Module exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which cell organelle(s) is/are found only in plants?

A

Choroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which cell organelle(s) is/are found only in plants?

A

Choroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This procedure involves the disruption of cells to release intact organelles for study

A

Centrifugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The component of the cytoskeleton of cells that makes

up the cilia and flagella which mediate cell movement

A

Microtubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is not a constituent of sphingomyelin?

A

Glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the following decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen EXCEPT:

A

Carbon monoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following would increase the P50 in the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve?

A

Decreased pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following directly influences a solution’s power of hydrogen?

A

Concentration of protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The following acids have corresponding pKas: X = 3.5, Y = 7, Z = 7.2. Which of the following is considered the weakest acid?

A

X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The following are lipid components of membranes, except:

A

Triacyglycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A certain disease is due to the formation of salt bridges between amino acids within an important protein. Which of the following amino acids might be responsible for the disease?

A

Lysine and aspartic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The process of translation is responsible for which of the following?

A

Linking amino acids together via peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If you throw a bunch of amino acids into water, and if they arrange themselves into a
blob, which among the following amino acids will you most probably see at the center of the hypothetical amino acid blob?

A

Valine and tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The lipid bilayer can be best described as:

A

Composed of a layer of phospholipids arranged concentrically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The sequence of the first amino acids of polypeptide 1 is EWAN while those of two polypeptide is MALAY. Which of The following statement is TRUE regarding the protein structure?

A

Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the secondary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A protein in its denatured state:

A

Loses its biologic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which amino acid would most likely be found in the interior of a protein?

A

Phenylalanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which amino acids have a net charge of zero at physiologic pH?

A

Gln and His

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True of the iron atom in heme:

A

It is normally in its reduced form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which hemoglobin would most readily give off 1 molecule of oxygen to tissues?

A

Hemoglobin in the T state with 1 molecule of O2 attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following events is TRUE regarding denaturation of proteins?

A

Denaturation happens when you mix proteins and detergents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True of the characteristic(s) of enzymes:

A

Lowers the activation energy of the reactants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The protein portion of the enzyme is:

A

Apoenzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The effect of temperature on an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is best represented by:

A

Bell-shaped curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Phosphorylation of this aminoacyl residue can alter the catalytic efficiency of enzymes

A

Serine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Kinetic studies done on a new drug that inhibits xanthine oxidase, the enzyme that synthesizes uric acid, gave the graph below. This new drug for the treatment of gout is a:
Note: Check graph #25

A

Non-competitiive inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Blood clotting involves the activation of extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways, with both pathways leading to the synthesis of a stable fibrin clot. The mechanism by which these clotting factors are activated is through:

A

Partial proteolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The rates of most body enzymes are physiologically responsive to increases in substrate concentration because:

A

The intracellular level of many substrates is in the range of the Km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

One mechanism for the regulation of an enzyme’s activity is to add or remove a phosphate group. An enzyme that adds a phosphate group is called a:

A

Kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding coenzymes?

A

Are protein in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If a molecule attaches to an enzyme at a site other than the active site and changes the enzyme’s affinity for its substrate without cleaving any existing bonds on the enzyme,

A

It is a V-type allosteric effector that lowers Vmax without altering Km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which does not define proenzyme activation?

A

It is a reversible process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ATP acts as an allosteric activator of aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase). This means that:

A

The substrate saturation curve for Aspartate and ATCase shifts to the left, signifying increased affinity of ATCase for its substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following two enzymes are thought to be the major control enzymes of the TCA cycle?

A

α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and isocitrate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex is INCORRECT?

A

One of its coenzymes - lipoic acid - comes from the vitamin B-carotene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The cleavage of the high-energy bond of ATP into ADP and Pi is an example of what type of reaction?

A

Hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The fate of pyruvate depends on the cell’s metabolic needs. If the cell needs to increase its glucose concentration, pyruvate will be converted to:

A

Oxaloacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

This is the major regulatory enzyme of glycolysis:

A

Phosphofructokinase-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

True of phosphofructokinase:

A

It is inhibited when the cell is rich in ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True of the citric acid cycle:

A

It is involved in both anabolic and catabolic cellular pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which enzyme does not catalyze a reaction that generates NADH?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How many ATP can be formed from 1 mole of acetyl CoA that enters the citric acid cycle?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mannose can enter the glycolytic pathway by conversion to:

A

Fructose-6-phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How does galactitol accumulation in the lens of the eye lead to the development of cataract?

A

Galactitol osmotically absorbs water into the lens leading to water retention and swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The enzyme aldose reductase converts:

A

glucose to sorbitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The product of the phosphorylation of fructose by hexokinase

A

Fructose 1-phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Glycogen synthase adds glucose residues to the glycogen primer in the form of:

A

UDP-glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism are acted upon by protein phosphatase?

A

Glycogen synthase and phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The following are effects of epinephrine on glycogen metabolism, EXCEPT:

A

Inactivation of inhibitor-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The presence of this enzyme will activate glycogen synthase

A

Protein phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A deficiency of the following enzymes will manifest with hepatomegaly, EXCEPT:

A

Glycogen synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the effect of cAMP-dependent protein kinase on the following enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism?

A

Activates phosphorylase kinase and inhibitor-1; inactivates glycogen synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A patient with Her’s disease, a condition due to deficiency of glycogen phosphorylase in the liver:

A

Cannot increase blood glucose level in response to glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Upon the action of phosphorylase on glycogen, glucose residues are released in the form of:

A

Glucose 1-phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Unlike liver glycogen, muscle glycogen cannot be used for the maintenance of blood glucose level because muscles lack:

A

Glucose 6-phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In the formation of branch points in glycogen, part of the glucose chain is transferred to which carbon atom of glucose in another chain?

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Glycerol produced from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerol in the adipose tissue, is phosphorylated to glycerol 3-phosphate and enters gluconeogenesis by conversion to:

A

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The secretion of glucagon will promote the activity of the following enzymes, EXCEPT:

A

Phosphofructokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Propionate serves as substrate for gluconeogenesis through its conversion to this citric acid intermediate

A

Succinyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which reaction involved in gluconeogenesis requires the presence of biotin as coenzyme?

A

pyruvate –> oxaloacetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cytochrome P450 is involved in the synthesis of this hormone:

A

Aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following enzymes would increase the level of hydrogen peroxide?

A

Oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which of the following systems has the lowest redox potential?

A

Hydrogen ion/hydrogen atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How many high energy phosphates does ATP have?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

NADP-linked dehydrogenases are involved in:

A

Reductive biosynthesis such as fatty acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following has the highest affinity for electrons?

A

Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which statement is NOT true of the synthesis of ketone bodies?

A

The presence of increased NAD/NADH ratio favors the formation of beta-hydroxybutyrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What will be the net yield of ATP when palmitic acid, a 16-carbon saturated fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation?

A

129 ATPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

All of the following are true of NADP+-dependent malate dehydrogenase (malic enzyme) EXCEPT:

A

It is a mitochondrial enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Mitochondrial oxaloacetate is produced during:

A

Gluconeogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What substrate is directly used for fatty acid synthesis?

A

Acetyl CoA generated from the cleavage of citrate in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The growing fatty acid chain on the fatty acid synthase complex is elongated:

A

Two at a time, with the carbons added derived from malonyl-CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Odd-chain long fatty acid breakdown produces:

A

Acetyl CoA and Propiony CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which of the following uses fatty acids as its primary source of energy in the well-fed state?

A

Heart muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following organs relies solely on glucose as its source of energy?

A

Erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

In the citrate shuttle, citrate is transported from the mitochondria to the cytoplasm in exchange for which of the following?

A

Malate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In which of the following steps in fatty acid synthesis will NADPH be generated?

A

Malate to pyruvate conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following carries trigylcerides from the intestines to the adipose tissues?

A

Chylomicrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Carnitine is produced by the combination of which of the following?

A

Acylcarnitine and CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Degradation of ketone bodies would yield which of the following?

A

Acetyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In the liver, glycerol is converted to this substrate for conversion to glucose:

A

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

This organ cannot utilize ketone bodies

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Insulin deficiency leads to:

A

Diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Glucagon stimulates

A

Activation of hormone sensitive lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The propionyl CoA produced from the beta-oxidation of odd- numbered fatty acids:

A

Enters the citric acid after conversion to succinyl CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which statement is true regarding the fatty acid whose structure is given below? Note: Check graph #85

A

It is a 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acid with 5 double bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which of the following lipooxygenases is needed for the synthesis of leukotrienes?

A

5-lipooxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

An 18-carbon monounsaturated fatty acid in trans configuration

A

Elaidic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The facial flushing and rapid heart rate associated with intake of alcoholic beverages is due to the increased level of:

A

Acetaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The density of the lipoproteins is directly proportional to:

A

The concentration of the protein component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The metabolism of ethanol results in an increased level of the following, EXCEPT:

A

Pyruvate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

An increased level of cAMP in the adipose tissue will promote:

A

Lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

True of Cholesterol:

A

Its free form is amphipathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Cholesterol synthesis occurs in the:

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the difference between fatty acid synthesis and cholesterol synthesis?

A

The final product in fatty acid synthesis is a 16-carbon compound while the final product in cholesterol synthesis is a 27-carbon compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

True of bile acids:

A

When conjugated, they become more water soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The conjugation of bile acids occurs in the:

A

Peroxisomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

In the enterohepatic circulation of bile,

A

95% of the bile salts secreted are reabsorbed and recycled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Cholelithiasis is due to:

A

Increased entry of cholesterol into the bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The effect of bile acid sequestrants is to:

A

Increase bile acid excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Cardiolipin is also called:

A

Diphosphatidylglycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Cardiolipin is also called:

A

Diphosphatidylglycerol

103
Q

This procedure involves the disruption of cells to release intact organelles for study

A

Centrifugation

104
Q

The component of the cytoskeleton of cells that makes

up the cilia and flagella which mediate cell movement

A

Microtubule

105
Q

Which of the following is not a constituent of sphingomyelin?

A

Glycerol

106
Q

All of the following decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen EXCEPT:

A

Carbon monoxide

107
Q

Which of the following would increase the P50 in the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve?

A

Decreased pH

108
Q

Which of the following directly influences a solution’s power of hydrogen?

A

Concentration of protons

109
Q

The following acids have corresponding pKas: X = 3.5, Y = 7, Z = 7.2. Which of the following is considered the weakest acid?

A

X

110
Q

The following are lipid components of membranes, except:

A

Triacyglycerol

111
Q

A certain disease is due to the formation of salt bridges between amino acids within an important protein. Which of the following amino acids might be responsible for the disease?

A

Lysine and aspartic acid

112
Q

The process of translation is responsible for which of the following?

A

Linking amino acids together via peptide bonds

113
Q

If you throw a bunch of amino acids into water, and if they arrange themselves into a
blob, which among the following amino acids will you most probably see at the center of the hypothetical amino acid blob?

A

Valine and tryptophan

114
Q

The lipid bilayer can be best described as:

A

Composed of a layer of phospholipids arranged concentrically

115
Q

The sequence of the first amino acids of polypeptide 1 is EWAN while those of two polypeptide is MALAY. Which of The following statement is TRUE regarding the protein structure?

A

Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the secondary structure

116
Q

A protein in its denatured state:

A

Loses its biologic activity

117
Q

Which amino acid would most likely be found in the interior of a protein?

A

Phenylalanine

118
Q

Which amino acids have a net charge of zero at physiologic pH?

A

Gln and His

119
Q

True of the iron atom in heme:

A

It is normally in its reduced form

120
Q

Which hemoglobin would most readily give off 1 molecule of oxygen to tissues?

A

Hemoglobin in the T state with 1 molecule of O2 attached

121
Q

Which of the following events is TRUE regarding denaturation of proteins?

A

Denaturation happens when you mix proteins and detergents

122
Q

True of the characteristic(s) of enzymes:

A

Lowers the activation energy of the reactants

123
Q

The protein portion of the enzyme is:

A

Apoenzyme

124
Q

The effect of temperature on an enzyme-catalyzed reaction is best represented by:

A

Bell-shaped curve

125
Q

Phosphorylation of this aminoacyl residue can alter the catalytic efficiency of enzymes

A

Serine

126
Q

Kinetic studies done on a new drug that inhibits xanthine oxidase, the enzyme that synthesizes uric acid, gave the graph below. This new drug for the treatment of gout is a:
Note: Check graph #25

A

Non-competitiive inhibitor

127
Q

Blood clotting involves the activation of extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways, with both pathways leading to the synthesis of a stable fibrin clot. The mechanism by which these clotting factors are activated is through:

A

Partial proteolysis

128
Q

The rates of most body enzymes are physiologically responsive to increases in substrate concentration because:

A

The intracellular level of many substrates is in the range of the Km

129
Q

One mechanism for the regulation of an enzyme’s activity is to add or remove a phosphate group. An enzyme that adds a phosphate group is called a:

A

Kinase

130
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding coenzymes?

A

Are protein in nature

131
Q

If a molecule attaches to an enzyme at a site other than the active site and changes the enzyme’s affinity for its substrate without cleaving any existing bonds on the enzyme,

A

It is a V-type allosteric effector that lowers Vmax without altering Km

132
Q

Which does not define proenzyme activation?

A

It is a reversible process

133
Q

ATP acts as an allosteric activator of aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase). This means that:

A

The substrate saturation curve for Aspartate and ATCase shifts to the left, signifying increased affinity of ATCase for its substrate

134
Q

Which of the following two enzymes are thought to be the major control enzymes of the TCA cycle?

A

α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and isocitrate dehydrogenase

135
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex is INCORRECT?

A

One of its coenzymes - lipoic acid - comes from the vitamin B-carotene

136
Q

The cleavage of the high-energy bond of ATP into ADP and Pi is an example of what type of reaction?

A

Hydrolysis

137
Q

The fate of pyruvate depends on the cell’s metabolic needs. If the cell needs to increase its glucose concentration, pyruvate will be converted to:

A

Oxaloacetate

138
Q

This is the major regulatory enzyme of glycolysis:

A

Phosphofructokinase-1

139
Q

True of phosphofructokinase:

A

It is inhibited when the cell is rich in ATP

140
Q

True of the citric acid cycle:

A

It is involved in both anabolic and catabolic cellular pathways

141
Q

Which enzyme does not catalyze a reaction that generates NADH?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

142
Q

How many ATP can be formed from 1 mole of acetyl CoA that enters the citric acid cycle?

A

10

143
Q

The growing fatty acid chain on the fatty acid synthase complex is elongated:

A

Two at a time, with the carbons added derived from malonyl-CoA

144
Q

How does galactitol accumulation in the lens of the eye lead to the development of cataract?

A

Galactitol osmotically absorbs water into the lens leading to water retention and swelling

145
Q

The enzyme aldose reductase converts:

A

glucose to sorbitol

146
Q

The product of the phosphorylation of fructose by hexokinase

A

Fructose 1-phosphate

147
Q

Glycogen synthase adds glucose residues to the glycogen primer in the form of:

A

UDP-glucose

148
Q

Which enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism are acted upon by protein phosphatase?

A

Glycogen synthase and phosphorylase

149
Q

The following are effects of epinephrine on glycogen metabolism, EXCEPT:

A

Inactivation of inhibitor-1

150
Q

The presence of this enzyme will activate glycogen synthase

A

Protein phosphatase

151
Q

A deficiency of the following enzymes will manifest with hepatomegaly, EXCEPT:

A

Glycogen synthase

152
Q

What is the effect of cAMP-dependent protein kinase on the following enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism?

A

Activates phosphorylase kinase and inhibitor-1; inactivates glycogen synthase

153
Q

A patient with Her’s disease, a condition due to deficiency of glycogen phosphorylase in the liver:

A

Cannot increase blood glucose level in response to glucagon

154
Q

Upon the action of phosphorylase on glycogen, glucose residues are released in the form of:

A

Glucose 1-phosphate

155
Q

Unlike liver glycogen, muscle glycogen cannot be used for the maintenance of blood glucose level because muscles lack:

A

Glucose 6-phosphatase

156
Q

In the formation of branch points in glycogen, part of the glucose chain is transferred to which carbon atom of glucose in another chain?

A

C6

157
Q

Glycerol produced from the hydrolysis of triacylglycerol in the adipose tissue, is phosphorylated to glycerol 3-phosphate and enters gluconeogenesis by conversion to:

A

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

158
Q

The secretion of glucagon will promote the activity of the following enzymes, EXCEPT:

A

Phosphofructokinase

159
Q

Propionate serves as substrate for gluconeogenesis through its conversion to this citric acid intermediate

A

Succinyl CoA

160
Q

Which reaction involved in gluconeogenesis requires the presence of biotin as coenzyme?

A

pyruvate –> oxaloacetate

161
Q

Cytochrome P450 is involved in the synthesis of this hormone:

A

Aldosterone

162
Q

Which of the following enzymes would increase the level of hydrogen peroxide?

A

Oxidase

163
Q

Which of the following systems has the lowest redox potential?

A

Hydrogen ion/hydrogen atom

164
Q

How many high energy phosphates does ATP have?

A

2

165
Q

NADP-linked dehydrogenases are involved in:

A

Reductive biosynthesis such as fatty acid synthesis

166
Q

Which of the following has the highest affinity for electrons?

A

Oxygen

167
Q

Which statement is NOT true of the synthesis of ketone bodies?

A

The presence of increased NAD/NADH ratio favors the formation of beta-hydroxybutyrate

168
Q

What will be the net yield of ATP when palmitic acid, a 16-carbon saturated fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation?

A

129 ATPs

169
Q

All of the following are true of NADP+-dependent malate dehydrogenase (malic enzyme) EXCEPT:

A

It is a mitochondrial enzyme

170
Q

Mitochondrial oxaloacetate is produced during:

A

Gluconeogenesis

171
Q

What substrate is directly used for fatty acid synthesis?

A

Acetyl CoA generated from the cleavage of citrate in the cytoplasm

172
Q

The growing fatty acid chain on the fatty acid synthase complex is elongated:

A

Two at a time, with the carbons added derived from malonyl-CoA

173
Q

Odd-chain long fatty acid breakdown produces:

A

Acetyl CoA and Propiony CoA

174
Q

Which of the following uses fatty acids as its primary source of energy in the well-fed state?

A

Heart muscle

175
Q

Which of the following organs relies solely on glucose as its source of energy?

A

Erythrocytes

176
Q

In the citrate shuttle, citrate is transported from the mitochondria to the cytoplasm in exchange for which of the following?

A

Malate

177
Q

In which of the following steps in fatty acid synthesis will NADPH be generated?

A

Malate to pyruvate conversion

178
Q

Which of the following carries trigylcerides from the intestines to the adipose tissues?

A

Chylomicrons

179
Q

Carnitine is produced by the combination of which of the following?

A

Acylcarnitine and CoA

180
Q

Degradation of ketone bodies would yield which of the following?

A

Acetyl CoA

181
Q

In the liver, glycerol is converted to this substrate for conversion to glucose:

A

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

182
Q

This organ cannot utilize ketone bodies

A

Liver

183
Q

Insulin deficiency leads to:

A

Diabetes mellitus

184
Q

Glucagon stimulates

A

Activation of hormone sensitive lipase

185
Q

The propionyl CoA produced from the beta-oxidation of odd- numbered fatty acids:

A

Enters the citric acid after conversion to succinyl CoA

186
Q

Which statement is true regarding the fatty acid whose structure is given below? Note: Check graph #85

A

It is a 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acid with 5 double bonds.

187
Q

Which of the following lipooxygenases is needed for the synthesis of leukotrienes?

A

5-lipooxygenase

188
Q

An 18-carbon monounsaturated fatty acid in trans configuration

A

Elaidic acid

189
Q

The facial flushing and rapid heart rate associated with intake of alcoholic beverages is due to the increased level of:

A

Acetaldehyde

190
Q

The density of the lipoproteins is directly proportional to:

A

The concentration of the protein component

191
Q

The metabolism of ethanol results in an increased level of the following, EXCEPT:

A

Pyruvate

192
Q

An increased level of cAMP in the adipose tissue will promote:

A

Lipolysis

193
Q

True of Cholesterol:

A

Its free form is amphipathic

194
Q

Cholesterol synthesis occurs in the:

A

Cytoplasm

195
Q

What is the difference between fatty acid synthesis and cholesterol synthesis?

A

The final product in fatty acid synthesis is a 16-carbon compound while the final product in cholesterol synthesis is a 27-carbon compound

196
Q

True of bile acids:

A

When conjugated, they become more water soluble

197
Q

The conjugation of bile acids occurs in the:

A

Peroxisomes

198
Q

In the enterohepatic circulation of bile,

A

95% of the bile salts secreted are reabsorbed and recycled

199
Q

Cholelithiasis is due to:

A

Increased entry of cholesterol into the bile

200
Q

The effect of bile acid sequestrants is to:

A

Increase bile acid excretion

201
Q

Sphingolipidoses like Gaucher and Tay Sachs diseases result from:

A

Absence of enzymes that degrades sphingolipids in the lysosomes

202
Q

Cardiolipin is also called:

A

Diphosphatidylglycerol

203
Q

Phosphatidic acid is an intermediate in the synthesis of:

A

Phosphatidylcholine

204
Q

These are sphingolipids containing an oligosaccharide chain with a sialic acid

A

Ganglioside

205
Q

This anticoagulant forms a complex with plasminogen to enhance fibrin synthesis:

A

Streptokinase

206
Q

This factor is activated by Factor XII

A

Factor XI

207
Q

Which of the following activates factor XIII?

A

Thrombin

208
Q

The major inhibitor molecule of your answer in number 82 is: Note: Check number 82 for refernece

A

Heme

209
Q

How many iron atoms does hydroxymethylbilane (HMB) have?

Note: In the questionaire, A. 1 B. 2 C. 4

A

None of the above

210
Q

Which enzyme does not catalyze a condensation reaction?

A

Uroporphyrinogen III synthase

211
Q

Biliverdin is converted to bilirubin by:

A

Reduction

212
Q

The neuropsychiatric symptoms associated with ALA dehydratase deficiency are due to:

A

ALA accumulation

213
Q

Rate limiting SUBSTRATE(not the same sa Enzyme ah

) of Purine synthesis

A

PRPP

214
Q

Rate limiting ENZYME

A

PRPP-Gln Amidotransferase

215
Q

Rate limiting enzyme and most impt. enz in glycolysis

A

PFK

216
Q

For glycogenesis

A

Glycogen synthase/synthetase

217
Q

For gylcogenolysis

A

Glycogen phosphorylase

218
Q

Rate limiting enzyme ng gluconeogenesis

A

fructose 2,6 bisphosphatase

219
Q

The only cell in our body which is capable of utilizing ONLY GLUCOSE for its source of energy

A

RBC

220
Q

Also uses fatty acids as its source of energy

A

Heart

221
Q

Produces ketones but does not use it bec. it lacks the enz. 3-ketoacyl transferase

A

Liver

222
Q

Vit D Def in adults

A

Osteomalacia

223
Q

Function of Vit B5 - active form

A

Constituent of Coenzyme-A, used as cofactor for acyl transferase and component of fatty acid synthase

224
Q

Products of PPP

A

Ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH

225
Q

Used for purine/pyrimidine (nucleotide) synthesis

A

Ribose-5-phosphate

226
Q

Deficiency of vit b1

A

Beri-beri

227
Q

Carbs to fats

A

Yes, bec. of Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH)

228
Q

Fats to carbs

A

No bec. rxn of PDH is irreversible (one-way step)

229
Q

True of the iron atom in heme

A

in REDUCED form (Fe+2)

230
Q

ATP acts as an allosteric activator of aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase). This means that:

A

The substrate saturation curve for Aspartate and ATCase shifts to the left, signifying increased affinity of ATCase for its substrate

231
Q

Which of the following two enzymes are thought to be the major control enzymes of the TCA cycle?

A

α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and isocitrate dehydrogenase

232
Q

True of phosphofructokinase

A

It is inhibited when the cell is rich in ATP

233
Q

True of the citric acid cycle:

A

It is involved in both anabolic and catabolic cellular pathways

234
Q

How many ATP can be formed from 1 mole of acetyl CoA that enters the citric acid cycle?

A

10

235
Q

Glycogen synthase adds glucose residues to the glycogen primer in the form of

A

UDP-glucose

236
Q

What is the effect of cAMP-dependent protein kinase on the following enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism?

A

Activates phosphorylase kinase and inhibitor-1; inactivates glycogen synthase

237
Q

Unlike liver glycogen, muscle glycogen cannot be used for the maintenance of blood glucose level because muscles lack:

A

Glucose 6-phosphatase

238
Q

C2 of Purine

A

N10 - Formyl THF

239
Q

C2 of Pyrimidine

A

CO2

240
Q

Von Gierke’s Disease

A

Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase

241
Q

Cytochrome P450 is involved in the synthesis of this hormone:

A

Aldosterone

242
Q

How many high energy phosphates does ATP have?

A

2

243
Q

Which of the following has the highest affinity for electrons?

A

Oxygen

244
Q

Which of the following uses fatty acids as its primary source of energy in the well-fed state?

A

HEART

245
Q

In the citrate shuttle, citrate is transported from the mitochondria to the cytoplasm in exchange for which of the following?

A

MALATE

246
Q

Which of the following carries trigylcerides from the INTESTINES to the adipose tissues?

A

CHYLOMICRONS

247
Q

Degradation of ketone bodies would yield which of the following?

A

ACETYL-COA

248
Q

An 18-carbon monounsaturated fatty acid in trans configuration

A

ELAIDIC ACID

249
Q

The facial flushing and rapid heart rate associated with intake of alcoholic beverages is due to the increased level of:

A

ACETALDEHYDE

250
Q

The density of the lipoproteins is directly proportional to:

A

The concentration of the protein component

251
Q

True of Cholesterol: Its esterified form is a major constituent of the plasma membrane

A

Its free form is amphipathic

252
Q

What is the difference between fatty acid synthesis and cholesterol synthesis?

A

The final product in fatty acid synthesis is a 16- carbon compound while the final product in cholesterol synthesis is a 27-carbon compound

253
Q

True of bile acids

A

When conjugated, they become more water soluble