is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
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Q: What is the normal respiratory rate for school-age children (6-15 years)?
A: The normal respiratory rate for school-age children is 18 to 25 breaths per minute.
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Q: What is considered a normal SpO2 reading?
A: A normal SpO2 reading is 95% or higher.
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Q: What should be done if a patient’s SpO2 reading is below 90%?
A: If SpO2 is below 90%, it should be reported to the provider, and oxygen therapy may be required for hypoxemia.
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Q: How should the blood pressure cuff be inflated when measuring blood pressure?
A: The cuff should be inflated until the pulse disappears, then add 30 mm Hg to ensure proper systolic pressure measurement.
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Q: How do you assess pain in a patient?
A: Ask the patient to rate pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst.
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Q: How is children's pain assessed?
A: Children's pain can be assessed using the Wong-Baker faces rating scale.
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Q: What is the Last Menstrual Period (LMP)?
A: The Last Menstrual Period (LMP) is the first day of the previous menstrual cycle.
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Q: Until what age should the circumference of a child’s head be measured at a well-child visit?
A: The circumference of a child’s head should be measured until the age of 3 years.
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Q: What is involved in anthropometric measurements?
A: Anthropometric measurements involve the measurement of height, weight, and sometimes other parts of the body.
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Q: What criteria is used to determine a patient's BMI?
A: A patient’s BMI is determined using height and weight.
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Q: Do patients have the right to refuse treatment or measurements?
A: Yes, all patients have the right to refuse treatment or measurements.
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Q: What should a medical assistant do if a patient refuses treatment or measurements?
A: A medical assistant should empathize with the patient, understand their perspective, and educate them on the importance of the treatment, procedure, or medication.
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Q: When did the DEA's rule on Electronic Prescriptions for Controlled Substances (EPCS) become effective?
A: The DEA's rule on Electronic Prescriptions for Controlled Substances (EPCS) became effective on June 1, 2010.
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Q: What did the DEA's rule on Electronic Prescriptions for Controlled Substances (EPCS) provide health care providers?
A: The rule provided health care providers with the option to write prescriptions for controlled substances electronically.
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Where can you find an advance directive in a patient's medical record?
Administrative data
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Q: What is an EMR?
A: An EMR is an electronic version of a patient’s medical history, used within a single organization.
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Q: What is an EHR?
A: An EHR contains a patient's EMR and can be used across multiple healthcare organizations.
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Q: How is an EHR different from an EMR?
A: An EHR contains the patient's EMR but can be shared across different healthcare organizations, while an EMR is limited to a single organization.
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