Module B: Mendelian Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the four forms of monogenic inheritance?

A

autosomal dominant

autosomal recessive

X-linked

mitochondrial

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2
Q

Other than monogenic inheritance, what are two other forms of inheritance?

A

chromosomal

multifactorial

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3
Q

What is haploinsufficiency? (2)

A

one allele has mutation leading to decreased expression (i.e. quantity) of protein

phenotype occurs because homeostasis is intolerant of decrease in that gene product

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4
Q

Gain-of-function mutations are typically attributed to what form of inheritance?

A

autosomal dominant

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5
Q

Loss-of-function mutations are typically attributed to what form of inheritance?

A

autosomal recessive

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6
Q

Describe “loss-of-function” mutations in the context of autosomal recessive inheritance. (3)

A

most enzyme deficiencies do not manifest deleterious phenotype unless enzyme activity is <10% of normal

heterozygotes have 50% of normal activity and are asymptomatic

homozygotes have near 0% activity

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7
Q

Describe the relationship between X-linked recessive inheritance in females and X-inactivation. (2)

A

1 of the 2 X chromosomes is inactivated

in daughters inheriting mutant allele, 50% of cells will inactivate mutant chromosome and express normal, and 50% will do vice versa

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8
Q

List the characteristics of mitochondrial inheritance. (4)

A

vertical inheritance pattern

children of affected men not affected

all children of affected women affected, but to varying degrees

tends to affect tissues most dependent on oxidative metabolism (brain, muscle, etc.)

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9
Q

In the context of mitochondrial inheritance, what is heteroplasmy?

A

affected individuals in mitochondrial inheritance have a mixture of mutant and normal mitochondria, which is responsible for variable expressivity observed in mitochondrial inheritance

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10
Q

What is incomplete penetrance? Give two examples.

A

fraction of people with genotype of interest who show some manifestation of the genotype

100% penetrance = everyone who inherits the mutation gets the disease

50% (incomplete) penetrance = half of those with the mutation get the disease

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11
Q

Give an example of a disease for which penetrance is age-dependent.

A

Huntington’s disease

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12
Q

Define mosaicism.

A

presence of cells with different genetic makeups in a single individual

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13
Q

Define gonadal mosaicism. (2)

A

mutation occurs in gamete-producing (usually sperm) cell

causes unaffected individual to have children with an autosomal dominant disorder, giving appearance of recessive inheritance

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14
Q

How would an autosomal dominant disease arise in a child with no family history of that disease?

A

may result from new mutation that arises in parental germ cell

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15
Q

Are point mutations more common in male or female germ cells?

A

far more common in male germ cells

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16
Q

What is the most common point mutation?

A

C to T change at CG dinucleotide in DNA strand

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17
Q

CG dinucleotides are sites for

A

cytosine methylation

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18
Q

Deamination of methylcytosine yields

A

thymine

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19
Q

What is a copy number mutation?

A

variation in number of copies of genes is much greater than previously thought

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20
Q

How do copy number mutations occur? (2)

A

when regions of DNA with similar sequences next to each other on a chromosome (i.e. long tandem repeats) mispair during meiosis

crossover then causes duplication of gene on chromosome and deletion on other chromosome

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21
Q

Describe the basis of red green colorblindness in the context of copy number mutations. (4)

A

red light and green light genes located next to each other on X chromosome

very similar in sequence

if red gene accidentally pairs with green gene, then crossover occurs

one chromosome w/ 3 color vision genes, other w/ only 1

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22
Q

Copy number variants are most commonly detected by

A

CMA

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23
Q

What are triplet repeat expansions? What is their genetic significance? (2)

A

genes containing segments of repeated trinucleotides

genes with larger numbers of repeats may be unstable during DNA replication in meiosis, leading to expansion of the repeated segment

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24
Q

Describe the relationship between triplet repeat expansions and the number of repeats. (2)

A

if the number of repeats exceeds a threshold number → nonfunctional gene → disorder

if increased number of repeats but under threshold → risk for further expansion, but asymptomatic → “premutation”

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25
Q

Most of the known disorders associated with triplet repeat expansions belong to what grouping of disorders?

A

neurologic disorders

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26
Q

Define anticipation.

A

autosomal dominant disorders become more severe or manifest earlier or both as it is passed down through generations

27
Q

What is a possible reason for anticipation?

A

ascertainment bias = children with more severe phenotypes are more likely to come to medical attention, leading to discovery of mildly affected parent

28
Q

Describe the relationship between triplet repeat expansion and anticipation.

A

disorders from triplet repeat expansion may show anticipation if expansion of repeat causes more severe phenotype

29
Q

(T/F) Anticipation and triplet repeat expansion are independent of sex.

A

False. For a disorder, both triplet repeat expansion and anticipation may be more associated with one sex.

30
Q

What is imprinting?

A

parent-of-origin specific expression of a gene (i.e. only one allele is preferentially expressed, instead of both)

31
Q

Give an example of a disease associated with imprinting.

A

Angelman syndrome

32
Q

What causes Angelman syndrome?

A

caused by mutations that inactivate UBE3A gene, which is only expressed from the maternal allele (paternal allele is imprinted and not expressed)

33
Q

Explain the relationship between a genetic mutation in a paternal UBE3A allele and imprinting.

A

if you inherit mutant UBE3A from father, you will not be affected (i.e. have Angelman syndrome) because the paternal allele is imprinted/not expressed

34
Q

What is uniparental disomy?

A

both chromosomes of a pair are inherited from the same parent (a rare phenomenon)

35
Q

Describe the phenotype associated with uniparental disomy.

A

usually, uniparental disomy is inconsequential, but if there’s an imprinted region or a duplication involved, it might lead to a disorder

36
Q

How can uniparental disomy be detected? (2)

A

examining polymorphic loci on the chromosome by using an SNP array

all loci will have the same allele (complete lack of heterozygosity)

37
Q

What is variable expression?

A

idea that some genetic conditions can cause multiple phenotypic effects, which vary among individuals

38
Q

Give an example of a disease that is associated with variable expression.

A

neurofibromatosis type I

39
Q

What causes neurofibromatosis type I?

A

mutations in NF1 gene

40
Q

What are some underlying causes for variable expression? (3)

A

environmental factors

differences in genetic background (modifier genes)

differences in specific mutation that causes the disease (allelic heterogeneity, severe vs. mild mutations)

41
Q

Differentiate between penetrance and variable expression.

A

penetrance = all or none, either you have the disease or you don’t

variable expression = extent to which disease manifests

42
Q

What are the two forms of genetic heterogeneity?

A

locus heterogeneity

allelic heterogeneity

43
Q

Define locus heterogeneity.

A

mutations in different genes (i.e. loci) cause the same phenotype

44
Q

Define allelic heterogeneity.

A

single gene disorders caused by many different mutations in the same gene

45
Q

Give an example of locus heterogeneity.

A

mutations in LDLR, ARH, ApoB, and PCSK9 all lead to high LDL cholesterol

46
Q

Give an example of allelic heterogeneity.

A

more than 600 mutations in CFTR cause cystic fibrosis

47
Q

What is gene frequency?

A

fraction (b/w 0 and 1) of all alleles at a single locus in a population

48
Q

What is the nomenclature/convention associated with the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

frequency of normal allele symbolized by “p”

frequency of mutant allele symbolized by “q”

49
Q

What does the Hardy-Weinberg distribution/equilibrium state?

A

if there are two alleles (A and a) in a population w/ frequencies p and q:

frequency of AA homozygotes = p2

frequency of aa homozygotes = q2

frequency of Aa heterozygotes = 2pq

50
Q

How are X-linked conditions factored into the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

for X-linked conditions, mutant gene frequency (q) is same as disease frequency in males

carrier frequency in females calculated using 2pq

51
Q

What are the two assumptions underlying Hardy-Weinberg genotype proportions?

A

random mating

all genotypes are equally likely to survive

52
Q

What are three types of mating that lead to non-random mating (a deviation from the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium)?

A

assortative mating

inbreeding

consanguinity

53
Q

What is assortative mating?

A

choosing mates because of characteristics which have a genetic component

54
Q

What is positive assortative mating?

A

people with similar characteristics tend to mate (e.g. tall people mating with tall people)

55
Q

What is negative assortative mating?

A

people with different characteristics tend to mate (e.g. blond-haired people preferring to mate with brown-haired people)

56
Q

What is inbreeding?

A

choosing mates from within a small group such defined by ethnicity or geography

57
Q

What is consanguinity?

A

mating within a family (relatives closer than 6 steps removed)

58
Q

In the context of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the ultimate outcome of non-random mating?

A

increases frequencies of homozygotes in the population, above what Hardy-Weinberg would predict

59
Q

Give four deviations from the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

A

non-random mating

selection/differential survival

mutations and gene frequencies

population movements/random variations

60
Q

What is fitness?

A

survival of individuals with given genotype compared to population as a whole

61
Q

Selection is rapid and slow for which conditions?

A

rapid for X-linked or autosomal dominant (early manifestation, therefore early exposure to selection)

slow for autosomal recessive (heterozygotes do not manifest the trait)

62
Q

What is the founder effect?

A

mutations for recessive traits brought into small population by a few founders will lead to higher frequencies for those alleles in the population, generations later

63
Q

What is heterozygote advantage?

A

heterozygotes have higher relative fitness than either the homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive genotype

64
Q

In the context of new mutations, how must mutant alleles be maintained at a constant frequency in the population? (2)

A

balance losses from selection against allele with new mutations

since selection acts more strongly on dominant or X-linked traits, mutation rates for the genes that cause such traits must be high