Module B Flashcards

1
Q

Fascia Iliaca Block

A

Performed using ultrasound-guided approach or a landmark
The fascia iliaca compartment is a potential space lying between the fascia ilaca anteriorly and the iliacus and psoas muscles (iliopsoas) posteriorly
Indications: analgesia for fractured neck of femur (safe, cheap and effective)
Works by affecting the femoral, obturator and the lateral cutaneous nerves with a local anesthetic

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2
Q

Urinary urge incontinence

A

Urine leaks due to intense urge to pass urine
1st line tx: antimuscarinic drugs e.g. oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin
2nd line tx: mirabegron (β3 agonist)

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3
Q

Urinary stress incontinence

A

Defined as: physical movement or activity e.g., coughing, laughing, sneezing, running or heavy lift which puts pressure/stress on bladder, causing urine leakage
Non-medical management: pelvic floor exercises, and caffeine intake reduction
Medical tx: duloxetine (serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor)

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4
Q

Small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome

A

Excessive amounts of bacteria in the small bowel
RFs: scleroderma, neonates with GI abnormalities, DM
Symptoms: chronic diarrhoea, bloating, flatulence, abdominal pain (resemble IBS)
Dx: hydrogen breath test, small bowel aspiration and culture (not commonly used as invasive), abx trial
1st line tx: rifaximin (low systemic absorption, good intraluminal target)
2nd line tx: co-amoxiclav or metronidazole

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5
Q

Acute ascending cholangitis

A

Bacterial infection of biliary tree (typically E. coli)
RF: gallstones
Charcot’s triad: fever, jaundice, RUQ pain
Reynold’s pentad: fever, jaundice, RUQ pain, confusion, hypotension
Ix: raised inflammatory markers (WBC), bilirubin, and ALP
Mx: IV abx, and ERCP after 24-48 hours to relieve obstruction via biliary drainage

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6
Q

Reynolds’ pentad

A

Fever, jaundice, RUQ pain, confusion, hypotension

Use: diagnosis of obstructive ascending cholangitis

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7
Q

Charcot’s triad

A

Fever, jaundice, RUQ pain

Due to ascending cholangitis (an infection of the bile duct in the liver)

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8
Q

Alvarado score

A
Clinical scoring system used in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis:
Migration of pain
Anorexia
Nausea
Tenderness in RLQ
Rebound tenderness
Elevated temperature
Leucocytosis
Shift of WBC to the left (neutrophils >75%)
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9
Q

Acute appendicitis

A

Commonest acute abdomen presentation
Px: periumbilical pain migrating to RIF, N&V, mild pyrexia, anorexia, diarrhoea(rare)
Dx: Rovsing’s sign, rebound tenderness
Alvarado score used, raised WBC (neutrophils), raised inflammatory markers, negative pregnancy test, USS to confirm absence of alternative pelvic organ pathology (may observe free fluid - pathological in males)
Tx: appendicetomy with prophylactic IV abx given preoperatively

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10
Q

Rovsing’s sign

A

palpation in the LIF causes pain in the RIF

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11
Q

Murphy’s sign

A

Murphy’s sign is elicited in patients with acute cholecystitis by asking the patient to take in and hold a deep breath while palpating the right subcostal area. If pain occurs on inspiration, when the inflamed gallbladder comes into contact with the examiner’s hand, Murphy’s sign is positive.

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12
Q

Group & Save

A

Blood taken to determine patient’s blood group then serum is saved for rapid cross-matching if required

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13
Q

Rigler’s sign

A

AKA double wall sign seen on abdominal x-ray that identifies a pneumoperitoneum with gas outlining both sides of the bowel wall,i.e. gas within the bowel’s lumen and gas within the peritoneal cavity

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14
Q

Pancreatitis causes

A

I GET SMASHED

I - idiopathic

G - gallstones; genetic (cystic fibrosis)
E - ethanol
T - trauma

S - steroids
M - mumps
A - autoimmune
S - scorpion
H - hyperlipidaemia/hypercalcaemia/hyperparathyroidism (metabolic disorders)
E - ERCP
D - drugs (tetracyclines, furosemide, azathioprine, thiazides and many others)

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15
Q

Anaesthesia definition

A

Drug induced reversible loss of consciousness which allows surgery and invasive procedures

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16
Q

Triad of anaesthesia

A

Hypnosis = unconsciousness
Analgesia = pain relief
Muscle relaxant = paralysis

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17
Q

Pre-operative assessment

A

Doctor or nurse meets pt
History, examination, appropriate tests
Discuss risks of surgery and anaesthesia
Advise regarding alternatives (including non-operative interventions) to encourage pt to be involved in shared decision making
Suggest modifiable risk factors e.g. smoking cessation, weight loss, dietary recommendations, stopping/starting new drugs

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18
Q

Regional anaesthesia

A

May be with/out GA

E.g. peripheral nerve block, spinal (subarachnoid), epidural, local anaesthetic field block, plexus nerve block

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19
Q

3 aims of WHO surgical checklist

A

Reduce risk of wrong sites surgery
Encourage communication between all team members
Ensure there are no preventative errors

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20
Q

Timeline of anaesthesia

A
Induction = transition from awake to anaesthetised
Maintenance = keeping a patient unconscious & paralysed + perioperative care
Emergence = reversal of unconsciousness and paralysis
Recovery = monitor vital signs, pain, possible complications (e.g. airway control, eating, drinking, speaking)
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21
Q

Induction of anaesthesia

A

1st stage of anaesthesia timeline: IV or inhalational
IV = analgesia and hypnotic agent e.g. fentanyl and propofol
Inhalation = volatile agent e.g. sevoflurane with O2 and air or N2O
Muscle relaxant given if intubation required or surgery requires pt to be immobilised

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22
Q

Preoperative assessment on day of operation

A

Anaesthetic hx + past problems
FH of anaesthetic problems (rare)
PMH - CV, Resp, DM, fits/seizures, epilepsy
DH + allergies
Metal work - important for diathermy
SH - excessive alcohol intake ↑anaesthetic required
Airway assessment - loose teeth, caps, crowns, dentures; Mallampati score, flexion/extension of neck, number of fingers in mouth

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23
Q

Mallampati score

A

Class 1: soft palate, fauces, pillars, uvula visible
Class 2: soft palate, fauces, part of uvula visible
Class 3: base of uvula visible, soft palate visible
Class 4: hard palate only visible
Higher class results in more difficulty controlling airway during anaesthetic

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24
Q

MAC

A

Minimum alveolar concentration
Defined as the fraction of volume of the anesthetic present in the inspired air that provides sufficient analgesia in 50% of patients, meaning that patients will not respond to an extremely painful stimulus such as surgical skin incision

Determines potency of inhalational anaesthetics as the MAC is inversely related to the anaesthetic potency (1/MAC = potency)

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25
Q

EC50

A

Effective concentration required to produce 50% of the maximum possible response
Determines potency of drug

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26
Q

ED50

A

ED50 is the median effective dose that produces a desired beneficial effect in 50% of the population

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27
Q

Therapeutic index

A

A measurement of the safety of a drug

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28
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

A subclinical myopathy in which general anesthesia triggers an uncontrollable contraction of skeletal muscle that leads to a life-threatening hypercatabolic state and increase in body temperature

Autosomal dominant - mutation in ryanodine receptor type 1 on sarcoplasmic reticulum causing an accumulation of intracellular calcium in skeletal muscle that leads to its overactivation and hypermetabolism

Signs and symptoms: tachycardia, tachypnoea, cyanosis, rigidity, hyperthermia (up to 45ºC)

Tx: stop responsible agent, 100% oxygen and give Dantrolene (inhibits ryanodine receptors to prevent calcium release)

2:1 M:F
70% mortality rate if not rapidly treated, risk reduces to <10% with treatment

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29
Q

Airway management during induction

A

Head tilt, chin lift, jaw thrust manoeuvres
Adjuncts e.g. Guedel airway, nasopharyngeal airway
Supraglottic device - laryngeal mask airway, iGel
Endotracheal intubation

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30
Q

Maintenance of anaesthesia

A

Volatile agents delivered via anaesthetic machine with measured concentrations with oxygen and air
IV maintenance with propofol and opioid infusions

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31
Q

Intraoperative care

A
  • Analgesia - to reduce sympathetic response + smooth emergence
  • Positioning - adapt neutral position with padding to prevent nerve and pressure injury
  • Warming - at risk of hypothermia
  • Fluid balance - IV fluids and monitoring
  • CVS manipulated to offset hypotensive effects of anaesthesia e.g. IV fluids, alpha and beta adrenoceptors agonist (ephedrine and metaraminol), antimuscarinic cholinergic drugs
  • Blood and product transfusion
  • Antibiotics
  • Post-operative drugs e.g. DVT prophylaxis, analgesia, pt’s current drugs
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32
Q

Emergence from anaesthesia involves…

A

Analgesia and anti-emetics
Muscular function restored by reversing paralysis
Maintenance agents switched off once muscle control demonstrated
Extubation e.g. ET or LMA
Monitor for immediate post-operative complications

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33
Q

Recovery

A

Monitor pt: vital signs (HR, BP, RR, SpO2), pain scores, ABCDE approach to post-operative complications
Pain relief and anti-emetics
Transfer to ward, day care unit, ITU
Patient involved in enhanced recovery program

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34
Q

Train of 4 stimulation

A

A technique to assess neuromuscular blockade in patients receiving anesthesia. Four electric stimuli are administered along the ulnar nerve every 2 seconds; the number of twitches of the adductor pollicis muscle are counted
Zero twitches indicates profound block; 1–2 twitches indicate partial block.

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35
Q

Hydrogen breath test

A

SIBO

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36
Q

Lactose intolerance breath test

A

Use:

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37
Q

CT enterography with IV contrast

A

Use:

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38
Q

Nausea

A

Vague, disagreeable sensation of queasiness or feeling sick to the stomach, that may be followed by vomiting

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39
Q

Vomiting

A

Forceful expulsion of gastric contents, through a relaxed upper oesophageal sphincter and open mouth

40
Q

Bloating

A

Considered the subjective sensation that is associated with abdominal distension i.e. the visible increase in abdominal girth

41
Q

Succusion splash

A

Observed on auscultation

42
Q

Why are calcium levels measured in patients reporting prolonged nausea and vomiting?

A

Hypercalcaemia typically presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, and constipation

43
Q

Upper GI endoscopy

A

Use:

44
Q

CT abdomen (indications)

A
Used for:
abdominal pain
abdominal sepsis
bowel obstruction
postoperative complications
trauma
vascular compromise, e.g. aortic aneurysm
bowel perforation
colon cancer
45
Q

MRI abdomen

A

Use:

46
Q

Gastric emptying scan

A

Use:

47
Q

Diabetic gastroparesis

A
An autonomic neuropathy seen with poor blood glucose control (BM >15mmol/L)
Typically affects the vagus nerve 
27-58% of pts are T1DM
May be seen in T2DM in first 10yrs
Tx: prokinetics e.g. metoclopramide
48
Q

GI stromal tumour

A

Use:

49
Q

Anti-TTG

A

Use:

50
Q

Faecal calprotectin

A

Use: differentiates between IBS and IBD

51
Q

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A

Seen in pts with reduced gastric acid, small bowel diverticulae, small bowel strictures, post-op adhesions, diabetes, scleroderma
Symptoms: bloating, chronic diarrhoea, malabsorption, weight loss
Tx: rifaximin (not licensed use), co-amoxiclav, ciprofloxacin, metronidazole, tetracyclins

52
Q

Rome III diagnostic criteria for functional bloating

A

Used for IBS bloating
Pt must report both for 3months with symptom onset at least 6 months prior to diagnosis:
1. Recurrent bloating or visible distension at least 3 days a month in the last 3 months
2. Insufficient criteria for functional dyspepsia, IBS, or other functional GI disorders

53
Q

Epigastric pain differential diagnosis

A
Gastritis
Pancreatitis
Peptic ulcer
Perforated ulcer
Biliary colic
Cholecystitis
Small bowel obstruction
Mesenteric ischaemia
Epigastric hernia
54
Q

Right/Left loin/lumbar/flank pain differential diagnosis

A

Ureteric colic
Pyelonephritis
AAA

55
Q

RIF Pain Differential Diagnosis

A
Appendicitis
Mesenteric lymphadenitis
Meckel's diverticulitis or perforation
Terminal ileitis
Perforated caecum
Caecal diverticulitis
Sigmoid diverticulitis 
Hernia
Ruptured or torted ovarian cyst
Salpingitis or PID
Ectopic pregnancy
Mittelschmerz
Endometriosis
Testicular torsion
56
Q

Hypogastric/Suprapubic pain differential diagnosis

A
Cystitis
Urinary retention
Uterine fibroids
Period pain
Pregnancy
Ovarian pathology
Diverticulitis
Appendicitis
57
Q

LIF Pain differential diagnosis

A
Sigmoid diverticulitis
Caecal diverticulitis
Colitis
Constipation
Large bowel obstruction
Perforated cancer
Ruptured/torted ovarian cyst
Salpingitis or PID
Ectopic pregnancy
Endometriosis
Hernia
Testicular torsion
58
Q

RUQ pain differential diagnosis

A
Gastritis
Peptic ulcer
Perforated ulcer
Pancreatitis
Cholecystitis
Biliary colic
Cholangitis
Hepatitis
Ureteric colic
Pyelonephritis
RLL pneumonia
59
Q

LUQ pain differential diagnosis

A
Painful splenomegaly
Pancreatitis
Diverticulitis
Colitis
Perforated transverse/left colon
Epiploic appendagitis
LLL pneumonia
MI
60
Q

Finkelstein’s test

A

Used to diagnose de Quervain’s tenosynovitis in people who have wrist pain

61
Q

Trendelenburg’s test

A

Used to assess the strength of the hip abductors, specifically the gluteus medius and minimus
Performed when patient has a limp or hip pain

62
Q

Phalen’s test

A

A provocative test used in the diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome
Pt flexes wrist at 90 degrees whilst resting on table for 30-60s and if CTS present, will elicit pain/tingling/paraesthesia associated with CTS along fingers innervated by the median nerve

63
Q

Bulge sign test

A

Used to identify joint effusion in the knee

The examiner strokes upwards with the edge of the hand on the medial side of the knee to drain the fluid proximal to the patella. The examiner then proceeded to push the fluid inferiorly into the lateral aspect of the knee.

64
Q

Schober’s test

A

Used to determine if there is a decrease in lumbar spine range of motion (flexion), most commonly as a result of ankylosing spondylitis

65
Q

SLE

A

Associated with thymomas (less frequently than myasthenia gravis)

66
Q

Positive glutamate dehydrogenase

A

Faecal test that indicates the large intestine is colonised by Clostridium difficile
Further test required to determine if toxins A and B are present indicating an infection rather than colonisation
C. difficile infection treated with metronidazole

67
Q

Treatment for mild diverticulitis

A

Metronidazole

68
Q

Disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol seen with…

A

Metronidazole
Cefoperazone

Symptoms include: headache, N&V, head and neck flushing, sweatiness, palpitations

69
Q

Total parenteral nutrition

A

Used if enteral feeding is contraindicated, concerns about malnourishment following surgery/chemotherapy/radiation therapy/coma
Administered via a central vein (IV) as it is strongly phlebitic
Feeding bypasses GI tract; considered a last resort to resolve complete enteral starvation
Long term use effects: fatty liver and deranged LFT’s

70
Q

Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy

A

Combined endoscopic and percutaneous tube insertion
Pt must be fit for endoscopy
Risks: aspiration and leakage at site of insertion

71
Q

Feeding jejunostomy

A

Surgically sited feeding tube
Low aspiration risk, safe for long term use following upper GI surgery
SEs: tube displacement and peritubal leakage (immediately after insertion, associated with peritonitis risk)

72
Q

Nasogastric feeding

A

Administered via fine bore nasogastric feeding tube
Complications associated with misplaced tube and aspiration
Safe for use with impaired swallowing
Contraindicated following head injury due to risks associated with tube insertion

73
Q

Nasojejunal feeding

A

Insertion of feeding tube more technically complicated (easiest if done intra operatively)
Avoids problems of feed pooling in stomach (and risk of aspiration)
Safe following oesophagogastric surgery

74
Q

Consequences of hypothermia intraoperatively

A

Anaesthetic drugs are metabolised more slowly
Platelet, coagulation factors and the immune system are less effective = increased bleeding risk
Muscle relaxants prevents shivering
Spinal/epidural anaesthesia prevents peripheral vasoconstriction via reduced sympathetic tone causing increased heat loss at the peripheries

75
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis

A

Chronic autoimmune liver disease associated with Sjorgen’s syndrome, RA, systemic sclerosis and thyroid disease
Interlobular bile ducts damage by chronic inflammation causing cholestasis and cirrhosis
Px: middle aged woman with itching, asymptomatic, hyperpigmentation, xantholasma/mata, hepatosplenomegaly
Dx: anti-mitochondrial antibodies (>1:40), raised ALP & GGT
Tx: all pts PO ursodeoxycholic acid lifelong, fat soluble vitamin supplementation, cholestyramine for symptomatic mx of pruritus
Complications: cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal haemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, 20x increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

76
Q

Decompensated liver disease

A

Symptomatic cirrhosis where liver function is longer preserved
Px: fatigue, jaundice, pruritus, ascites, easy bleeding/bruising, peripheral oedema, N&V, abdo pain
Tx: liver transplant

77
Q

Paralytic ileus

A

Complication after bowel surgery
No peristalsis (hence absent bowel sounds, distension, no wind passed or bowel opening) resulting in pseudo-obstruction
Seen with chest infections, MI, stroke, and AKI
U&Es performed immediately as may be caused by deranged electrolytes e.g. K+, Mg2+, or phosphate
Tx: IV electrolyte replacement

78
Q

Spinal epidural complication

A

epidural haematoma
epidural abscess (slow progression of symptoms)
direct spinal cord injury (immediate symptoms after surgery)
local anaesthetic toxicity (numbness, restlessness, tinnitus, shivering, muscular twitching, convulsion, LOC, apnoea seen)

79
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

Due to metastases to liver (or lung in some cases) resulting in bradykinin and serotonin release into circulation. May also stimulate ACTH or GHRH causing Cushings features (round face, weight gain)
Px: flushing, diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension
Tx: octreotide (somatostatin analogue)

80
Q

Septic arthritis

A

Aetiology: S. aureus, N. gonorrhoea (in sexually active young adults) via haematogenous spread (from distant bacterial infections)
Px: acute painful swollen joint with restricted movement, fever
Ix: synovial fluid sampling, blood cultures, joint imaging
Tx: IV flucloxacillin or clindamycin (if penicillin allergic) for 6-12weeks with needle aspiration to decompress the joint

81
Q

Gastrostomy

A

used for gastric decompression or feeding

location = epigastrium

82
Q

End ileostomy

A

following complete excision of colon or where ileocolic anastomosis is not planned
stoma location: right iliac fossa

83
Q

End colostomy

A

performed when the colon is diverted or resected and anastomosis is not primarily achievable or desirable
involves bringing the distal part of the colon up to the skin
stoma location: L/R iliac fossa

84
Q

Loop ileostomy

A

Used for defunctioning of colon e.g. following rectal cancer surgery
Stoma at right iliac fossa

85
Q

Wilson’s disease

A

autosomal recessive disorder characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues
Defect in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13
Px aged 10-25yrs with:
- liver problems (young adults - hepatitis, cirrhosis)
- neurological problems (kids) - basal ganglia degeneration affecting globus pallidus or putamen, behavioural/speech/psychiatric problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism
Signs: Kayser-Fleischer rings (green/brown rings in Descement membrane of eyes), blue nails, renal tubular acidosis (Fanconi syndrome), haemolysis
Ix: low serum caeruloplasmin, low serum copper, slit lamp examination of Kayser-Fleischer rings, increased 24hr urinary copper excretion
1st line tx: penicillamine OR trientine hydrochloride

86
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Compression of median nerve in the carpal tunnel
Causes: idiopathic, pregnancy, RA (bilateral), lunate fracture, oedema
Px: pain or pins and needles in thumb, index and middle finger, may ascend proximally, shaking hand to obtain relief typically at night
Ix: electrophysiology shows prolongation of action potential in motor and sensory axons
Findings: weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis), thenar eminence wasting, tinel and phalen’s signs
Tx: wrist splints at night, corticosteroid injection, surgical decompression (division of flexor retinaculum)

87
Q

Tinel’s sign

A

Tapping on median nerve causes paraesthesia (tingling or pins and needles) along nerve
Used in carpal tunnel syndrome diagnosis
Also used in cubital tunnel syndrome (ulnar nerve entrapment)

88
Q

Acute pancreatitis

A
Px: epigastric pain radiating to the back, N&V, fever, tachy
Modified Glasgow (Glasgow-Imrie) Score used to determine severity of pancreatitis:
P - Pa02 < 8kPa
A - Age > 55 years
N - Neutrophilia (WBC > 15x10^9)
C - Calcium < 2mmol/L
R - Renal function (Urea > 16mmol/L)
E - Enzymes (LDH > 600; AST > 200)
A - Albumin < 32g/L
S - Sugar (Blood glucose > 10mmol/L)
Mx: fluids and nutritional support
Complications: peripancreatic fluid collections which resolves or forms a pseudocyst or abscess (transgastric or endoscopic drainage required), pancreatic necrosis (manage conservatively initially), ARDS, MOF
89
Q

Pancreatic pseudocyst

A

Typically develops 4 weeks after acute pancreatitis due to peripancreatic fluid collection walled by fibrous or granulation tissue
mild elevation of amylase seen typically
Resolves spontaneously hence, only analgesia required for first 12weeks
After 12 weeks consider endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy or aspiration

90
Q

Gout

A

Hyperuricaemia resulting in deposition of crystals in joint
Px: rapid onset hot, swollen, painful joint
RFs: male, obese, high purine intake, CVD, renal disease, diuretic use
Dx: clinical diagnosis typically; arthrocentesis (rule out septic arthritis) - needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals with negative birefringence under polarised light; X-ray - lytic lesions, punched out appearance, sclerotic borders, overhanging edges, normal joint space
Acute attacks tx: NSAIDs, Colchicine (if pt has heart disease), Steroids (if pt has renal failure)
Prophylaxis: allopurinol 100mg PO OD (started once attack has subsided, continue through attacks once started), weight loss, reduced uric acid intake, reduce alcohol, improve hydration

91
Q

Pseudogout

A

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition, EULAR classification used to identify type
Px: hot, swollen, painful joint
Ix: joint aspiration - rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals with positive birefringence of polarised light; x-ray - LOSS signs, chondrocalcinosis (line in middle of joint)
Tx: NSAIDs, Colchicine, IA steroids, joint washout (arthrocentesis in severe cases)

92
Q

Bony sarcoma

A

Malignant tumour of mesenchymal origin

Osteosarcoma = mesenchymal cells with osteoblastic differentiation, common in males 25-30yo, tx: limb preserving surgery & chemotherapy
Ewing sarcoma = common in males 10-20yo in femoral diaphysis (shaft), associated with bloodborne mets, histo. shows small round tumour, tx: chemotherapy and surgery
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (may be soft tissue origin) = large number of histiocytes (phagocytic cells in connective tissue)
Chondrosarcoma = tumour of cartilage cells, pt > 40yrs, commonly seen in upper arm/pelvis/femur

93
Q

Soft tissue sarcoma

A

Malignant tumour of mesenchymal origin

Liposarcoma = adipocytes, deep location e.g. retroperitoneum, pt > 40yrs, pseudocapsule hence surgery not an option, tx: palliative radiotherapy
Rhabdomyosarcoma = striated muscle
Leiomyosarcoma = smooth muscle
Synovial sarcomas = close to joints
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (can be bony as well) = large number of histiocytes (phagocytic cells in connective tissue), most common sarcoma in adults, tx: surgical resection and adjuvant radiotherapy to reduce local recurrence

94
Q

Osteochondroma

A

Benign primary bone tumour
Common in M < 25yrs
Arises from Exostosin 1 and 2 gene (EXT1/2) mutations

95
Q

Management of asthma and COPD in the perioperative period

A

Asthmatics should have a PEFR done and bronchodilators should be continued pre/post -operatively

COPD patients may need physiotherapy both pre- and post-operatively