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Microbiology > Module 6 - Host Defenses > Flashcards

Module 6 - Host Defenses Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following is used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign substances?

A

All of the above
lactic acid * Hydrogen peroxide * Superoxide anion * Nitric oxide

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2
Q

Which of the following occurs with inflammation?

A

All of the above
calor - warmth * tumor - swelling * dolor - pain * rubor - redness

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3
Q

During an acquired specific immune response, which of the following are involved?

A

B and T lymphocytes

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4
Q

An individual suddenly experiencing increased stress in his or her life may have a temporary deficiency in which of the following areas of the immune response?

A

cell-mediated immunity

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5
Q

The cells from a specific B-cell become

A

Plasma cells

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6
Q

Which lymphoid organ filters pathogens from the blood?

A

Spleen

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7
Q

One of the foundations of vaccination is generating an antibody response against a pathogen. The antibody response is one part of the adaptive immune response. Which of the following characteristics of an adaptive immune response is correct?

A

The response is specific

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8
Q

Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that

A

Viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect

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9
Q

Which of the following are types of phagocytes?

A

All of the above
monocyte * neutophil * Kupffer cell * macrophage

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10
Q

The concentration (or titer) of antibody to a specific antigen can be determined using a ________ test

A

agglutination

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11
Q

Which of the following are NOT granulocytes

A

Lymphocytes

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12
Q

Which of the following occurs when soluble antigens combine with antibodies?

A

precipitation

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13
Q

While not a hard-and-fast rule, molecules may be ranked from more immunogenic to less immunogenic. Which shows the correct ranking from more immunogenic to less immunogenic?

A

protein>polysaccharides>lipids>haptens

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14
Q

In designing a vaccine, you will need to choose an antigen/antigens to stimulate the adaptive response. All antigens are not created equal–there are certain characteristics that make more effective antigens. Which of the following best describes why molecules such as glycoproteins are more effective antigens compared to molecules such as starch?

A

Glycoproteins contain a variety of shapes and subunits that contribute to the overall complexity of the molecule.

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15
Q

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a primary immunodeficiency

A

Your patient is born with agammaglobulinemia, a genetic condition that leads to decreased antibody production

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16
Q

All the following apply to T cells except

A

coordinate the humoral response by making antibodies.

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17
Q

Successful vaccination requires the generation of an antibody response and long-term memory. Mounting this response requires a coordinated series of events. Arrange the following statements in the correct order to describe how an antibody response is generated

A

1)Dendritic cells process antigens
2) Dendritic cells present antigens on their surface, T helper cells recognize MHCII/antigen complexes on dendritic cells
3) Stimulated by IL-4, T helper cells differentiate into Th2 cells
4)B cells (presenting MHCII/antigens) are activated after interacting withTh2 cells
5) B cells differentiate into memory cells and plasma cells.

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18
Q

When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they develop into

A

Macrophages

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19
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of chemokines?

A

They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes

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20
Q

The process that involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis is called

A

opsonization

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21
Q

In turbidimetry, a machine measures the amount of light reflected from the antigen-antibody complexes within the solution; whereas in nephelometry, a light detector measures the amount of light passing through a solution.

A

false

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22
Q

A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a(n)

A

antigen

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23
Q

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called

A

plasma cells

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24
Q

Lymphocyte maturation involves the following except

A

B cells maturing in the spleen

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25
Q

The following cells don’t secrete antibodies except

A

plasma cells

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26
Q

Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ________immunity

A

artificial active

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27
Q

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions

A

All of the choices are correct.
function in recognition of self molecules * receive and transmit chemical messages among other cells of the system * are the result of genetic expression * aid in cellular development

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28
Q

What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

A

Display of microbial epitome-MCH II complexes on the cell surface

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29
Q

Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are agglutination tests.

A

true

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30
Q

Which T cell class is incorrectly matched with its description?

A

TC: attack other T cells during self-tolerance screening

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31
Q

Hematopoiesis is the production of only red blood cells

A

false

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32
Q

MHC II interacts with both the CD4 and CD8 receptors on T helper and T cytotoxic cells

A

true

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33
Q

MHC II primarily displays extracellular antigens which have been phagocytized

A

true

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34
Q

MHC I is found on all body cells except red blood cells and presents a sample of cellular proteins, including those of any intracellular pathogens, to T cells.

A

true

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35
Q

A newly-generated T cell that can recognize MHCs and is not self-reactive, will migrate to the bone marrow for screening for the ability to make antibodies against self-antigens

A

false

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36
Q

A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants

A

false

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37
Q

DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency disease characterized by a lack of T cells?

A

true

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38
Q

A child has a history of recurring serious bacterial infections. A blood sample shows lymphocyte levels are near normal levels, but no antibodies to the pathogens are detected in serologic tests. Based on this information, the likeliest diagnosis for this child is Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia

A

true

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39
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of the third line of defense that makes it significantly different from the second line

A

The response is specific to a single antigen

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40
Q

Antimicrobial peptides such as defensins protect the host by

A

forming pores in prokaryote cytoplasmic membranes.

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41
Q

What is the name of the iron transport protein located in the blood?

A

Transferrin.

42
Q

What is the primary function of neutrophils?

A

To phagocytize any pathogens in the blood.

43
Q

Which of these statements accurately describes phagocytosis?

A

Pathogens are killed in phagolysosomes by acid and oxidative radicals.

44
Q

Phagocytes have Toll-like receptors on their surface and NOD proteins in their cytoplasm that help them recognize pathogenic microbes. These receptors and proteins recognize:

A

PAMPs.

45
Q

What is the term for the process in which pathogens are coated with antimicrobial proteins to increase the likelihood of phagocytosis?

A

Opsonization.

46
Q

What is the primary function of eosinophils?

A

To attach to and attack large pathogens, such as parasitic worms.

47
Q

Which of the following is NOT an outcome resulting from the activation of the complement system?

A

generation of antibodies.

48
Q

What is the name of the protein molecules released by host cells that inhibit the spread of viral infections?

A

Interferons

49
Q

Which pathway of complement activation acts in conjunction with the action of antibodies?

A

The classical pathway.

50
Q

All of the following are signs and symptoms of inflammation EXCEPT:

A

(B) Pus.

51
Q

What is the name of the inflammatory mediator released by mast cells?

A

Histamine.

52
Q

Why is vasodilation a beneficial response if the body is invaded by pathogens?

A

More blood, oxygen, and nutrients are delivered to the site of infection.

53
Q

What is the physiological trigger for a fever?

A

Pyrogens.

54
Q

How is a fever beneficial for fighting an infection?

A

The higher temperature inhibits the growth of some microbes.

55
Q

If someone has a fever, why does his or her skin often feel cool to the touch?

A

During a fever, blood vessels are constricted.

56
Q

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT in describing attributes of adaptive immunity?

A

(B) Adaptive immune responses are highly active all of the time.

57
Q

What is the role of primary lymphoid organs in adaptive immunity?

A

Lymphocytes arise and mature in these organs.

58
Q

What is the main function of B lymphocytes?

A

To secrete soluble antibodies.

59
Q

Which class of antibody is most commonly associated with mucus membranes and secretions?

A

IgA.

60
Q

What type of lymphocyte is responsible for killing abnormal or virus-infected cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cell.

61
Q

Which of the following cells is NOT an antigen-presenting cell (APC)?

A

(B) neutrophil.

62
Q

A virus replicating in the cytoplasm of a cell is an example of an :

A

Endogenous antigen.

63
Q

What is the difference between processing of endogenous antigens and that of exogenous antigens?

A

Endogenous antigens are presented by MHC class I, exogenous by MHC class II.

64
Q

What must happen before exogenous antigens are presented?

A

The pathogen internalized by the APC and the catabolized to create peptide antigens.

65
Q

Where within a cell are MHC class I molecules synthesized?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum.

66
Q

How do type 1 helper T (Th1) cells improve the function of macrophages?

A

They improve the efficiency of phagocytosis

67
Q

What is the name of the glycoprotein molecule on cytotoxic T cells that recognizes and binds to MHC class I?

A

CD8.

68
Q

Which of the following is NOT accurate regarding killing of target cells by cytotoxic T cells?

A

(D) Antibodies direct the T cells.

69
Q

Where in the body do APCs go to present endogenous antigens to cytotoxic T cells?

A

Lymph nodes.

70
Q

What is the benefit of memory T cells that remain in the lymphoid tissues for years after an infection?

A

They provide a quick response without the need for interaction with APCs.

71
Q

How are B cells activated without the help of T cells?

A

Repetitive epitopes allow B cell receptor cross-linking, which leads to cell activation and proliferation.

72
Q

What is the first antibody class secreted by plasma cells before isotope switching?

A

IgM.

73
Q

Which statement regarding memory B cells in most accurate?

A

They can last up to 20 years in lymph tissues.

74
Q

Immunity that is passed from mother to child through the placenta is what type of immunity?

A

Naturally acquired passive immunity.

75
Q

How is a secondary immune response different from a primary immune response?

A

It is faster and more effective.

76
Q

Which of the following is an example of artificially acquired active immunity?

A

Vaccination.

77
Q

What class of antibody is able to cross the placenta from mother to developing fetus?

A

IgG.

78
Q

Jim was given antitoxin when he was seven, and now at age nine, he has been bitten by a rattlesnake. Will he be protected?

A

No. Passive immunity does not have memory.

79
Q

What is one reason why active immunity is more advantageous than passive immunity?

A

Active immunity leads to the development of immunological memory.

80
Q

What is the main function of a cytokine?

A

To act as a signal to direct active immune responses.

81
Q

Who coined the term vaccination?

A

Edward Jenner.

82
Q

What is the name of a substance added to a vaccine to increase the antigenicity?

A

Adjuvant.

83
Q

Which side effect can happen with attenuated but NOT with inactivated vaccines?

A

Development of disease.

84
Q

The administration of antivenim to snakebite victims is an example of:

A

Passive immunotherapy.

85
Q

When a sufficient number of people have been vaccinated against a pathogen, the spread of that pathogen is hampered, an unvaccinated people are also protected. This is called:

A

Herd immunity.

86
Q

What is the difference between a direct test and an indirect test when testing antigen-antibody interactions?

A

Direct test look for antigens, whereas indirect tests look for antibodies.

87
Q

What molecules interact during a precipitation test?

A

Antigen and antibodies.

88
Q

During a precipitation test, what happens if there is an excess of antibody?

A

Immune complexes are small and soluble; thus, no precipitation occurs.

89
Q

When determining antibody concentration in a serum sample, what does titer mean?

A

The highest dilution of serum that still causes the sample to agglutinate.

90
Q

What type of test is used to determine blood type?

A

Hemagglutination.

91
Q

Which test is used to verify HIV-positive test results obtained by ELISA?

A

Western blot.

92
Q

What substance is detected during an ELISA?

A

An enzyme/substrate reaction that produces a colored or fluorescent product.

93
Q

In an antibody sandwich ELISA, the plates are first coated with what molecule/substance?

A

Antigen-specific antibodies.

94
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of ELISA testing?

A

Low sensitivity.

95
Q

Which of the following is a reason why an immunofiltration assay is better than a traditional ELISA?

A

The assay is completed more rapidly.

96
Q

All of the following are characteristic symptoms of type I hypersensitivity reactions EXCEPT:

A

fever.

97
Q

What type of cell releases histamine?

A

Mast cell.

98
Q

What is the best drug administer to someone suffering from anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine.

99
Q

Which of the following is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Reaction to a blood transfusion.

100
Q

Children who CANNOT produce B cells or T cells have

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome.

101
Q

Failure of a child’s thymus gland to develop properly can lead to a deficiency in:

A

T cells.

102
Q

A person who was NOT born with an immunodeficiency but develops one later in life has:

A

A secondary immunodeficiency.

Microbiology (1 decks)

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