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module 6 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four general functions of the respiratory system?

A
  • Air passageway (atmosphere & alveoli)
  • Site for exchange (O2 and CO2)
  • Detection of odor (olfactory receptor)
  • Sound production (vocal cord vibration)
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2
Q

Structural organization of the respiratory system

A

Upper respiratory tract and lower respiratory tract

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3
Q

Upper respiratory system

A
  • Nose
  • Nasal cavity
  • Pharynx
  • Larynx
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4
Q

Lower respiratory system

A
  • Trachea
  • Bronchus
  • Lungs
  • Bronchiole/Bronchus
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5
Q

Functional organization of the respiratory system

A

Conducting zone and respiratory zone

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6
Q

Conducting zone

A

Bulk movement of air into and out of lungs: nose to terminal bronchiole

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7
Q

Conducting zone

A

Bulk movement of air into/out of the lungs (nose to terminal bronchioles)

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8
Q

Respiratory zone

A

Diffusion of gasses into/out of the body: respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, and alveoli

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9
Q

Respiratory zone

A

Diffusion of gasses (respiratory bronchiole, alveolar duct, and alveoli)

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10
Q

Bronchiole tree

A
  • Highly branched system of air-conducting passages that originates at the main bronchi
  • At each point, bronchi decrease in size but increase in number of passageways (& surface area for exchange)
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11
Q

Bronchiole tree

A
  • Highly branched system of air-conducting passages that originate at the main bronchi
  • At each point, decrease size but increase number of passageways and surface area
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12
Q

Bronchioles and alveoli

A
  • Have a large surface area for gas exchange
  • High capillary density where gas exchange occurs
  • Vascular smooth muscle (regulates the diameter of bronchioles)
  • Elastic fibers allow for stretch and recoil
  • Connective tissue for support
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13
Q

Asthma

A

Episodes of bronchoconstriction; wheezing, coughing, shortness of breath, and excess mucus. Often caused by sensitivity to an airborne agent

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14
Q

Asthma treatments

A
  • Inhaled steroids
  • Bronchodialators
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15
Q

Alveoli

A
  • Each lung contains 300 to 400 million
  • Alveolar pores: openings provide collateral ventilation
  • Surrounded by pulmonary capillaries
  • Divided by interalveolar septum (contain elastic fibers)
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16
Q

What are the three types of found in the alveoli

A
  • Alveolar type 1
  • Alveolar type 2
  • Alveolar macrophages
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17
Q

Alveolar type 1 cells

A
  • Most abundant
  • Make up the internal surface of the alveolus simple squamous
  • Ideal for diffusion
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18
Q

Alveolar type 2 cells

A
  • Less common and smaller
  • Simple cuboidal
  • Produce and secrete surfactant (reduces surface tension and prevents collapsing)
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19
Q

Alveolar macrophages

A
  • Mobile scavengers
  • Engulf foreign material, dust, bacteria, etc.
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20
Q

Respiratory membrane

A
  • Thin, large surface area
  • Ideal for diffuison of gasses
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21
Q

What three components of the respiratory membrane

A
  • Capillary endothelium
  • Basement membranes of capillary endothelium and alveolar epitheluim fused together
  • Alveolar epithelium
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22
Q

Anatomy of the lungs

A

Apex, base, diaphragm, ribs, costal surface, mediastinal surface

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23
Q

Left lung

A
  • 2 lobes divided by one fissure
  • Smaller
  • Cardiac impression on the medial surface
  • Cardiac notch on the interior surface (heart development in the fetus)
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24
Q

Right lung

A

3 lobes diveded by three fissures, larger and wider

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25
Q

Hilum (lungs)

A

Bronchi, pulmonary vessels, autonomic nerves, lymph vessels pass through here

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26
Q

Pulmonary circulation

A

Blood from the right ventricle to pulmonary capillaries, gas exchange - back to LV

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27
Q

Bronchiole circulation

A

blood from the systemic circulation providing oxygen and nutrient to the tissues of the lungs

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28
Q

8 steps of pulmonary ventilation

A
  1. Air containing O2 is inhaled into alveoli
  2. O2 diffuses from alveoli into the blood of pulmonary capillary
  3. O2 is transported in blood to systemic cells of the body
  4. O2 diffuses from the blood of systemic capillaries to systemic cells
  5. CO2 diffuses from systemic cells into the blood of systemic capillaries
  6. CO2 is transported in the blood to the lungs
  7. CO2 diffuses from the blood into the pulmonary capillaries into alveoli
  8. Air containing CO2 is exhaled
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29
Q

Boyle’s Law- Relationship of pressure and volume

A

Constant temperature, the pressure of a gas decreases if the volume of the container decreases and vice versa

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30
Q

Volume and Pressure equation

A

(P1)(V1)=P2)(V2), P1 and V1 represent initial conditions and P2 and V2 are the changed conditions

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31
Q

What type of relationship to pressure and volume have?

A

Inverse

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32
Q

Air pressure gradient exits when force per unit area is…?

A

Greater in one place than another (high to low pressure)

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33
Q

The thoracic cavity and lungs are lined with what serous membrane called what?

A

Pleural cavity

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34
Q

Function of the pleura

A

Protects the lungs from abrasive forces, and allows lungs to adhere to the thoracic cavity (inhalation)

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35
Q

The pleural cavity is divided into what two sections?

A

Parietal pleura (outer) and Visceral pleura (inner)

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36
Q

Interpleural pressure

A

Pressure in the pleural cavity, lower

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37
Q

Intrapulmonary pressure

A

Pressure in the lungs, higher

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38
Q

Why does the interpulmonary pressure have to be higher than the intrapleural pressure?

A

It allows the lungs to stay inflated

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39
Q

What two factors help to keep the lungs inflated

A

Pleural cavity (fluid) and the difference in pressure

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40
Q

Quiet breathing

A
  • Passive & unconscious process
  • Involves the diaphragm and external intercostals
  • Relatively small changes in thoracic cavity volume and intrapulmonary pressure
  • Chest volume changes are not readily apparent
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41
Q

Volume change during inspiration

A

Thoracic cavity volume increases

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42
Q

Vertitical volume changes during inspiration

A

Increases due to contraction, diaphragm flattens

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43
Q

Lateral volume changes during inspiration

A

Increases as thoracic cavity widens as ribs elevate (external intercostals)

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44
Q

Anterior/posterior changes during inspiration

A

The inferior portion of the sternum moves anterior

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45
Q

What is the specific value of interpulmonary pressure (& atmospheric pressure) AT REST

A

760 mm Hg

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46
Q

What is the specific value of intrapleural pressure AT REST

A

756 mm Hg

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47
Q

Tidal volume

A

The amount of air inhaled and exhaled at rest

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48
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

The extra volume of air that can be inhaled with maximal effort after reaching the end of normal inspiration

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49
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

The extra amount of air that can be exhaled with maximal effort after reaching normal expiration

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50
Q

Residual volume

A

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after expiratory reserve volume (maximum air that can move into and out of the lungs)

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51
Q

Vital capacity

A

The maximum amount of gas that can be expelled from the lungs after taking the deepest possible breath

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52
Q

Pathway of air through the respiratory system & functions

A
  • Nasal cavity: transport, condition (humidity, ^temp, clean)
  • Trachea: transport, clean
  • Primary Bronchi: transport
  • Bronchiole: transport
  • Alveolar sac: diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2)
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53
Q

Pressure and flow realtionship

A

Direct, lager pressure = larger flow

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54
Q

Flow and resistance realtionship

A

Inverse, increased resistance = less flow

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55
Q

Flow equation

A

Flow = change in pressure/resistance

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56
Q

Resistance equation

A

R = (viscosity)(length)/radius^4

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57
Q

Less viscosity will do what do resistance

A

Decrease

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58
Q

What will increasing the length of the vessel do to resistance

A

Increase

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59
Q

What will increasing the vessel radius to do resistance

A

Decrease

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60
Q

If intrapulmonary pressure and intrapleural pressure are equal what will happen to air flow

A

There will be no air flow

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61
Q

What are the two muscles associated with quiet breathing?

A

Diaphram and intercostals

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62
Q

What is the specific value of intrapulmonary pressure during quiet inspiration (breath in)

A

758 mmHg

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63
Q

What is the specific value of intrapleural pressure during quiet inspiration (breath in)

A

754 mmHg

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64
Q

What is the exact value of intrapulmonary pressure during quiet expiration (breath out)

A

763 mmHg

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65
Q

What is the exact value of intrapleural pressure during quiet expiration (breath out)

A

756 mmHg

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66
Q

Tidal volume value- Quiet breathing

A

300-500 mL

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67
Q

Respiratory rate value - Quiet breathing

A

12-17 breaths/min

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68
Q

Minute ventilation & value - Quiet breathing

A

amount of air moving into and out of lungs (300mL, 3L)

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69
Q

Forced breathing requires additional

A

Muscles

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70
Q

Forced breathing causes greater change in what volume?

A

Thoracic cavity volume

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71
Q

Tidal volume value - Forced breathing

A

3000mL (500mL rest)

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72
Q

Respiratory rate value - Forced breathing

A

40 to 70 breaths per minute

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73
Q

Minute ventilation - Forced breathing

A

150 L/min to 200 L/min

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74
Q

Where is the control of breathing regulated?

A

Brainstem

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75
Q

Medulla - Control of breathing

A

Inspiration and expiration

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76
Q

Pons - Control of breathing

A

Rate and depth of breathing

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77
Q

Motor output of breathing

A

Diaphram and External intercostals

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78
Q

Sensory output of breathing

A
  • Central chemoreceptors
  • Peripheral chemoreceptors
    Thermoreceptors =
    • Cental hypothalamus
    • Peripheral skin
    • Skeletal muscle
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79
Q

Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located?

A

Aortic arch and carotid sinus

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80
Q

The chemo receptors detect what (independently)

A

changes in PCO2 and H+ (&PO2)

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81
Q

When the body is cold, breathing will be

A

less frequent and deeper

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82
Q

When the body is warm, breathing will be

A

frequent and shallow

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83
Q

What percent of the air is N2?

A

79.04%

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84
Q

What percent of the air is O2?

A

20.93%

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85
Q

What percent of the air is CO2

86
Q

Daltons law

A

Total air= PN2 + PO2 + PCO2

87
Q

Partial pressure,

A

Individual pressure, tells how much of one substance will diffuse in alveoli

88
Q

Oxygen content in the blood will go from ___mmHg to ___mmHg when pumped through body

89
Q

Partial pressure drives what?

A

Diffusion of gas from alveoli to blood and then from blood to muscle

90
Q

Systemic circulation blood vessels

A

many long blood vessels

91
Q

Systemic pressure and resistance

A

higher pressure (120/80, 93 mmHg) and high resistance

92
Q

Pulmonary circulation blood vessels

A

many small vessels

93
Q

Pulmonary circulation pressure and resistance

A

Low pressure (15 mmHg) and low resistance

94
Q

Oxygen carrying capacity

A

20 mL O2/100mL blood (1L O2/5L blood)

95
Q

What percent of O2 is bound to hemoglobin in RBC

96
Q

What percent of O2 is dissolved in the plasma

97
Q

What does increase in pH do do hemoglobin saturation

A

Lower % saturation, more oxygen unloaded

98
Q

What does a higher PCO2 do to hemoglobin saturation

A

Lower % saturation, more oxygen unloaded

99
Q

What does a warmer blood temperature do to hemoglobin saturation

A

Lower % saturation, more oxygen unloaded

100
Q

Effects of exercising muscle

A

Decreasing pH, increase in PCO2 and temperature, favor unloading oxygen

101
Q

General functions of the urinary system

A
  • Filters the blood and regulates blood volume
  • Eliminates waste (urea, creatine)
  • Regulates levels of ions (Na+, K+, Ca++, electrolytes)
  • Regulate acid-base balance (H+, HCO3-)
  • Eliminate biologically active compounds (hormones and drugs)
  • Regulate blood pressure (fluid loss and # of RBCs)
102
Q

Urea

A

Waste product of protein metabolism

103
Q

Path of urine

A
  • Kidney
  • Renal pelvis (urine here)
  • Ureter
  • Urinary bladder
  • Urethra
104
Q

Kidneys are innervated by what nervous system

A

Autonomic NS

105
Q

Role of sympathetic NS in kidneys

A

Blood vessel constriction/dilatation to regulate blood flow to kidneys

106
Q

Role of parasympathetic NS in KIDNEYS

107
Q

Role of parasympathetic NS in BLADDER

A

internal sphincter

108
Q

Role of somatic NS in urination

A

external sphincter

109
Q

Kidney stone

A

High concentration of calcium oxalate or uric acid form a solid structure, or stone

110
Q

Nephron

A

The microscopic functional unit of a kidney, where the volume of urine is regulated

111
Q

Glomerulus

A

tuft of capillaries

112
Q

Afferent arteriole

A

blood flow into the glomerulus (towards), larger

113
Q

Efferent arteriole

A

blood flowing out of the glomerulus (away), smaller

114
Q

Proximal convoluted tubule

A

Tublue closer to the glomerulus, bundled/high surface area

115
Q

Distal convoluted tubule

A

Tubule farther from glomerulus, bundled/high surface area

116
Q

Glomerular filtration

A

The movement of substances from the blood within the glomerulus into the capsular space

117
Q

What is the fluid in the glomerulus called

118
Q

Tubular reabsorption

A

The movement of substances from the tubular fluid back into the blood

119
Q

Tubular secretion

A

The movement of substances from the blood into the tubular fluid

120
Q

What are the three layers that make up the glomerular filtration membrane?

A
  • Endothelium (blocks formed elements)
  • Basement membrane (blocks large proteins)
  • Filtration slits of the visceral layer (block small proteins)
121
Q

What is included in filtrate?

A

Water, glucose, amino acids, ions, urea, some hormones, vitamins B and C, ketones, and a very small amount protiens

122
Q

In what segment of the nephron does filtration occur?

A

Glomerulus

123
Q

What happens in the PCT

A
  • Reabsorption of nutrients, proteins, water, ions, etc into the blood
  • Secretion of drugs, hormones, urea, waste
124
Q

What happens in the nephron loop

A

Continuos reabsorption of water and ions (25% each)

125
Q

what happens in the DCT

A
  • Na+ reabsorption is regulated by aldosterone and ANP
  • Water reabsorption regulated by aldosterone and ADH
  • Amount of K+ secreted regulated by aldosterone
126
Q

What does urine contain

A

Ion, water, nitrogenous waste, some hormones

127
Q

What does urine NOT contain

A

Formed elements, nutrients, protein

128
Q

What does the kidney excrete?

A
  • Some hormones and drugs
  • Urea (by-product of protien metabolism)
  • Uric acid (a by-product of the breakdown of protiens)
  • Creatinine
    (we want to get rid of these things)
129
Q

Antidiuretic hormone is released by what?

A

Anterior pituitary gland

130
Q

What is the general function of antidiuretic hormone in the kidney?

A

Makes nephron more permeable to water

131
Q

Exercise will cause ADH to ___

A

increase (& decrease UV)

132
Q

Alcohol will cause ADH to ___

A

decrease (& increase UV)

133
Q

Nightime will cause ADH to ___

A

increase (& decrease UV)

134
Q

Atrial natriuretic peptide is released from where?

A

The heart (RA)

135
Q

What impact would increased circulation hormone have on urine output

A

decreased urine volume

136
Q

What is the general function of ANP?

A

Promote the loss of water (block water from leaving nephron and produce a larger urine volume)

137
Q

What stimulates the release of ANP

A

Increased blood volume

138
Q

ANP blocks the release of
__

139
Q

Where is aldosterone released from?

A

Adrenal gland

140
Q

What is the general function of Aldosterone in the kidney?

A

increased sodium absorption in the kidney which will increase osmolarity (ions, solute)

141
Q

pH in urine

142
Q

Specific gravity of urine (how much “stuff”)

A

1.0 (pure water )-1.03 (more solute)

143
Q

Water content of urine

144
Q

Color of urine

A

Pale yellow

145
Q

Odor of urine

A

variable with composition

146
Q

Bacterial content of urine

A

trace amounts

147
Q

Amount of protein in urine

A

trace amounts (5-10 mg/dL)

148
Q

How much blood should be in the urine

149
Q

Glycosuria

A

abnormally high levels of glucose in the urine (diabetes)

150
Q

Protienuria

A

Excess protein in the urine (kidney trauma, hypertension, physical exertion, etc)

151
Q

Hematuria

A

erythrocytes in the urine (kidney/urinary tract trauma)

152
Q

Erythropotien mechanism (feedback loop)

A

imbalance in normal O2 levels, kidneys release erythropoietin, erythropoietin stimulates red bone marrow, enhanced erythropotien increases RBC count, increases O2 carrying ability of blood

153
Q

Micturition reflex

A

increased stretch of the detrusor muscle, activates PSNS, relaxes the internal urethral sphincter

154
Q

What are the two categories of organs in the digestive system

A

GI tract (continuous hollow tube. breaks down and absorbs food) and accessory organs (some produce secretion into GI tract, assists in breakdown)

155
Q

What are the GI tract organs

A
  • Oral cavity
  • Pharynx
  • Esophagus
  • Stomach
  • Small and large intestine
156
Q

What are the accessory organs

A
  • Teeth
  • Tounge
  • Salvilary galnds
  • Liver
  • Galbladder
  • Pancreas
157
Q

Ingestion

A

introduction of food into the oral cavity, first step in digestion

158
Q

Motility

A

the mixing and moving of material through the GI tract, involves voluntary and involuntary muscle contractions (all alone digestive tract)

159
Q

Secretion

A

Process of producing and releasing substances that facilitate digestion. Produced by the accessory glands, salivary glands, liver, pancreas

160
Q

Digestion

A

breakdown of ingested food into smaller components that can be absorbed from the GI tract

161
Q

mechanical digestion

A

breakdown of food into smaller particles without changing the chemical composition

162
Q

chemical digestion

A

involves specific enzymes that breakdown larger molecules into smaller ones

163
Q

Absorbtion

A

involves membrane transport of ingested molecules (electrolytes, vitamins, minerals, water across epithelial membrane into the blood or lymph

164
Q

Elimination

A

expulsion of ingestible components through the anal canal

165
Q

What are the four general layers, tunics, of the GI tract

A
  • Epithelium (secretion and absorption)
  • Muscular (layers of smooth muscle, circular layer, and longitudinal layer)
  • Mixing (back and forth motion, waves and segmentations)
  • Propulsion (direction of movement, peristalsis)
166
Q

Stretch receptors- nerve reflexes of the digestive system

A

detect stretch of GI tract wall

167
Q

Chemoreceptors- nerve reflexes of the digestive system

A

monitor chemical contents in the lumen, reflexes (ANS or ENS) are initiated in response to receptor input

168
Q

Short reflex - chemoreceptors

A

local reflex, only involves ENS, coordinate small segments of GI tract

169
Q

Long reflex - chemoreceptors

A

involves sensory input to CNS and ANS output, coordinates GI tract mobility, secretions, and accessory digestive organs

170
Q

PNS and SNS GI activity regulation

A

PNS promotes GI tract activity, and SNS opposes GI tract activity

171
Q

Hormone control of digestive system

A

several hormones participate in regulation of digestion

172
Q

Parotid - salivary glands

A

largest, 25-30% of the saliva

173
Q

Submandibular - salivary glands

A

floor of the oral cavity and medial to mandible, produces about 60-70% of the saliva (most saliva)

174
Q

Sublingual - salivary glands

A

Inferior to the tongue, 3%-5% of saliva

175
Q

What does saliva contain?

A

water, electrolytes, salivary amylase (carbohydrate breakdown, pH sensitive- high), mucin, and lingual lipase (lipid breakdown, pH sensetive- low)

176
Q

Esophagus function (pathway of food)

A
  • Bolus enters through the esophageal sphincter (skeletal muscle)
  • Waves of muscle contractions move the food bolus towards the stomach (peristalsis)
  • Bolus enters the stomach after passing through the lower/inferior esophageal sphincter
177
Q

Lower esophageal sphincter

A

regulates the passageway of food bolus into the stomach

178
Q

Pyloric sphincter

A

regulates the passage of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum (small intestine)

179
Q

Gastric mixing

A
  • contractions of smooth muscle in the stomach wall mix bolus with gastric secretions to form chyme
  • peristaltic waves result in pressure gradients that move stomach contents toward the polyoric region
180
Q

Gastric emptying

A
  • pressure gradient increases the force in pylorus against the pyloric sphincter
  • pyloric sphincter opens, and a small amount of chyme enters the duodenum
  • pyloric sphincter closes and retropulsion occurs
181
Q

Vomiting

A
  • Rapid expulsion of gastric contents through the oral cavity
  • controlled by the vomiting center in the medulla oblongata
  • responds to head injury, motion sickness, infection, toxicity, food irritation
  • closure of nasal passages and the glottis
  • danger of aspiration
182
Q

Lower GI tract

A
  • large intestine
  • small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum)
  • accessory = liver, gallbladder, pancreas
183
Q

Small intestine tunics

A
  • hollow organ with circular folds (slow movement of chyme 3-5 hrs)
  • large surface area
  • multiple layers of smooth muscle that mix and propel the chyme through the small intestine
184
Q

Villi increase _____ in the small intestine

A

surface area

185
Q

Which lobe of the liver is larger

A

Right lobe

186
Q

What is the second largest organ in the body?

187
Q

Right and left lobes of the liver are separated by what?

A

a large ligament

188
Q

The liver produces what?

A

bile - aids in digestion

189
Q

Where is bile stored

A

gallbadder

190
Q

galbladder is ___ to the liver

191
Q

What is stored in the liver

192
Q

Bile aids in what

A

digestion of lipids

193
Q

Which organ has a head and tail

194
Q

_____ wraps around the head and and the tail points laterally

195
Q

Liver detoxifies the ___

196
Q

Endocrine glands secrete directly into the blood where exocrine glands secrete into ____

197
Q

How does the pancreas (& gallbladder) get pancreatic juices (& bile) into the small intestine

198
Q

Pancreatic juices breakdown ____

A

carbohydrates, fats, proteins (>90% exocrine cells)

199
Q

Large intestine

A
  • wide and shorter
  • cecum, colon, and rectum
  • absorbs water and electrolytes
  • watery chyme compacted into feces
  • stores feces until eliminated through defecation
200
Q

speed of peristalsis

A

slow and sluggish

201
Q

Large intestine produces ___

202
Q

Mass movements of large intestine

A
  • powerful contractions
  • propel fecal matter towards rectum (2-3 times a day often after a meal)
203
Q

Anal canal

A

last few centimeters of the large intestine

204
Q

internal sphincter of anal canal

A

Involuntary smooth muscle to the base

205
Q

External sphincter of anal canal

A

voluntary skeletal muscle

206
Q

Carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine

A
  • starts in the oral cavity: salivary amylase
  • pancreatic amylase: produced by the pancreas and secreted into the small intestine
  • pancreatic amylase continues digestion of starch that began in the oral cavity
  • brush border enzymes break down starch into individual glucose molecules
207
Q

Digestion of other disaccharides in small intestine

A

Specific enzymes needed, ex: lactase for lactose, sucrase breakdown of sucrose, both located in the brush border

208
Q

Protein breakdown in the stomach

A
  • begins within stomach lumen with pepsin (formed pepsinogen, inactive precursor)
209
Q

Stomach’s low pH factors

A
  • due to HCl released from parietal cells
  • activates pepsinogen to activate pepsin
  • denatures protiens to facilitate chemical breakdown
  • trypsinogen is activated to trypsin
    single amino acids absorbed across epithelial cells, released into bloodstream
  • stomach pH is about 2
210
Q

Lipid digestion and absorption in the small intestine

A
  • bile salts emulsify lipid droplets (pulls apart, higher surface area)
  • pancreatic lipase breaks triglycerides in monoglycerides and free fatty acids
  • triglycerides are reassembled and wrapped in a protien (chylomicrons) and absorbed into lacteals
211
Q

Water absorption

A
  • small intestine absorbs almost all ingested water
  • absorbed across epithelia and into blood vessels via osmosis
212
Q

Electrolyte and vitamin absorption

A
  • small intestine absorbs almost all electrolytes and vitamins that enter
  • most unregulated, depend on diet, except IRON

Physiology (2 decks)

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