Module 5 Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following is not a typical way to plan for the management of property if a client becomes incapacitated?

A) Nominate a conservator for the property.

B) Spend down the assets.

C) Create a durable power of attorney.

D) Create a trust.

A

B) Spend down the assets.

Spending down assets has limited usefulness in planning for incapacity. It is clearly not a recommended action prior to incapacitation, and the negative effects outweigh the positive that might accrue if a person became incapacitated.

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2
Q

All of the following are true regarding living wills EXCEPT

A) they must be signed.

B) they apply to routine illnesses.

C) they must be witnessed by people who are not heirs of the maker.

D) they allow the maker to dictate what life-sustaining measures may be taken if the maker becomes incapable of consenting to treatment.

A

B) they apply to routine illnesses.

Living wills apply only when the maker has a terminal illness and death is imminent.

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3
Q

Which one of the following is true regarding Medicare Part A?

A) It pays doctor bills.

B) It helps pay for care in a skilled nursing facility for up to 100 days.

C) It costs approximately $413 per month for most individuals.

D) It covers outpatient hospital care.

A

B) It helps pay for care in a skilled nursing facility for up to 100 days.

Within certain parameters, Medicare Part A helps pay for care in a skilled nursing facility. Medicare Part A is free for most recipients (who have worked in covered employment for at least 40 quarters). Doctor bills and outpatient hospital care are covered by Medicare Part B. On the other hand, Medicare has only very limited coverage for long-term care. Having Medicare does not mean a person has adequate LTC coverage. Medicare LTC coverage should be seen as rehabilitative care rather than as true LTC.

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4
Q

Inpatient hospital care under Medicare Part A coverage includes all the following costs except

A) inpatient prescription drugs.

B) private rooms.

C) operating and recovery rooms.

D) meals.

A

B) private rooms.

Inpatient hospital care includes costs for semiprivate rooms, meals, operating and recovery rooms, and prescription drugs. It does not cover the cost of private rooms.

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5
Q

Which of the following costs is not normally covered by Medicare Part B?

A) Prescription drugs

B) Physician services

C) Preventive care

D) Home health care

A

A) Prescription drugs

Medicare Part B does not normally cover eyeglasses, cosmetic surgery, most prescription drugs, and other types of expenses. Note that preventive care is covered under Part B.

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6
Q

Which of the following is not an acceptable strategy for filling gaps between actual costs and Medicare coverage?

A) maintaining coverage through an employer-provided health plan

B) for low-income seniors, qualifying for Medicaid

C) enrolling in Medicare Advantage and purchasing a coordinating Medigap policy

D) purchasing Medigap policies from private vendors

A

C) enrolling in Medicare Advantage and purchasing a coordinating Medigap policy

People who enroll in a Medicare Advantage plan cannot also maintain a Medigap insurance policy. Purchasing Medigap insurance, maintaining coverage through an employer-provided health plan, and qualifying for Medicaid are all plausible strategies to fill gaps between actual costs and Medicare coverage.

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7
Q

All the following are health plan options under Medicare Advantage plans EXCEPT

A) health maintenance organizations (HMOs).

B) private fee-for-service plans.

C) Medicaid provider plans (MPPs).

D) preferred provider organizations (PPOs).

A

C) Medicaid provider plans (MPPs).

There is no such entity as a Medicaid provider plan. All other options are available under Medicare Advantage plans.

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8
Q

Which one of the following is not correct regarding a conservatorship?

A) The required court hearing is a matter of public record.

B) A conservator is given responsibility for managing the affairs of an individual who can no longer make his or her own decisions.

C) A conservatorship is granted by the beneficiary.

D) The court may require the posting of a performance bond.

A

C) A conservatorship is granted by the beneficiary.

A conservator is named, or granted authority, by the court. A conservator is responsible for managing the financial affairs of an individual who can no longer make his or her own decisions.

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9
Q

Provisions of the Affordable Care Act include all of the following EXCEPT

A) certain preventive care services must now be provided with no cost sharing on the consumer’s part.

B) children can remain on their parents’ health insurance until age 26.

C) health savings accounts (HSAs) can now be used to cover over-the-counter medicines not prescribed by a doctor.

D) the establishment of www.healthcare.gov.

A

C) health savings accounts (HSAs) can now be used to cover over-the-counter medicines not prescribed by a doctor.

The provisions prohibit both HSAs and FSAs from being used for over-the-counter medicines not prescribed by a doctor.

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10
Q

All of the following are true about the deductibles that apply to health insurance EXCEPT

A) a deductible is the amount that the insured must pay before the plan pays anything.

B) the deductible for catastrophic and bronze plans will be larger than for gold or platinum plans.

C) health insurance deductibles apply per incident.

D) deductibles do not apply to many forms of preventive care.

A

C) health insurance deductibles apply per incident.

Unlike a homeowners or automobile policy, a health insurance deductible is an annual amount, not a per incident amount. Preventive care and wellness benefits, such as mammograms and well-baby care, are often paid 100% by the insurance company without a required deductible.

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11
Q

Regarding planning for incapacity, which one of the following is a true statement?

A) A living will is broader in scope than an advanced medical directive.

B) A living will is another name for a medical proxy.

C) A conservatorship is simpler to establish and maintain than a durable power of attorney.

D) A power of attorney may not be recognized by some financial institutions.

A

D) A power of attorney may not be recognized by some financial institutions.

A power of attorney may not be recognized by some financial institutions, which is a reason that it should always be kept up-to-date. A living will applies only to life-sustaining measures whereas an advanced medical directive, or medical proxy, does not require a terminal illness and typically covers all health care situations where the principal is unable to give informed consent. A conservatorship requires an appointment by a court, ongoing record-keeping, and possibly a performance bond.

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12
Q

Custodial care helps individuals perform activities of daily living (ADLs). ADLs do not include

A) driving.

B) bathing.

C) dressing.

D) transferring.

A

A) driving.

Driving is not an ADL. Dressing, bathing, eating, toileting, continence, transferring, and feeding oneself are considered ADLs.

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13
Q

Most long-term care (LTC) policies cover services related to

A) cognitive impairment.

B) attempted suicide.

C) alcoholism.

D) war-related illnesses.

A

A) cognitive impairment.

Although some LTC policies exclude service related to Alzheimer’s disease, policies sold in states that have adopted the National Association of Insurance Commissioners’ Long-Term Care Insurance Model Regulation must cover cognitive impairment. Most policies exclude services related to attempted suicide, alcoholism, or drug addiction and war-related illnesses.

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14
Q

Which of these is FALSE regarding the tax-deductibility of qualified long-term care insurance (QLTCI) premiums?

A) Individuals and couples filing jointly can deduct medical expenses that exceed 7.5% of adjusted gross income (AGI). QLTCI premiums qualify as medical expenses.

B) Partners can deduct QLTCI premiums as a business expense.

C) QLTCI premiums are deductible for the first premium year only, after which they are no longer deductible.

D) Self-employed individuals can deduct QLTCI premiums as a business expense.

A

C) QLTCI premiums are deductible for the first premium year only, after which they are no longer deductible.

The deductibility of QLTCI premiums does not expire after the first year. There are no known plans for such an expiration date to be implemented.

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15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Medicare coverage of long-term care (LTC) expenses?

A) Medicare will cover expenses for individuals who move into LTC facilities without being hospitalized.

B) Medicare will cover LTC expenses in any facility of the individual’s choosing.

C) A doctor must certify the need for skilled nursing care or else Medicare will not pay expenses.

D) Medicare covers expenses for up to five years of LTC.

A

C) A doctor must certify the need for skilled nursing care or else Medicare will not pay expenses.

Medicare will not pay expenses unless a doctor has certified the need for skilled nursing care. A hospital stay is required prior to being eligible for long-term care coverage and it must be rehabilitative care. Medicare will only pay for long-term care for 20 days with no coinsurance and then only up to another 80 days (100 total) with coinsurance applied. Care must be delivered at a Medicare-approved facility.

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16
Q

Which one of the following is not considered to be a qualified medical expense for purposes of the health savings account rules?

A) Premium payments for a Medigap policy

B) Premium payments for long-term care insurance

C) Premium payments for Medicare Part A

D) Premium payments for Medicare Part B

A

A) Premium payments for a Medigap policy

Premium payments for a Medigap policy are not considered qualified medical expenses for purposes of the health savings account rules.

17
Q

Which one of the following is not a feature of health savings accounts (HSAs)?

A) Individuals who are enrolled in Medicare can continue to use HSA funds for qualified medical expenses.

B) Contributions are tax-deductible.

C) Funds may be used to pay for qualified medical expenses during retirement.

D) Individuals who are enrolled in Medicare can continue to make contributions.

A

D) Individuals who are enrolled in Medicare can continue to make contributions.

Individuals who are enrolled in Medicare are not eligible to contribute to an HSA. Otherwise, contributions are tax-deductible and withdrawals used to pay for qualified medical expenses are tax free. Individuals enrolled in Medicare may use funds remaining in an HSA, but can no longer make contributions to one.

18
Q

In long-term care insurance policies, “benefit trigger” refers to an event or condition that must occur before benefits can be paid. These include all of the following EXCEPT

A) inability to dress

B) inability to reason.

C) inability to bathe.

D) inability to take a walk.

A

D) inability to take a walk.

Benefit triggers may be physical (e.g., inability to bathe, dress, or eat) or cognitive (e.g., inability to think, reason, or orient). Normally, insurers require that more than one activity of daily living exist before benefits are triggered. Cognitive impairment is not an activity of daily living and will trigger LTC benefits on its own. Inability to work does not trigger benefits in a long-term care policy—that would be a disability policy. Also, the inability to take a walk is not an ADL.

19
Q

All of the following are true regarding Medicare EXCEPT

A) if you miss your initial enrollment period you will face a one-time penalty equal to 10% of your premium.

B) enrollment during a “special enrollment period” requires documentation that you were previously enrolled in an employer-sponsored plan.

C) Medicare is a social insurance program.

D) Medicare Advantage plans are available as an alternative to traditional Medicare.

A

A) if you miss your initial enrollment period you will face a one-time penalty equal to 10% of your premium.

If you miss your initial enrollment period, you will face a cumulative penalty equal to 10% of your premium for every 12-month period during which you could have signed up but didn’t. All other statements are true.

20
Q

Which one of these is correct regarding Medicare Part D?

A) Medicare Part D is often purchased by individuals choosing Medicare Advantage Plans to add coverage for prescription drugs.

B) People who enroll in Part D pay a monthly means-tested premium that varies based on the particular plan.

C) These plans are not available through private companies under contract with Medicare.

D) Individuals can select from among plans labeled A through N.

A

B) People who enroll in Part D pay a monthly means-tested premium that varies based on the particular plan.

People who enroll in Part D pay a monthly means-tested premium that varies based on the particular plan. These plans are available through private companies under contract with Medicare. Medicare Part D is often included in Medicare Advantage plans and not purchased in addition to them. The donut hole only gives credit for actual out-of-pocket expenses for generic drugs. Name brand drugs, however, credit the individual for both the out-of-pocket expenses and also a manufacturer discount. This lowers the actual amount paid by the individual when the “out-of-pocket maximum” is reached.

21
Q

All of the following are true regarding Medicare Advantage plans EXCEPT

A) to qualify, the beneficiary normally must be covered by Medicare Part A. Coverage for Part B is optional.

B) individuals with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) are not eligible.

C) beneficiaries must live in the service area of a health plan.

D) Medigap plans are not available to help with the out-of-pocket costs Medicare Advantage plans leave to individuals.

A

A) to qualify, the beneficiary normally must be covered by Medicare Part A. Coverage for Part B is optional.

To qualify, beneficiaries normally must be covered by parts A and B of Medicare and live in the plan’s service area. Individuals with ESRD are not eligible for Medicare Advantage Plans; however, ESRD beneficiaries currently in a Medicare health plan can remain in the plan. Individuals enrolled in Part C of Medicare (Medicare Advantage) cannot purchase and do not need Medigap policies.

22
Q

A standardized Medigap plan is designed to cover

A) charges that are considered nonmedical and are not covered by Medicare.

B) long-term care expenses when treatment lasts longer than 100 days.

C) Medical charges that are not eligible for coverage by Medicare.

D) Medicare-approved charges that are not paid by Medicare.

A

D) Medicare-approved charges that are not paid by Medicare.

Medigap insurance is designed to supplement Medicare’s benefits by filling in some of what Medicare does not cover, such as deductibles and coinsurance; it covers only Medicare-approved charges. Standardized Medigap plans pay only for long-term care while the beneficiary qualifies for benefits from Medicare, and is limited to paying the coinsurance from the 21st through 100th days.

23
Q

Which is true of Medicare benefits?

A) They vary depending on an individual’s AGI.

B) They are not available until Social Security full retirement age (FRA).

C) They are available even if a client continues to work after age 65.

D) They vary depending on an individual’s age.

A

C) They are available even if a client continues to work after age 65.

It is true that Medicare benefits are available even if a client continues to work after age 65. The only difference is that they would need to file an application if not yet receiving Social Security benefits. Individuals become eligible for Medicare at age 65; the change in Social Security’s FRA does not change the age an individual may be eligible for Medicare. Also, unlike Social Security, Medicare benefits are not affected by an individual’s earnings or the amount he or she has paid into the system over the years.

24
Q

Coverage under Part A of Medicare includes all of the following EXCEPT

A) hospice care.

B) psychiatric hospital care.

C) physician services.

D) inpatient hospital care.

A

C) physician services.

Physician services are covered by Part B of Medicare. Part A covers up to 190 days of psychiatric care, 90 days on inpatient hospital care per benefit period (with a 60-day lifetime reserve), and unlimited hospice care.

25
Q

Which power of attorney is the most effective tool for incapacity planning while limiting the potential for elder abuse?

A) A living will

B) A durable power of attorney

C) A springing durable power of attorney

D) A general power of attorney

A

C) A springing durable power of attorney

A durable power of attorney continues after a principal’s incapacity, but would also be in place prior to incapacity, so it can get the job done, but is not the most effective tool when also considering limiting the potential for elder abuse. To most effectively transfer decision-making authority in the event of incapacity, adding a springing requirement is best because it only begins when the principal becomes incapacitated. The general power of attorney is not an effective tool for incapacity planning because the agent’s authority ceases when the principal either dies or becomes incapacitated.

26
Q

Which is a key disadvantage of a power of attorney?

A) a competency hearing would be necessary

B) some financial institutions may be hesitant to recognize the agent’s authority it is more complicated than a trust document

C) it is included in the probate estate

D) it is inexpensive to create and administer

A

B) some financial institutions may be hesitant to recognize the agent’s authority it is more complicated than a trust document

Some financial institutions may be hesitant to recognize the agent’s authority, especially if the power of attorney was executed a long time before its use. The competency hearing associated with a conservatorship is avoided with a power of attorney. A power of attorney is simple compared to a trust document.

27
Q

Which is true if a long-term care policy is qualified?

A) Benefits receive capital gains treatment.

B) Benefits are taxed if your AGI exceeds the annual threshold.

C) Benefits are generally excluded from taxable income.

D) Benefits are generally included in taxable income.

A

C) Benefits are generally excluded from taxable income.

Qualified long-term care insurance policy benefits are, like accident and personal injury benefits, excludible from taxable income regardless of your AGI. LTCI premiums may be tax deductible if they exceed the 7.5% of AGI limit. Don’t confuse benefits with premiums.

28
Q

Each of the following are riders that are available on long-term care policies EXCEPT

A) a restoration of benefits rider.

B) an inflation rider.

C) a waiver of premium for disability rider.

D) LTC policies may be issued without any riders.

A

C) a waiver of premium for disability rider.

Waiver of premium for disability riders apply to life insurance policies and take effect in the event of disability. Many LTC policies include a waiver of premium clause in the policy once benefits begin. It is not based on disability, but qualifying for benefits. Some LTC policies offer a restoration of benefits rider that provides for the total benefit amount available to be restored if the insured recovers from the need for care for a period of time, such as six months. Inflation riders allow for the benefit to increase over time.

29
Q

All of the following are true regarding Medicaid EXCEPT

A) Medicaid is a joint federal and state program.

B) Medicaid provides medical assistance to certain individuals with low incomes.

C) Medicaid’s primary focus is retirees.

D) Medicaid is the largest payer of long-term care expenses nationwide.

A

C) Medicaid’s primary focus is retirees.

Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that provides medical assistance to individuals with low incomes and few assets whether they are retired or not. Medicaid is the largest payer of LTC expenses in America.

30
Q

Funding of which type of trust generally occurs after the grantor becomes incapacitated?

A) non-cancellable trusts

B) irrevocable living trusts

C) revocable living trusts

D) contingent trusts

A

D) contingent trusts

Prior to the grantor’s incapacity, the contingent trust is only a shell into which assets can be transferred later. In contrast, revocable living trusts are substantially funded when the trust is created.