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Block 16 Psychiatry Module 6 > module 6 L4-6 > Flashcards

module 6 L4-6 Flashcards

1
Q

Enumerate: Components of psychosis

A
  • loss of reality testing and impairment in mental functioning
  • severe impairment in mental and social functioning
  • severe ego regression
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2
Q

Enumerate: Schizophrenia DSM 5 criteria

A
  1. Characteristic symptoms
  2. Social/occupational dysfunction
  3. 6 months duration of symptoms
  4. Exclusion of mood and schizo-affective disorder
  5. Exclusion of substance abuse and other medical conditions as cause
  6. Relationship with pervasive developmental disorder
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3
Q

Enumerate: Schizophrenia subtypes

A
  1. Paranoid
  2. Disorganised
  3. Catatonic
  4. Undifferentiated
  5. Residual
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4
Q

Positive symptoms are?

A

Symptoms reflecting an excess or distortion of normal functions

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5
Q

Enumerate: Positive symptoms

A
  1. Hallucinations
  2. Delusions
  3. Abnormal thought content and process
  4. Speech disorder
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6
Q

Negative symptoms are?

A

Symptoms reflecting a diminution or loss of normal functions

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7
Q

Enumerate: Negative symptoms

The 5 A’s:

A
  1. Affective flattening
  2. Alogia
  3. Avolution-Apathy
  4. Anhedonia-asociality
  5. Attention deficits
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8
Q

Examples of cognitive symptoms

A
  • difficulty focusing and attention
  • poor executive function
  • working memory problems
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9
Q

Identify:False fixed belief not congruent with age, level of education, or culture not readily corrected by logical reasoning

A

Delusion

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10
Q

Identify: a perceptual disturbance not involving a stimulus

A

Hallucination

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11
Q

Identify: misinterpretation of a sensory stimulus

A

Illusion

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12
Q

Identify: the presence of psychotic symptoms lastng more than one day but less than one month

A

Brief Psychotic Disorder

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13
Q

Identify: the presence of psychotic symptoms for more than one month but less than 6 months

A

Shizopreniform disorder

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14
Q

Identify: the presence of active phase symptoms of shizophrenia as well as manic or depressive symptoms that are brief relative to the duration of psychosis
r

A

Schizoaffective disorde

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15
Q

Identify: The presence of delusions as the only symptom for at least one month

A

Delusional disorder

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16
Q

The preoccupation with one or more delusions or auditory hallucinations, usually delusions of persecution or grandeur

A

Paranoid-subtype schizophrenia

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17
Q

A marked regression to primitive, disinhibited, and unorganised behaviour e.g. disorganised speech and behaviour

A

Disorganised-subtype schizophrenia

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18
Q

Shizophrenic subtype manifesting as a marked disturbance in motor function, e.g. stupor, negativism, rigidity, excitement, posturing, echolalia, echopraxia, etc.

A

Catatonic subtype

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19
Q

Undifferentiated subtype: does not fit the criteria for the other subtypes

A

Residual subtype: an attenuated form without a complete set of active symptoms

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20
Q

Schneiderian delusions are highly indicative of schizphrenia if present. Enumerate.

A
  1. Thought withdrawal
  2. Thought insertion
  3. Thought broadcasting
  4. Made impulses
  5. Made volitional acts
  6. Somatic passivity
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21
Q

Type of disorganised speech wherein ideas are presented with loosely apparent or completely inapparent logical connections.

A

Looseness of association

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22
Q

Lack of observance to the main topic of discourse

A

Tangentiality

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23
Q

Non-linear pattern of getting to the point

A

Circumstantiality

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24
Q

Grouping of words based on similar sounds even without any logical connection

A

Clang association

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25
Q

Provision of a similar answer to different questions

A

Perseveration

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26
Q

Define the Erotomanic type of delusion

A

The belief that another, usually important or famous person is in love with you

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27
Q

Define the Grandiose type of delusion

A

An overinflated sense of worth, power, or knowledge

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28
Q

Define the Jealous type of delusion

A

Belief that a person’s spouse or sexual partner is unfaithful

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29
Q

Define the Persecutory type of delusion

A

The belief that one is being mistreated, being spied upon, or the target of harm

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30
Q

Define the Somatic type of delusion

A

The belief that one has a physical defect or medical problem

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31
Q

Enumerate: Characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia

A
  1. Delusions
  2. Hallucinations
  3. Disorganised speech
  4. Grossly abnormal psychomotor behaviour e.g. catatonia
  5. Negative symptoms
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32
Q

Component of social/occupational dysfunction to be monitored for at least 2 months in schizophrenia

A
  1. School performance
  2. Socialisation
  3. Self-care
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33
Q

Schneiderian auditory hallucinations

A
  1. Voices speaking thoughts out loud
  2. Voices arguing
  3. Voices commenting on the subject’s action
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34
Q

Differential diagnoses for schizophrenia

A
  1. Autism
  2. Neurological conditions
  3. Other medical conditions
  4. Substance-induced psychosis
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35
Q

A medical condition characterised by a trance or seizure with loss of sensation and consciousness accompanied with muscular rigidity and fixity of posture

A

Catalepsy

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36
Q

Decreased response to stimuli and a tendency to remain in an immobile posture

A

Waxy flexibility

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37
Q

A time period wherein symptom criteria are fulfilled

A

Acute episode

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38
Q

A time period wherein there is improvement after a previous episode and the criteria are only partialy fulfilled

A

Partial remission

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39
Q

A period wherein no disorder-specific symptoms

A

Full remission

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40
Q
  1. Oldest known substance of abuse
A

ethanol

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41
Q

Most frequently used alcohol

42
Q

Standard drink for women

A

2 standard drink of alcohol per day but not more than 7 in a week

43
Q

Standard drink for men

A

4 standard drinks per day and not more than 10 drinks in a week

44
Q

Average age of first alcohol consumption

A
  1. 34 years old
45
Q

Has the highest Influence for Alcohol Consumption

A

Neighborhood friends or neighbors

46
Q

Psychodynamic theory refers to the use of alcohol to reduce tension, increase feelings of power and decrease effects of psychological pain

A

False. The definition stated refers to Psychological theories. Psychodynamic theory is the use of alcohol to deal with self – punitive harsh superegos and decrease unconscious stress levels.

47
Q

This refers to the pattern of alcohol consumption that increases the risk of harmful consequences for the user or others

A

Hazardous Drinking

48
Q

This refers to alcohol consumption which results to physical, mental and even social consequences

A

Harmful Drinking

49
Q

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can be relieved by the use of benzodiazepines and alcohol

50
Q

Most common manifestation of alcohol withdrawal

A

Increased hand tremor

51
Q

Alcohol is primarily metabolized in this organ

52
Q

lcohol is primarily absorbed in this part of intestine

53
Q

Drug that inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase causing an intoxicated person to feel headache, nausea and dizziness after drinking

A

Disulfiram or Metronidazole

54
Q

Alcohol Elimination Rate

A

7 – 10g/hr or 1 standard drink/hr

55
Q

When Alcohol acts on this receptor it gives the relieving sensation to the person

A

u Receptor sites in the VTA (ventral tegmental area)

56
Q

Causes the pleasure/ rewarding feeling

A

Increase release of dopamine in the nucleus accumbens

57
Q

Causes the emotional uplifting and lessens sensitivity to pain

A

Stimulation of 5 – HT receptors (serotonin)

58
Q

The effect of alcohol on these receptors causes the downer effect that dulls the brain, dulls the senses and decreases the inhibitions

A

GABA receptors, NMDA receptors

59
Q

Alcohol is both depressant and reinforcer

60
Q

Gain pressure, altered consciousness, conform to behavior of peers and relief of stress and negative emotions are positive reinforcing effects of alcohol

A

False. Relief of stress and negative emotions is considered negative reinforcing effects of alcohol. All other mentioned are positive effects.

61
Q

1 standard drink contains how many grams of alcohol

A

10 g alcohol

62
Q

12 oz. of beer contains how many percentage of alcohol

A

5% alcohol

63
Q

Incoordination, mood lability, and deterioration in cognition is expected in person with what level of blood alcohol

A

80 – 200 mg/dl

64
Q

At a level of 250 mg/dl alcohol will cause nystagmus, marked slurring of speech and blackouts.

A

True. Between 200 – 300 mg/dl a person could manifest with the mentioned symptoms of alcohol intoxication.

65
Q

blood ethanol concentration of 300 mg/ml would likely to cause damage in this area of the brain

A

Parietal Lobe

66
Q

Which marker is good as an initial laboratory test to determine whether a person is heavily drinking. It is also elevated in obstructive liver problems. Returns to normal limits within 2 -3 weeks of abstinence

A

Gamma Glutamyltransferase (GGT)

67
Q

Nausea, Vomiting, Tremors, Paroxysmal Sweating, Anxiety, Agitation, Tactile, Auditory and Visual Disturbances and Clouding of sensorium are all part of the parameters used in CIWA

68
Q

A person with slurred speech, incoordination, visual impairment, slow reaction time and blood ethanol level of 100 mg/ml is considered to have what level of intoxication

A

Mild Intoxication

69
Q

Resting membrane potential

70
Q

When the impulse reaches the synapse this releases the neurotransmitter

A

Presynaptic neuron

71
Q

What are the 4 fates of the neurotransmitter when the impulse reaches the synapse

A
  1. It is received by its receptor on the postsynaptic neuron
  2. It returns to presynaptic neuron at the reuptake receptor
  3. It is destroyed by enzymes
  4. It returns to the presynaptic neuron and blocks further release of the transmitter
72
Q

Term used to describe ion channels whose
opening and closing is sensitive to membrane
potential.

A

Voltage gated

73
Q

erm for a large group
of neurotransmitter receptors that
combine receptor and ion channel functions into
a single molecule.

A

Ligand gated

74
Q

What are metabotropic receptors?

A

These are 7 transmembrane G protein coupled receptors

75
Q

T or F: the ligand gated channels respond to changes in the membrane potential of the cell

A

F: it’s the voltage gated channels

76
Q

These channels are responsible for fast synaptic transmission typical of hierarchical pathways in the CNS

A

Ligand gated channels

77
Q

Acetylcholine is generally excitatory or inhibitory?

A

Excitatory

78
Q

Agonist receptor of acetylcholine

79
Q

Antagonist receptor of acetylcholine

80
Q

M1 muscarinic receptors acts on

A

Salivary and peptic secretions

81
Q

M2 muscarinic receptors acts on

A

Intestinal muscles and heart

82
Q

Cholinergic pathways appear to play an important role in

A

Cognitive functions esp memory

83
Q

What does OARS mean? This will help you develop a more patient centered relationship

A

Open-ended questions
Affirming
Reflections
Summarizing

84
Q

Psychopharmacology alone will not cure a patient. It goes hand in hand with

A

Psychotherapy

85
Q

This NT is involved in emotions, feeling of well being, lessens impact of pain

86
Q

This NT is involved in the fight or flight reaction

A

Norepinephrine

87
Q

T or F: Alpha is generally inhibitory and Beta is generally excitatory

A

F: Alpha- excitatory Beta – inhibitory

88
Q

NT involved in allergic reactions

89
Q

T or F: GABA and Benzodiazepines are both inhibitory and they work on the same receptor

90
Q

What does tolerance mean?

A

It’s when a person becomes less responsive to a drug as it is administered over time

91
Q

Define dependence

A

It’s when a person can’t function normally without a drug

92
Q

Relative measure of toxicity or safety of a drug

A

Therapeutic index

93
Q

Main way to metabolize medications

A

Main way to metabolize medications

Oxidation

94
Q

Relative dose required to achieve certain effects

95
Q

Time it takes to reduce a particular concentration in half

96
Q

What is the aim in acute phase of drug therapy

A

Control of current episode

97
Q

What is the aim in the maintenance phase?

A

Prevention of relapse, maintain control

98
Q

What is the aim in the prophylactic phase?

A

Prevention of future episodes or recurrences

99
Q

Gabapentin can also be used for

A

Mood stability, pain control and phantom limb

100
Q

How does electorconvulsive therapy works? How is it monitored?

A

It uses controlled seizures for the treatment of mental disorders. It is monitored with Hamilton Depression Scale

Block 16 Psychiatry Module 6 (2 decks)

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