MODULE 5 Flashcards

0
Q

HSV-1: ____________ ; HSV-2: ____________

A. Cervical, sacral
B. Lumborsacral, trigeminal
C. Trigeminal, lumbosacral
D. Sacral, cervical

A

C. Trigeminal, lumbosacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

The following are characteristics of Herpes Simplex Virus EXCEPT:

A. Icosahedral nucleocapsid
B. Linear
C. Single-Stranded DNA
D. Enveloped

A

C. Single-Stranded DNA

Double-stranded DNA siya.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of Herpes Simplex virus.

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Multinucleated giant cells in Herpes are seen on _____________ smear.

A

Tzanck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The following are paired correctly EXCEPT:

A. Herpes gladiatorum : trunk
B. Herpes labialis : lips
C. Herpes whitlow: genitalia
D. Herpes whitlow: fingers

A

C. Herpes whitlow: genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Drug of choice for the treatment of Herpes simplex.

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

R.E., 25/M had a chief complaint of painful anogenital vesicles. In treating R.E, before giving the drug of choice for his infection, what are the two things you should check before prescribing?

A

✔️ hydration status
✔️ renal function

Why? Because crystalluria is the side effect of acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maria, 21/F consulted you because of pelvic pain and painful urination for some time now, you decided to do a speculum examination, and you noted “violin-string adhesions”. You decided to culture the discharge on a “certain medium” and it gave an oxidase positive reaction. You also did Gram-staining, and it turned out to be gram-negative and appears to be kidney-bean diplococci organisms.

  1. What culture was used?
  2. Which organism could have caused the patient’s infection?
A
  1. Thayer-Martin medium

2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Component of the Thayer Martin Medium which prevents fungi growth.

A. Colistin
B. Nystatin
C. Vancomycin
D. Acyclovir

A

B. Nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Important component of Nesseiria that allows it to attach to its host and is responsible for causing urethritis.

A. LOS
B. IgA protease
C. Pili
D. Complement system

A

C. Pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Purulent conjunctivitis in newborns caused by Neisseria.

A

Opthalmia neonatorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prophylaxis for opthalmia neonatorum

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Most common cause of urethritis.

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Medium used to culture Nesseiria obtained from sterile sites such as synovial fluid.

A

Chocolate agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drug of choice for uncomplicated gonorrhea.

A

Cefixime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Combination drug given to patients with gonorrhea and a co-infection of Chlamydia.

A

Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The following are characteristics of Chlamydia spp. EXCEPT:

A. Cell wall lacks muramic acid
B. Cytoplasmic inclusions are seen in Giemsa stain
C. Grown in TSA
D. Utilizes the host’ ATP

A

C. Grown in TSA

Chlamydia is grown in cycloheximide culture

17
Q

The following are characteristics of the Elementary body of Chlamydia EXCEPT:

A. Intracellular
B. Infectious
C. Endocytosis
D. Extarcellular

A

A. Intracellular

18
Q

This form of Chlamydia is responsible for reproducing and is metabolically active and intracellular.

A

Reticulate body

19
Q

Habitat of C. trachomatis.

A

Eyes

20
Q

Most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis in men.

A

Chalmydia sp.

21
Q

A positive Frei test is seen in which type of C. trachomatis.

A

L1-L3 Lymohogranuloma Venereum

22
Q

Genes of HPV that encode proteins which inactivates tumor suppressor genes.

A

Genes E6 and E7

23
Q

Most common viral STD.

A. HPV 6 and 13
B. HPV 6 and 16
C. HPV 6 and 11
D. HPV 6 and 18

A

C. HPV 6 and 11

24
Q

Magdalena 27/F complained of a burning sensation “down there”. When she was about to void, she noticed of a greenish to yellowish, bubbly and frothy discharge was coming out of her genitalia, thinking that she was having “white menses”, she didn’t mind but when she was voiding she felt pain while doing so and noted that this has not happened before. Being the best obstetrician in town, you decided to do a speculum examination on her and you confirmed that she has indeed a yellowish, greenish, frothy, and malodorous discharge. You also noted that her cervix seems to be erythematous resembling a strawberry-like appearance, you also tested for the pH of her vagina and noted that it was a pH of 5.1. Which organisms may have caused the symptoms of Magda?

A. C. albicans
B. G. vaginalis
C. T. vaginalis
D. E. vermicularis

A

C. T. vaginalis

25
Q

Present in whiff test.

A. C. albicans
B. G. vaginalis
C. T. vaginalis
D. E. vermicularis

A

B. G. vaginalis

26
Q

Treatment for C. albicans

A. Metronidazole
B. Penicillin
C. Fluconazole
D. Pyrantel pamoate

A

C. Fluconazole

27
Q

The following are characteristics of E. coli EXCEPT:

A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Gram negative
C. Lactose fermenters on EMB
D. H2S producers on Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar

A

D. H2S producers on Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar

28
Q

Virulence factor of E. coli responsible for Shock.

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

29
Q

Most common cause of hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome.

A. P. aeruginosa
B. E. coli
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Neisseria gonorrhea

A

B. E. coli

30
Q

Virulence factor of E. coli responsible for its resistance to phagocytosis.

A. LPS
B. Endotoxin O
C. Capsule K
D. Enterotoxins

A

C. Capsule K

31
Q

Somatic antigen for fever, inflammatory response and shock/ present in gram negative organisms only.

A. LPS
B. Endotoxin O
C. Capsule K
D. Enterotoxins

A

B. Endotoxin O

32
Q

Most common cause of neonatal meningitis in the Philippines.

A

E. coli

33
Q

Which of the following is/are the characteristics of Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

A. Gram (-), Catalase (+), Coagulase (+), Novobiocin-resistant
B. Gram (+), Catalase (+), Coagulase (+), Novobiocin-sensitive
C. Gram (+), Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), Novobiocin-resistant
D. Gram (-), Catalase (-), Coagulase (-), Novobiocin-sensitive
E. NAKAKALITO HA!!!

A

C. Gram (+), Catalase (+), Coagulase (-), Novobiocin-resistant

34
Q

2nd most common cause of UTIs in sexually active women.

A. E. faecalis
B. S. saprophyticus
C. E. coli
D. Proteus mirabilis

A

B. S. saprophyticus

35
Q

Which is/are NOT a characteristic/s of E. faecalis?

A. Gram (+)
B. Catalase (-)
C. Halotolerant
D. Lancefield group A
E. Positive PYR test
F. Bile and optochin-sensitive
G. Gamma hemolytic colonies
A

D, F

36
Q

Culture medium used for Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

A

Cetrimide agar

37
Q

One of the major characteristic feature of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is its production of a sweet-grape like odor. This is due to what compound?

A

Aminoacetophenone

38
Q

Which is/are NOT characteristic/s of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A. Oxidase (+)
B. Gram (-)
C. Lactose fermenters
D. Flagellated
E. Presence of pyocyanin
F. Obligate aerobe
G. Gamma hemolysis
A

G, C

39
Q

Most common cause of nosocomial UTIs.

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

40
Q

Currant jelly sputum.

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae