Module 9-12: Optimize, Monitor, Troubleshoot Networks Flashcards

1
Q

What is the benefit of deploying Layer 3 QoS marking across an enterprise network?

Layer 3 marking can carry QoS information on switches that are not IP aware.

Layer 3 marking can be used to carry non-IP traffic.

Layer 3 marking can be carried in the 802.1Q fields.

Layer 3 marking can carry the QoS information end-to-end.

A

Layer 3 marking can carry the QoS information end-to-end.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Marking traffic at Layer 2 or Layer 3 is very important and will affect how traffic is treated in a network using QoS.
Layer 2 marking of frames can be performed for non-IP traffic.
Layer 2 marking of frames is the only QoS option available for switches that are not “IP aware.”
Layer 3 marking will carry the QoS information end-to-end.

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2
Q

What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.

A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.

A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.

A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.

A

A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Network traffic is classified and marked as close to the source device as possible. The trust boundary is the location where the QoS markings on a packet are trusted as they enter an enterprise network.

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3
Q

What are two approaches to prevent packet loss due to congestion on an interface? (Choose two.)

Prevent bursts of traffic.
Drop lower-priority packets.
Decrease buffer space.
Disable queuing mechanisms.
Increase link capacity.
A

Increase link capacity.

Drop lower-priority packets.

Answers Explanation & Hints:

There are three approaches to prevent sensitive traffic from being dropped:Increase link capacity to ease or prevent congestion.
Guarantee enough bandwidth and increase buffer space to accommodate bursts of traffic from fragile flows.
Prevent congestion by dropping lower-priority packets before congestion occurs.

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4
Q

What configuration scenario would offer the most protection to SNMP get and set messages?

SNMP community strings

SNMPv2 for in-band management with read-write community strings

SNMPv3 configured with the auth security level

SNMPv1 with out-of-band management in a private subnet

A

SNMPv3 configured with the auth security level

Answers Explanation & Hints:

SNMPv3 supports authentication and encryption with the auth and priv security levels. SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 do not support authentication or encryption. Using a default community string is not secure because the default string of “public” is well known and would allow anyone with SNMP systems to read device MIBs.

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5
Q

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp

Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-09.jpg

  1. 168.9.254
  2. 168.10.1
  3. 168.10.2
  4. 168.11.252
  5. 168.11.254
A

192.168.11.252

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The requested address is the address of the TFTP server. A TFTP server is an application that can run on a multitude of network devices including a router, server, or even a networked PC.

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6
Q

The command ntp server 10.1.1.1 is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?

determines which server to send system log files to

identifies the server on which to store backup configurations

ensures that all logging will have a time stamp associated with it

synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1

A

synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1

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7
Q

As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

A

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches

Answers Explanation & Hints:
EtherChannel is utilized on a network to increase speed capabilities by grouping multiple physical ports into one or more logical EtherChannel links between two switches. STP is used to provide redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic between switches. FHRPs are used to group physical devices to provide traffic flow in the event of failure.

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8
Q

What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?

access and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the distribution layer on a separate tier

access and distribution layers collapsed into one tier, and the core layer on a separate tier

distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier

access, distribution, and core layers collapsed into one tier, with a separate backbone layer

A

distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier

Answers Explanation & Hints:

Maintaining three separate network tiers is not always required or cost-efficient. All network designs require an access layer, but a two-tier design can collapse the distribution and core layers into one layer to serve the needs of a small location with few users.

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9
Q

Match the functions to the corresponding layers. (Not all options are used.)

A

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-001.png

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10
Q

What are two reasons to create a network baseline? (Choose two.)

to determine what kind of equipment to implement

to evaluate security vulnerabilities in the network

to identify future abnormal network behavior

to design a network according to a proper model

to determine if the network can deliver the required policies

to select a routing protocol

A

to identify future abnormal network behavior

to determine if the network can deliver the required policies

Answers Explanation & Hints:
A network baseline is created to provide a comparison point, at the time that the network is performing optimally, to whatever changes are implemented in the infrastructure. A baseline helps to keep track of the performance, to track the traffic patterns, and to monitor network behavior.

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11
Q

A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?

The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
The computer has an invalid IP address.
The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
The computer has an invalid default gateway address.

A

The computer has an invalid default gateway address

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The default gateway is the address of the device a host uses to access the Internet or another network. If the default gateway is missing or incorrect, that host will not be able to communicate outside the local network. Because the host can access other hosts on the local network, the network cable and the other parts of the IP configuration are working.

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12
Q

In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?

Document the symptoms.
Determine the symptoms.
Gather information.
Determine ownership.
Narrow the scope.
A

Narrow the scope.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
In the “narrow the scope” step of gathering symptoms, a network engineer will determine if the network problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network. Once this step is complete and the layer is identified, the network engineer can determine which pieces of equipment are the most likely cause.

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13
Q

Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion the delay between each packet varies and is causing broken conversations. What term describes the cause of this condition?

buffering
latency
queuing
jitter

A

jitter

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Jitter is the variation in the latency or delay of received packets. When data is sent, packets are sent in a continuous stream and are spaced evenly apart. Because of network congestion, the delay between each packet can vary instead of remaining constant.

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14
Q

Which queuing algorithm has only a single queue and treats all packets equally?

FIFO
CBWFQ
WFQ
LLQ

A

FIFO

Answers Explanation & Hints:
FIFO queuing sends packets out an interface in the order that they had arrived and does not make a decision about packet priority. All packets are treated equally.

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15
Q

A network administrator is deploying QoS with the ability to provide a special queue for voice traffic so that voice traffic is forwarded before network traffic in other queues. Which queuing method would be the best choice?

FIFO
WFQ
CBWFQ
LLQ

A

LLQ

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Low latency queuing (LLQ) allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice traffic, to be defined in a strict priority queue (PQ) and to always be sent first before any packets in any other queue are forwarded.

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16
Q

What are two characteristics of the best-effort QoS model? (Choose two.)

It does not provide a delivery guarantee for packets.

It uses a connection-oriented approach with QoS.

It treats all network packets in the same way.

It allows end hosts to signal their QoS needs to the network.

It provides preferential treatment for voice packets.

A

It does not provide a delivery guarantee for packets.

It treats all network packets in the same way.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The best-effort QoS model provides no guarantees and it is commonly used on the Internet. The best-effort QoS model treats all network packets in the same way.

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17
Q

What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)

Dropped voice packets are not retransmitted.
Voice traffic requires at least 384 kbs of bandwidth.
Voice traffic consumes lots of network resources.
Voice traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.
Voice traffic latency should not exceed 150 ms.

A

Dropped voice packets are not retransmitted.

Voice traffic latency should not exceed 150 ms.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Voice traffic does not consume a lot of network resources, such as bandwidth. However, it is very sensitive to delay and dropped packets cannot be retransmitted. For good voice quality, the amount of latency should always be less than 150 milliseconds.

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18
Q

Which type of network traffic cannot be managed using congestion avoidance tools?

TCP
UDP
IP
ICMP

A

UDP

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Queuing and compression techniques can help to reduce and prevent UDP packet loss, but there is no congestion avoidance for User Datagram Protocol (UDP) based traffic.

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19
Q

When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose two.)

link speed
delay
packet routing
jitter
packet addressing
A

delay

jitter

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Delay is the latency between a sending and receiving device. Jitter is the variation in the delay of the received packets. Both delay and jitter need to be controlled in order to support real-time voice and video traffic.

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20
Q

Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?

Data communications must be given the first priority.

Data communications are sensitive to jitter.

Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.

Legacy equipment is unable to transmit voice and video without QoS

A

Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Without any QoS mechanisms in place, time-sensitive packets, such as voice and video, will be dropped with the same frequency as email and web browsing traffic.

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21
Q

A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom

What is the effect of the command sequence?

On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.
The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.
The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.

A

The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The boot system command is a global configuration command that allows the user to specify the source for the Cisco IOS Software image to load. In this case, the router is configured to boot from the IOS image that is stored on the TFTP server and will use the ROMmon imagethat is located in the ROM if it fails to locate the TFTP server or fails to load a valid image from the TFTP server.

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22
Q

An administrator wants to replace the configuration file on a Cisco router by loading a new configuration file from a TFTP server. What two things does the administrator need to know before performing this task? (Choose two.)

router IP address

TFTP server IP address

name of the configuration file that is currently stored on the router

name of the configuration file that is stored on the TFTP server

configuration register value

A

TFTP server IP address

name of the configuration file that is stored on the TFTP server

Answers Explanation & Hints:
In order to identify the exact location of the desired configuration file, the IP address of the TFTP server and the name of the configuration file are essential information. Because the file is a new configuration, the name of the current configuration file is not necessary.

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23
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-04.png

The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.

The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.

The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.

The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.

The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.

A

The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
When performing an upgrade or testing different IOS versions, the boot system command is used to select which image is used to boot the Cisco device.

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24
Q

Refer to the exhibit. What two types of devices are connected to R1? (Choose two.)

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-02.png

router
switch
repeater
hub
Source Route Bridge
A

router
switch

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The capabilities of the devices displayed by the output show them to be a Cisco 2811 series router, Cisco 1941 series router, and a Cisco 2960 switch.

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25
Q

What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting

to select the type of logging information that is captured

to specify the destinations of captured messages

to periodically poll agents for data

to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

to provide traffic analysis

A

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting

to select the type of logging information that is captured

to specify the destinations of captured messages

Answers Explanation & Hints:
There are three primary functions provided by the syslog service:

gathering logging information
selection of the type of information to be logged
selection of the destination of the logged information

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26
Q

What is the function of the MIB element as part of a network management system?

to store data about a device
to collect data from SNMP agents
to change configurations on SNMP agents
to send and retrieve network management information

A

to store data about a device

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The Management Information Base (MIB) resides on a networking device and stores operational data about the device. The SNMP manager can collect information from SNMP agents. The SNMP agent provides access to the information.

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27
Q

Which statement describes SNMP operation?

An SNMP agent that resides on a managed device collects information about the device and stores that information remotely in the MIB that is located on the NMS.​

A set request is used by the NMS to change configuration variables in the agent device.

An NMS periodically polls the SNMP agents that are residing on managed devices by using traps to query the devices for data.​

A get request is used by the SNMP agent to query the device for data.

A

A set request is used by the NMS to change configuration variables in the agent device.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
An SNMP agent that resides on a managed device collects and stores information about the device and its operation. This information is stored by the agent locally in the MIB. An NMS periodically polls the SNMP agents that are residing on managed devices by using the get request to query the devices for data.

28
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show lldp neighbors command on a switch. What are two conclusions that can be drawn? (Choose two.)

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-08.png

Dev2 is a switch.
S1 has only two interfaces.
Dev1 is a switch with mixed types of interfaces.
Dev1 is connected to interface Fa0/5 of S1.
Dev1 is connected to interface Fa0/4 of Dev2.

A

Dev2 is a switch.

Dev1 is connected to interface Fa0/5 of S1.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
In the output from the show lldp command, under Capability, R indicates a router and B indicates a bridge (switch). Nothing indicates that Dev1 and Dev2 are connected to one another.

29
Q

What are the three layers of the switch hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)

access

data link

core

network access

enterprise

distribution

A

access

core

distribution

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The access layer is the lowest layer and it provides network access to users. The distribution layer has many functions, but it aggregates data from the access layer, provides filtering, policy control, and sets Layer 3 routing boundaries. The core layer provides high speed connectivity.

30
Q

Match the borderless switched network guideline description to the principle. (Not all options are used.)

A

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-002.png

31
Q

What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?

the installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network
the configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core
the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch connections between them

A

the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch connections between them

Answers Explanation & Hints:
One way to contain the impact of a failure on the network is to implement redundancy. One way this is accomplished is by deploying redundant distribution layer switches and dividing the access layer switch connections between the redundant distribution layer switches. This creates what is called a switch block. Failures in a switch block are contained to that block and do not bring down the whole network.

32
Q

Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network
continually purchase backup equipment for the network
implement STP portfast between the switches on the network
add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network

A

add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network

Answers Explanation & Hints:
One method of implementing redundancy is path redundancy, installing alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network. Redundant links in a switched network supports high availability and can be used for load balancing, reducing congestion on the network.

33
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-07.png

S4 and PC_2
PC_3 and AP_2
AP_2 and AP_1
PC_3 and PC_2
S1 and S4
A

PC_3 and AP_2

Answers Explanation & Hints:
A failure domain is the area of a network that is impacted when a critical device such as switch S3 has a failure or experiences problems.

34
Q

What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

increased flexibility
decreased number of critical points of failure
reduced costs
increased bandwidth availability
increased network management options
A

increased flexibility

reduced costs

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Wireless connectivity at the access layer provides increased flexibility, reduced costs, and the ability to grow and adapt to changing business requirements. Utilizing wireless routers and access points can provide an increase in the number of central points of failure. Wireless routers and access points will not provide an increase in bandwidth availability.

35
Q

A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.

A

The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The configuration of a switch block provides redundancy so that the failure of a single network device generally has little or no effect on end users.

36
Q

What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains
aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries
provides access to the user
provides fault isolation

A

provides access to the user

Answers Explanation & Hints:
A function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer is providing network access to the users. Layer 2 broadcast domain aggregation, Layer 3 routing boundaries aggregation, and high availability are distribution layer functions. The core layer provides fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.

37
Q

Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to build a routing table

ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput

ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself

ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)

A

ability to build a routing table

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Multilayer switches, also known as Layer 3 switches, can route and build a routing table. This capability is required in a multi-VLAN network and would influence the network designer to select a multilayer switch. The other options are features also available on Layer 2 switches, so they would not influence the decision to select a multilayer switch.

38
Q

Refer to the exhibit. Why are routers R1 and R2 not able to establish an OSPF adjacency?​

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-05.gif

The router ID values are not the same in both routers.
The serial interfaces are not in the same area.
The process numbers are not the same in both routers.
A backbone router cannot establish an adjacency with an ABR router.

A

The serial interfaces are not in the same area.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
On router R1, the network 192.168.10.0/30 is defined in the wrong area (area 1). It has to be defined in area 0 in order to establish adjacency with router R2, which has the network 192.168.10.0/30 defined in area 0.

39
Q

When is the most appropriate time to measure network operations to establish a network performance baseline?

at random times during a 10 week period, so that abnormal traffic levels can be detected

during quiet vacation periods, so that the level of non-data traffic can be determined

whenever high network use is detected, so that how the network performs under stress can be monitored

at the same time each day across a set period of average working days, so that typical traffic patterns can be established

A

at the same time each day across a set period of average working days, so that typical traffic patterns can be established

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The purpose of establishing a network performance baseline is to provide a reference of normal or average network use to enable data traffic anomalies to be detected and then investigated. Network operations that are not average, or are not normal, cannot be used to establish a network performance baseline.

40
Q

What is the principle that is applied when a network technician is troubleshooting a network fault by using the divide-and-conquer method?

Testing is performed at all layers of the OSI model until a non-functioning component is found.

Once it is verified that a component in a particular layer is functioning properly, testing can then be performed on any other layer.

Testing is performed at Layer 7 and at Layer 1, then at Layers 6 and 2, and so on, working towards the middle of the stack until all layers are verified as operational.

Once it is verified that components in a particular layer are functioning properly, it can then be assumed that components in the layers below it are also functional.

A

Once it is verified that components in a particular layer are functioning properly, it can then be assumed that components in the layers below it are also functional.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The nature of the OSI and TCP/IP layered models is that upper layers are dependent on lower layers. So when troubleshooting, if a particular layer is found to be working correctly then it can be assumed that all layers below it are also functioning correctly.

41
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A user has configured a NIC on the PC as shown but finds that the PC is unable to access the Internet. What is the problem?

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-01.png

The preferred DNS address is incorrect.
There should not be an alternate DNS server.
The settings were not validated upon exit.
The default gateway address is incorrect.

A

The default gateway address is incorrect.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
In order for a computer to communicate outside its network, it must have a valid default gateway configured.This address cannot be the same as the IP address of the computer.

42
Q

Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?

protocol analyzer
baselining tool
knowledge base
CiscoView

A

protocol analyzer

Answers Explanation & Hints:
A protocol analyzer such as Wireshark is capable of displaying the headers of data at any OSI Layer.

43
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configured an ACL preventing Telnet and HTTP access to the HQ web server from guest users in the Branch LAN. The address of the web server is 192.168.1.10 and all guest users are assigned addresses in the 192.168.10.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, no one can access any of the HQ servers. What is the problem?

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-06.jpg

Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.

A

The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Both named and numbered ACLs have an implicit deny ACE at the end of the list. This implicit deny blocks all traffic.

44
Q

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. PC1 is unable to connect to PC2. What should the administrator do first when troubleshooting the OSPFv2 implementation?

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-10.png

Test Layer 3 connectivity between the directly connected routers.
Turn off OSPFv2.
Disconnect the serial link between router R1 and R2.
Implement the network 192.168.255.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 command on router R1.

A

Test Layer 3 connectivity between the directly connected routers.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
A prerequisite for OSPFv2 neighbor relationships to form between two routers is Layer 3 connectivity. A successful ping confirms that a router interface is active and may be able to form an OSPF neighbor adjacency.

45
Q

A user is unable to reach the website when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161 . What is the issue?

default gateway
DHCP
DNS
TCP/IP protocol stack

A

DNS

Answers Explanation & Hints:
Domain Name Service (DNS) is used to translate a web address to an IP address. The address of the DNS server is provided via DHCP to host computers.​

46
Q

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the local serial 0/0/0 interface. Why are they not forming an adjacency?

https://infraexam.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CCNA3-v7-%E2%80%93-ENSA-%E2%80%93-Modules-9-%E2%80%93-12-Optimize-Monitor-and-Troubleshoot-Networks-Exam-Answers-03.jpg

They are in different subnets.
They have different routing processes.
They have different router IDs.
The connecting interfaces are configured as passive.

A

They are in different subnets.

Answers Explanation & Hints:
The routers need to be in the same subnet in order to form an adjacency. The routing processes can be different on each router. The router IDs must be different for routers that participate in the same routing domain. The interfaces are not passive.

47
Q

What type of traffic is described as consisting of traffic that gets a lower priority if it is not mission-critical?

data
video
voice

A

data

48
Q

What type of traffic is described as predictable and smooth?

voice
video
data

A

voice

49
Q

What type of traffic is described as not resilient to loss?

video
voice
data

A

video

50
Q

What type of traffic is described as being able to tolerate a certain amount of latency, jitter, and loss without any noticeable effects?

voice
video
data

A

voice

51
Q

What type of traffic is described as having a high volume of data per packet?

video
data
voice

A

video

52
Q

What type of traffic is described as consisting of traffic that requires a higher priority if interactive?

data
video
voice

A

data

53
Q

What type of traffic is described as requiring latency to be no more than 150 milliseconds (ms)?

voice
data
video

A

voice

54
Q

What type of traffic is described as requiring latency to be no more than 400 milliseconds (ms)?

video
data
voice

A

video

55
Q

What type of traffic is described as tending to be unpredictable, inconsistent, and bursty?

video
voice
data

A

video

56
Q

What type of traffic is described as traffic that requires at least 30 Kbps of bandwidth?

voice
video
data

A

voice

57
Q

A network manager wants to add a time to log messages so that there is record of when the message was generated. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

service timestamps log datetime
show cdp interface
ntp server 10.10.14.9
clock timezone PST -7

A

service timestamps log datetime

58
Q

A network manager wants to add a time to log messages so that there is record of when the message was generated. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

service timestamps log datetime
show cdp interface
ntp server 10.10.14.9
copy running-config tftp

A

service timestamps log datetime

59
Q

A network manager wants to backup the running configuration to a file server. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

copy running-config tftp
dir
show file systems
cd usbflash0:

A

copy running-config tftp

60
Q

A network manager wants lists the contents of flash. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

dir
lldp enable
service timestamps log datetime
show file systems

A

dir

61
Q

A network manager wants to ensure that the device will ignore the startup config file during startup and bypass the required passwords. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

confreg 0x2142
copy usbflash0:/R1-Config
copy running-config tftp
config-register 0x2102

A

confreg 0x2142

62
Q

A network manager wants to configure the router to load a new image from flash during bootup. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

boot system
clock set 14:25:00 nov 13 2018
copy tftp startup-config
copy flash: tftp:

A

boot system

63
Q

A network manager wants to determine the size of the Cisco IOS image file on the networking device. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

show flash:0
copy flash: tftp:
config-register 0x2102
confreg 0x2142

A

show flash:0

64
Q

A network manager wants to determine the size of the Cisco IOS image file on the networking device. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

show flash:0
clock timezone PST -7
lldp enable
ntp server 10.10.14.9

A

show flash:0

65
Q

A network manager wants to view the amount of available and free memory, the type of file system, and its permissions. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

show file systems
clock timezone PST -7
lldp enable
ntp server 10.10.14.9

A

show file systems

66
Q

A network manager wants to view the amount of available and free memory, the type of file system, and its permissions. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

show file systems
clock timezone PST -7
copy usbflash0:/R1-Config
copy running-config tftp

A

show file systems