Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MLS 330 > Module 5 online stuff > Flashcards

Module 5 online stuff Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first exposure to incompatible red blood cells?

a. Kell
b. Kidd
c. ABO
d. Rh

A

ABO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 44-year-old woman has a hemoglobin level of 6.1 g/dL. White blood cell and platelet counts are within normal levels. The patient is group O D-negative with a negative antibody screen. Crossmatches are compatible. However, 15 minutes after the first transfusion is started, she experiences erythema and hives.

What type of transfusion reaction is occurring?

A

urticarial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ten days after the transfusion of 2 units, a patient had a 2 g/dL drop in hemoglobin and was slightly jaundiced. No evidence of bleeding was found.

What tests would be helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

perform an antibody screen on the current posttransfusion sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient is observed to have a rise in temperature and chills during a transfusion. The transfusion is stopped, and a posttransfusion blood sample is carefully drawn.

On receipt of this postreaction sample, the transfusion service should immediately ___.

A

observe the color of serum and perform a direct antiglobulin test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The clinical sequelae of a hemolytic transfusion reaction may include all of the following except:

a. shock
b. graft-versus-host disease
c. renal failure
d. disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

Graft-versus-Host Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which blood product is recommended for transfusions to individuals with a history of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions?

A

leukocyte-reduced red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Administration of whole blood to a patient with cardiac insufficiency could result in which of the following transfusion reactions?

a. Delayed hemolytic reaction
b. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction
c. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
d. Circulatory overload

A

circulatory overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What component is indicated for patients who receive directed donations from immediate family members to prevent graft-versus-host transfusion reactions?

A

irradiated red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What organ of the recipient’s body is involved in a TRALI?

A

lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence?

a. Urticarial
b. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
c. Graft-versus-host disease
d. Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility

A

urticarial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Posttransfusion purpura is caused by ___.

A

platelet antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Long-term red blood cell transfusion can result in which of the following conditions?

a. Graft-versus-host disease
b. Citrate toxicity
c. Hemosiderosis
d. Transfusion-related acute lung injury

A

Hemosiderosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An anaphylactic transfusion reaction is caused by ___ antibodies.

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At the end of an antiglobulin test, IgG-coated control cells are added to the negative tests and centrifuged.

If agglutination occurs, this means ___.

A

the test is valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of transfusion reaction is often diagnosed by a positive DAT and a gradual drop in the patient’s hemoglobin level several hours or days after a transfusion?

A

delayed hemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A transfusion reaction that results in the patient demonstrating hemolyzed plasma with a negative DAT could signify all of the following EXCEPT:

a. the donor unit being overheated
b. a thalassemia
c. ABO incompatibility
d. a sickle cell crisis

A

ABO incompatibility

17
Q

Bilirubin has an affinity for the lipid rich layers of skin and brain, which can act as a potent neurotoxin leading to irreversible brain damage.

This damage is termed ___.

A

kernicterus

18
Q

If a transfused unit was run too quickly through a faulty filter and caused nicking and damage to some of the RBCs, which of the following is a likely outcome?

a. hemolysis in the patient, with a negative DAT
b. no hemolysis in the patient, with a negative DAT
c. no hemolysis in the patient, with a positive DAT
d. hemolysis in the patient, with a positive DAT

A

hemolysis in the patient, with a negative DAT

19
Q

Coughing, cyanosis, and difficulty breathing are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?

a. Allergic
b. Hemolytic
c. Febrile
d. TRALI

A

TRALI

20
Q

The purpose of irradiating a unit of RBCs is to ___.

A

eliminate the ability of the leukocytes to replicate and function

21
Q

Citrate toxicity from transfusions is usually only an issue if ___.

A

the patient has impaired liver function and has received a large volume of blood

22
Q

For a patient experiencing long-term transfusions, a method to prevent hemosiderosis is ___.

A

chelation therapy

23
Q

The most common type of error throughout the lab, including the blood bank, is considered to be ___.

A

clerical errors

24
Q

All of the following are considered to be the most likely organisms to contaminate refrigerated blood products EXCEPT:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Serratia liquefaciens
c. Pseudomonas fluorescens
d. Yersinia enterocolitica

A

Staphylococcus aureus

25
Q

A newborn phenotypes as group O, D-positive with a 1+ direct antiglobulin test. The mother’s antibody screening test is negative.

Assuming the antibody screen is valid, one should consider the reason for the positive DAT is due to an antibody against a ___ antigen.

A

low-incidence antigen

26
Q

Select the situation where the administration of Rh immune globulin would be contraindicated (not-given):

a. Mother: rr; no antibody detected
Newborn: R1r; DAT negative

b. Mother: r”r; no antibody detected
Newborn: Ror; DAT negative

c. Mother: r’r; anti-E detected
Newborn: R2r; DAT positive

d. Mother: r”r; 4+ anti-D detected
Newborn: R2r: DAT positive

A

Mother: r”r; 4+ anti-D detected
Newborn: R2r: DAT positive

27
Q

Select the true statement regarding ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn:

a. The frequency of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is greater than Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.
b. It cannot occur during prima gravida (first pregnancy).
c. Bilirubin levels often exceed 15 mg/dL in the affected infants.
d. It is frequently seen in group A mothers with group O infants.

A

The frequency of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is greater than Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.

28
Q

Select the most common antibody specificity associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn:

a. Anti-C
b. Anti-K
c. Anti-A,B
d. Anti-D

A

Anti-A,B

29
Q

Why is reverse grouping omitted in the neonatal period for ABO testing?

A

Newborns do not produce their own antibody until about 4 months.

30
Q

Which of the following antibodies have not been known to cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

a. Anti-C
b. Anti-S
c. Anti-K
d. Anti-Lea

A

Anti-Lea

31
Q

Another term for Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn is ___.

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

32
Q

A group O, D-positive mother gave birth to an A-negative infant. After 24 hours, the newborn’s bilirubin level rose to 19 mg/dL. A direct antiglobulin test performed on the cord blood specimen was positive with anti-IgG.

What is the most probable antibody causing this?

a. Anti-D
b. Anti-O
c. Anti-A,B
d. Anti-Leb

A

Anti-A,B

33
Q

All of the following are procedures which can increase the risk of fetomaternal hemorrhage EXCEPT:

a. Delivery
b. Amniocentesis
c. Ultrasound
d. Cordocentesis

A

ultrasound

34
Q

A false-negative D test could be obtained on a newborn due to ___.

A

the D-antigen sites being blocked by attached antibody

35
Q

All of the following must occur for HDFN to happen EXCEPT:

a. The RBC antibody must be IgG.
b. The antigen must be one that is well-developed at birth.
c. The mother must be type O and the fetus type A or B.
d. The fetus must possess an antigen that the mother lacks.

A

The mother must be type O and the fetus type A or B.

MLS 330 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions