Module 6- Emergence Flashcards

1
Q

What Liter of O2 is required to facilitate wash out

A

10L

Use 100% O2

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2
Q

What is MAC awake

A

At which 50% of people respond to commands

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3
Q

MAC Bar is

A

The MAC necessary to block SNS response to skin incision, which is about 1.6-2x MAC

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4
Q

What is useful to analyzing anesthetic depth

A

BIS

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5
Q

Lidocaine as an adjunct can cause

A

Delayed emergence due to excess plasma concentrations (infusion)

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6
Q

When should Ketamine be stopped

A

15-30 min prior

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7
Q

When should Sufentanil be stopped

A

30-60min prior

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8
Q

When should remifentanil be stopped?

A

10-15 min prior

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9
Q

When should Precedex be stopped

A

30 min before due to its long half life

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10
Q

When should propofol be stopped?

A

Until the end

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11
Q

What is helpful with breakthrough pain

A

Short acting opioids like fentanyl

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12
Q

What is beneficial for post-op pain

A

long-acting opioids, but don’t give them at end of the case

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13
Q

What should be considered for a patient taking chronic pain meds?

A

Add home dose plus what is needed for surgery

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14
Q

What is the dose of Ketorolac?

A

10-30mg IV (check with surgeon)

Post-op bleeding risk

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15
Q

What percentage of patients will develop PONV

A

One third

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16
Q

Anticholinergic that acts as an antiemetic

A

Scopolamine

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17
Q

What is a NK-1 receptor antagonist

A

Aprepitant

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18
Q

Corticosteroid that acts as an antiemetic

A

Dexamethasone

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19
Q

Antihistamines given for N/V

A

Hydroxyzine
Benadryl

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20
Q

What Phenothiazine is given for N/V

A

Promethazine
Prochlorperazine

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21
Q

What Butyrophenones are given for N/V

A

Droperidol
Haloperidol

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22
Q

What Prokinetic is given for N/V

A

Reglan

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23
Q

What Serotonin receptor antagonist is given for N/V

A

Ondansetron

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24
Q

What vasopressor helps with N/V

A

Ephedrine

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25
Q

A patient with no risk factors has what % of PONV risk

A

10%

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26
Q

A patient with 1 risk factor has what % of PONV risk

A

20%

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27
Q

A patient with 2 risk factors has what % of PONV risk

A

40%

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28
Q

A patient with 3 risk factors has what % of PONV risk

A

60%

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29
Q

A patient with 4 risk factors has what % of PONV risk

A

80%

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30
Q

Sufficient recovery of a NMB is confirmed by

A

An adductor pollicis ToF ratio of at least 0.90

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31
Q

What is the only method of assessing whether a safe level of recovery of muscular function has occurred

A

Quantitative

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32
Q

About what percent of patients can have TOF ratios less than 0.90 following surgery

A

30-50%, which is a real risk

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33
Q

Incomplete reversal is associated with an increased risk for

A

Hypoxemic events
Airway obstruction
Postop pulmonary complications
Prolonged PACU times

34
Q

A profound count of <3 can receive how much Sugammadex (posttetanic)

35
Q

A deep block with 0 twitches can receive how much Sugammadex (postttetanic)

36
Q

TOF count 1-4 can receive how much sugammadex

37
Q

With fade, what is the dose of Sugammadex

38
Q

With no fade, what is the dose of Sugammadex

39
Q

TOF ratio of 0-0.8 should receive how much Sugammadex

40
Q

TOF ratio of >0.9 should receive how much Sugammadex

A

No reversal

41
Q

What is required (vent settings) prior to extubation?

42
Q

What are the characteristics of stage 2

A

Disinhibition
Delirium
Uncontrolled movements
HTN
Tachycardia

43
Q

Are airway reflexes intact during stage 2

A

Yes & are hypersensitive to stimulation

Avoid airway manipulation during this stage

44
Q

There is a high risk of what during stage 2

A

Laryngospasm

45
Q

What can compromise the patient’s airway

A

Spastic movements
Vomiting
Rapid & irregular respirations

46
Q

What can help reduce the time in stage 2

A

Fast acting agents

47
Q

The brain wakes up in what order

A

Reverse order of evolution

48
Q

Which reflexes come back first

A

Deep, which is why you see swallowing, gagging & coughing

49
Q

What reflex comes back last

A

Purposeful movement, which is following commands

50
Q

Why is awake extubation preferred?

A

For those who are at a high risk for aspiration & are a difficult intubation

Ensures they can protect their airway & breathe spontaneously

51
Q

What are the disadvantages of an awake extubation

A

CV stimulation
Discomfort
More coughing & Straining

52
Q

What is deep extubation?

A

When patient is in the 3rd stage of anesthesia

Minimizes the complications of laryngospasm

53
Q

What is the MAC of deep anesthesia/extubation

A

Over 1 MAC (1-1.3 MAC)

54
Q

What are the advantages of deep extubation

A

Reduced risk of gagging, coughing & discomfort

55
Q

What are the disadvantages of deep extubation

A

Respiratory depression
Delayed awakening
Difficulty assessing airway reflexes
Longer PACU time

56
Q

Avoiding prolonged intubation can reduce the risk of

A

Infections such as ventilator-associated PNA

57
Q

What causes airway obstruction?

A

Swelling, bleeding

58
Q

What is a laryngospasm

A

Reflex contraction of the vocal cords preventing airflow

59
Q

What are the complications associated with extubation

A

Respiratory depression
Aspiration
CV instability

60
Q

What are the extubating criteria

A

Confirm adequate reversal
Assess Recovery
Monitor VS
Normothermia
Pain management

61
Q

What are things that can be performed to help with adequate emergence/extubating the patient

A

Pre-oxygenate the patient
Recruitment maneuvers
Suctioning
Remove throat packs
Use bite block

62
Q

What can happen if the patient bites on the tube?

A

Negative Pressure Pulmonary edema

63
Q

Recruitment maneuvers are essential for what patient population

A

Asthmatics

COPD

Procedures where insufflation was used

64
Q

If high pressures with mask ventilation were used, what can you do?

A

Place OG to suction to decrease risk of aspiration & improve ventilation

65
Q

What position is best for Obese patients when extubating

A

Head up position
(good for those at risk for hypoventilation

66
Q

What is the lateral decubitus position good for?

A

Those at high risk for pulmonary aspiration

67
Q

Weak pharyngeal muscles can cause

A

A compromise in airway patency

67
Q

Why do we inspect the balloon cuff?

A

To avoid cord injury or arytenoid dislocation

67
Q

Applying positive pressure right before cuff deflation will

A

Help expel secretions that have collected above the vocal cords

67
Q

Reduced muscle strength can

A

impair adequate ventilation & risk of aspiration

68
Q

The ability to respond to low oxygen levels

A

Is diminished

69
Q

How do we objectively assess degree of NMB

70
Q

What are the complications of a laryngospasm

A

Bradycardia due to vagal response

Pulmonary edema

Pulmonary aspiration

Desat/Hypoxemia

71
Q

What causes a laryngospasm

A

Sensory stimulation of the vagus nerve- the internal branch of SLN, leading to reflexive spasms

72
Q

What muscle contracts during laryngospasm?

A

cricothyroid muscle 9stimulated by SLN) tense the vocal cords, while the thyoarytenoid & lateral cricoarytenoid muscles (stimulated by the RLN) cause adduction of the cords

73
Q

What type of pressure can you apply to break laryngospasm

A

Positive pressure

74
Q

What airway maneuvers break laryngospasm

A

Jaw thrust
Chin lift
Lawson maneuver

75
Q

What medications can be given t obreak a laryngospasm?

A

Lidocainie
Muscle relaxant