Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS361 - Pathophysiology II > Module 5-1 - Immune System > Flashcards

Module 5-1 - Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

Types of Blood Cell

A

Monocytes/Macrophages

Lymphocytes (B and T Cells)

Granulocytes (Polymorphonuclear leukocytes: Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils, Mast Cells)

RBC

Platelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Granulocytes

A

blood cells with granules like heparin and histamine in the cytoplasm

Neutrophils (bacteria), Eosinophils (parasites and algae), Basophils (become mast cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In what situation does Neutrophilia and Microcytosis occur?

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In what situation does Eosinophilia occur?

A

Allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In what situation does Lymphocytosis occur?

A

Viral Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hematopoietic Stem Cell

A

an undifferentiated cell that can go down a progenitor line to make a very differentiated cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the Host Defense Systems?

A
  1. Physical and Chemical Barriers to Infection
  2. Inflammatory Response (Non Specific)
  3. Immune Response (Specific)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Physical and Chemical Barriers to Infection

A

Skin

Mucous Membranes and Secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inflammatory Response

A

Non specific response

occurs after tissue injury or infection

causes fever and inflammation

phagocytic WBCs, antimicrobial substances, and natural killer cells accumulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Immune Response

A

Specific Response

Identifies self from non self (host v foreign)

Recognizes and eliminates altered host cells

Antigen-Antibody response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What induces fever?

A

Prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Classic Infection Signs

A

Redness
Swelling
Pain
Warmth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What sort of trauma can cause an inflammatory response

A

Mechanical
Thermal
Chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antigen

A

Immunogen

A molecule that can stimulate and immune response

It is usually a protein or large CHO (NOT LIPIDS OR NUCLEIC ACIDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Epitope / Antigenic Determinant

A

Discrete immunologically active sites on antigens

A single antigen has several antigenic determinants on it

Each can stimulate a distinct clone of lymphocytes

Antibodies attach here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hapten and Hapten Carrier complex

A

Low molecular weight compound - Basically Hapten is a small compound

Can combine with carrier protein molecules to act like an antigen

Ex: Penicillin cannot cause a reaction alone so by carrying it on a carrier protein it is then large enough to cause an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Protein structure?

A

Long chains of amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Partial or Incomplete Antigen

A

The situation in which hapten can only induce antibodies if bound to another carrier protein or molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many epitopes are on an antigen?

A

Multiple

They stick out all over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is each epitope different on an antigen?

A

They have different amino acid patterns so the antibody must be specific

The amino acids have a variable and constant portion and each site has a different shape so antibodies need to be specific to just that site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Names of Immune Cell Lymphocytes are based on…

A

their location of maturation

T Cell = Thymus

B Cell = Bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Regulatory Lymphocytes

A

Assist in the immune response

These are Helper T cells

They activate other immune cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Effector Lymphocytes

A

Final stage cells of the immune response

These are killer T cells

They ensure removal of foreign invaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

B Lymphocytes

A

10-20%

Mature in bone marrow

Used in Humoral or Antibody Mediated Immunity

Secrete Antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T Lymphocytes

A

60-70% (Predominant)

Mature in Thymus

Used in Cell Mediated Immunity

Do not involve antibody production - they do cell-to-cell killing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T4 Lymphocytes

A

The “Quarterback”

Helper T Cells

Secrete chemical messages that amplify or stimulate other things to happen, such as recruiting and activating cells to do things such as killing

Send Orders

Have CD4 Markers

Speed up or slow down the immune response, but do not do the direct killing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T8 Lymphocytes

A

Effector Cells

Natural Killer T Cells

Carry out the T4’s orders

The final immune response stage

There are a variety of them, but they all wait to seek and destroy until the T4 orders them to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC)

A

These are the markers on the cells surface also known as Human Leukocyte Antigens (HLA)

They are four closely linked groups of genes (loci) on Chromosome 6 that code for specific cell surface molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MHC 1

A

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

On all NUCLEATED cells in the body and on platelets

Tells the immune system you are you

Present the processed antigen to cytotoxic T cells to tell which cells are “you”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MHC 2

A

Mostly on antigen presenting cells like B Cells, Macrophages, and APCs

Present processed antigen to helper T Cells to give orders (so it can get antibodies made and tell cytotoxic T cells what to attack and what not to attack)

The antibody will then go onto the antigens on cells that need to be destroyed and “lock up” so a macrophage can come get it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Types of Immunity

A

Cell mediated immunity

Humoral or Immunoglobulin mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which type of immunity involves the production of antibodies?`

A

Humoral or Immunoglobulin mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T8 Suppressor Cell

A

tells when the immune response it over and no longer needed

Reduces the humoral response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Memory T Cell

A

Does not forget the antigen and response to the specific antigen in cell mediated immunity - since there are no antibodies made, this cell remembers and can launch an attack faster if the same invader enters the body

Remains dormant until second exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cell Mediated Immunity

A

T Cells respond directly to antigens (helper, killer, suppressor, memory)

Involves destruction of target cells through secretion of lymphokines rather than antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Humoral or Immunoglobulin Mediated Immunity

A

B cells mature into plasma cells and produce specific antibodies that mark things for destruction

Provides for elimination of bacteria, neutralization of bacterial toxins, and prevention of viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which type of immunity is fastest? Slowest?

A

Fast - Cell Mediated

Slow - Humoral (can take months to make antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why is specific immune response special?

A

the antigens can allow responses from infected cells and viral cells (inside) - unlike just neutrophil response - and T cells can do surveillance for cancer cells and mutated cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Do cell mediated and humoral responses occur at the same time?

A

Often they do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What sort of immune response is launched regarding a transplanted organ?

A

Cell Mediated Response

It is recognized as non self and is attacked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do T lymphocytes function in?

A

Activating other T cells and B cells

Controlling viral infections

Rejecting foreign tissue graft

Delayed hypersensitivity reactions (ex: poison ivy)

Regulating and amplifying T and B cell response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

High Lymphocyte count indicates what?

A

A viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cytotoxic (CD8+) T Lymphocytes

A

T8 Killer Cells

They bind to the surface of an invading cell, disrupt the membrane, and release toxic chemicals

They have the CD8+ markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Helper (CD4+) T Lymphocytes

A

Helper T4 Cells - Quarterback

Have CD4+ marker

Secrete cytokines to direct cells

Facilitate cell mediated response

Stimulates B cells to proliferate and mature into plasma cells for humoral response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Natural Killer (NK) Cells

A

Large granular lymphocytes with CD16 and CD56 markers

Non specific effector cells that kill tumor cells and virus infected cells

Its programmed killing is inhibited by contact with MHC I (Self Molecules)

It pokes holes in cells so cytotoxic enzymes can destroy it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What determines the activity of NK cells? What enhances NK cell activity?

A

Determined by:

Perforins
Enzymes
Toxic Cytokines

Enhanced By:

IL-2 (from T4 helper)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the main communicators between WBCs?

A

Interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Macrophages

A

Phagocytic Effector cells in both humoral and cell mediated responses

Do not have surface receptors for specific antigens, but can ingest an antigen to put on its surface to present to a T4 cell to activate the T Lymphocyte Response

They do have the Fc region antigens and for the constant complement portion of an antibody tough

Non specific response role in bacterial infection

secretes Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Variable versus Constant Portion

A

Variable Portion is the unique portion of an antigen while the constant is the same on every antigen

Macrophages can only read the constant portion, and activation of this portion by antibodies gets them to come over and eat it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Antigen Presenting Cells

A

APCs

B Cells

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Cytokines

A

small hormone like polypeptides

“Interleukins”

Act on immune cells to regulate inflammatory responses including movement, proliferation and differentiation of leukocytes and other cells (the T4’s messages)

They end up enhancing the production and maturation of B Lymphocytes into Plasma Cells

Usually have multiple jobs or mult kinds can do one job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How are Cytokines named?

A

For the cell type that makes them (ex: Lymphokines)

International nomenclature - ex: interleukin 1 through 17

the biologic property first ascribed to them - ex: interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

ILs

A

Interleukins

Cytokine

Involved in fever, inflammation, and regulation of immune cell response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

IF

A

Interferons

Cytokine

Augments natural killer cell activity and exerts antiviral activity to boost immune system response (when given as an IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

TNF

A

Tumor Necrosis Factor

Cytokine

Destroys things by directing cytotoxins toward tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

CSF

A

Colony Stimulating Factor

Cytokine

Stimulates different colonies of WBC to be produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Reticuloendothelial System

A

RES

Tissue Macrophages - localized to different regions and tissues and given different names based on their area

Wherever the macrophages are migrating to with the system they may stay their entire life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Alveolar Macrophages

A

Lung Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Kupffer’s Cells

A

Liver macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Peyer’s Patches

A

Intestine Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Microglial Cells

A

CNS Macrophage

62
Q

Langerhan’s Cells

A

Skin macrophage

63
Q

Histiocytes

A

Connective tissue macrophage

64
Q

Where are macrophages most abundant?

A

Lymph fluid and lymph nodes

65
Q

If the macrophage count is high…

A

you probably have an infection

66
Q

Lymph Nodes

A

Distributed along lymphatic vessels

an immune system structure

Filters lymph fluid and removes bacteria and toxins from circulation

Crucial in the proliferation of immune cells

67
Q

Thymus

A

Located in the mediastinum

Produces T lymphocytes

68
Q

Spleen

A

Largest lymph organ

reservoir for blood

macrophages clear cellular debris and process hemoglobin here

69
Q

Tonsils

A

produce lymphocytes

guards against airborne and ingested pathogens

immune system structure

very important, especially in those <2 y/o

70
Q

Thoracic Duct drains…

A

the left side of the body while the right lymphatic duct drains the top right quarter

71
Q

What is not in lymph that is in plasma

A

RBC

72
Q

Lymph flows back to the ___

A

heart

73
Q

Afferent Lymph Vessels

A

carries lymph into nodes

74
Q

What does a warm, tender, enlarged, and maybe red lymph node indicate?

A

That the lymph is working at phagocytizing foreign particles because that is inflammation

75
Q

What does a non painful, enlarged, fixed lymph node mean?

A

Indicates cancer

Especially if you cannot feel the edges of it

76
Q

If a node is enlarged than where is the infection occurring?

A

Distal to the lymph node

this is because lymph nodes drain from distal areas back toward the heart

77
Q

B Lymphocytes

A

Basis of humoral immunity

When an antigen binds with a receptor it will differentiate into a plasma cell and secrete immunoglobulins/antibodies

78
Q

What is an action B lymphocytes can do other than make antibodies once they differentiate into plasma cells?

A

They can act as Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs) by ingesting and depositing an antigen onto its own surface to activate T lymphocytes (T4) to secrete cytokines and initiate a response

79
Q

What regulates B lymphocyte activity?

A

T Lymphocytes (T4) and Cytokines

80
Q

Memory B Cells

A

B lymphocytes that circulate indefinitely and become active and remember how to make a specific antibody if there is a repeat exposure

They can be induced to make the antibody when told by cytokines from T cells

81
Q

Structure of an Antibody

A
  1. Fc (Constant Fragment)
  2. Fab (Antigen Binding Fragment)

Heavy Chain and Light Chain

82
Q

Fc

A

Constant fragment / Heavy chain of an antigen

It is a non specific activator site for inflammation

It is identical for all antibodies of a single class (IgE, IgG, etc)

83
Q

Fab

A

Antigen Binding Fragment / Light Chain of an antigen

Is specific for each individual antibody

Contains a specific antigen binding site

An antigen binds to this site and which activates the constant portion to attract macrophages

84
Q

Binding to the Fab portion –> ?

A

Binding to Fab –> Activates Fc portion –> Destruction of microorganism

85
Q

What are the major class of Immunoglobulins (antibodies)?

A 
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgD
IgE
86
Q

IgG

A

Most abundant antibody in the blood (75%)

Appears in all body fluids and can cross placenta

Major antibacterial and antiviral antibody

2nd Antibody produced during an immune response; greater on second exposure or with booster shots

87
Q

IgM

A

10% of immunoglobulins in blood

1st immunoglobulin produced during an immune response

Too large to cross membranes, only in vascular system

Activates complements and is responsible for natural immunity in species

M = Mostly in blood

88
Q

IgA

A

15% of all immunoglobulins

Mostly in body secretions like saliva, tears, mucus, bile, etc

Defends against pathogens on body surfaces, especially respiratory and GI tracts - acts locally in GI tract but can act systemic

89
Q

IgD

A

<1% of all immunoglobulins

Present in plasma and is easily broken down

Rare

Predominant antibody on the surface of B cells and is mainly and antigen receptor

Needed for the maturation of B Lymphocytes

90
Q

IgE

A

<1% of all immunoglobulins

Antibody involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions or allergic reactions occurring in minutes of exposure to an antigen

Binds to mast cells and basophils

Stimulates release of mast cell granules (histamine and heparin)

Also involved in parasitic infection

91
Q

What immunoglobulin is the reason we do not normally get zoonoses?

A

IgM

92
Q

Which is the largest type / structure of immunoglobulins?

A

IgM

93
Q

Which immunoglobulin has a booster effect where it increases dramatically upon second exposure?

A

IgG

94
Q

Types of Immunity

A

Natural

Active

Passive

95
Q

Natural Immunity

A

Innate Resistance

Factors: heredity, age, health, species, sex

Occurs due to IgM

96
Q

Active Immunity

A

Acquired through immunization (all or part of a microorganism) OR from actually having the disease

97
Q

Passive Immunity

A

Immunity transferred from another source

Sources: breast milk, anti serum, pooled gamma globulin, immune serum

Short Term Protection is offered

98
Q

Inactivated Vaccines

A

Killed viruses providing active immunity

not capable of replicating in the host - present little risk to recipient

Maintenance of lifelong immunity requires multiple doses

99
Q

Live Vaccines (Attenuated)

A

Mostly involves use of live virus with altered virulence

Does not require use of multiple doses

Give active immunity

100
Q

Active Immunization

A

Use of a modified product of an organism such as a toxoid is given

gives active immunity

Maintenance of protective titers requires periodic boosters

101
Q

Examples of Active Immunity Vaccinations

A 
Hepatitis B vaccine
Diphtheria Pertussis & Tetanus (DPT)
Haemophilus influenzae B vaccine
Poliovirus vaccine
Rotavirus vaccine
Measles, Mumps, and Rubella vaccine (MMR)
Varicella virus vaccine
Influenza virus vaccine
Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine
102
Q

Why is active immunity not guaranteed by a vaccine?

A

You have to make the antibodies in response

103
Q

Titer

A

a test to check for antibodies or if we are making antibodies

Often used with immunizations

104
Q

Booster

A

A booster immunization to make sure you can continue to have a strong immune response with antibodies

105
Q

How does passive immunity occur?

A

When antibodies from a human or animal are given to people who do not have immunity to the organism

Can either be naturally through placenta and breast feeding or by injection of gamma globulins

106
Q

What are the components of a passive immunity vaccination?

A
  1. Immunizing Agent - active component
  2. Suspending Fluid - sterile water, saline, complex tissue culture fluid
  3. Preservatives - stabilizers or antibiotics to prevent bacterial overgrowth
  4. Adjuvants - aluminum based compound to enhance immunogenicity and prolong stimulatory effects
107
Q

What kind of immunity does a Rabies Vaccine offer?

A

Passive Immunity because you need immediate protection - not the time to make your own antibodies

Same applies to snake antivenom

108
Q

Examples of Passive Immunity Globulins

A 
Hepatitis B immune globulin
Diphtheria antitoxin
Tetanus immune globulin
Varicella zoster immune globulin
Rabies immune globulin
109
Q

Humoral Immunity depends on …

A

maturation of B cells into plasma cells and secretion of antibodies

110
Q

What are the effector responses of humoral immunity?

A

Precipitation of antigen antibody complexes
Agglutination or clumping of cells

Neutralization of bacterial toxins and viruses

Lysis and destruction of pathogens or cells

Adherence of antigen to immune cells

Facilitation of phagocytosis

Activation of complement

There is a primary and secondary response in humoral immunity

111
Q

Serum Sickness

A

Immune response (like an allergic reaction) occurs when falsely identifying a protein in medicine or antiserum

Causes hives, itching, joint, pain, swollen lymph nodes, pain

Can occur up to 25 days after exposure to the drug the first time and only 3 the next time

112
Q

What are the stages that occur in a humoral response?

A

Antigen invades –> attaches to something (MCII) –> Macrophage engulfs and presents the antigen on its surface –>T4 cells then are stimulate from the presence of that MCII antigen –> T4 then activates B cells and differentiation into plasma cells to make antigens/immunoglobulins –> attach to invaders and allows destruction and an attack

Proliferation of B and T then occurs allowing Memory cell creation

113
Q

How does HIV prevent the humoral response?

A

HIV destroys the CD4 marker on the T4 cells which means it can no longer direct destruction

114
Q

How do IgG and IgM levels differ between induced immunity through a primary vaccination and a booster dose?

A

In the primary vaccination the IgM level will be the first main responder with a slow and slight increase in IgG over time

In the booster dose, the IgM level raises the same immediately like in the first dose, but the IgG has been raising since the first dose and immediately grows higher and higher (way above IgM)

IgM was metabolized after the first dose, but IgG remained

115
Q

Cell Mediated Immunity

A

Protection against viruses and cancer cells

Action of T Lymphocytes and Macrophages predominate this response

Macrophages processes the antigen and presents it to T Cells

No antibodies, but protects against viruses and cancer

116
Q

What type of immunity allows for constant cancer screening?

A

Cell Mediated Immunity

117
Q

What are the stages of a cell-mediated immune response?

A

Antigen –> Macrophage engulfs antigen –> Antigen MHC II expression –> Release of cytokines by T4 to stimulate T8 –> T8 Production of cytotoxic cells

118
Q

Complement and the Complement Cascade

A

Consists of 20 proteins circulating as functionally inactive molecules that cause inflammation in response to an invader

They “complement” the immune system by helping make an inflammatory response to draw WBC in to the area to phagocytize foreign bodies and lyse it

119
Q

What is usually required for the complement cascade to work?

A

The antigen-antibody (IgG or IgM) reaction to activate the complement system

120
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Draws WBC to foreign bodies

121
Q

Potential Pathways for Complement Cascade

A

Classic Pathway

Alternative (Properdin) Pathway

122
Q

Classic Pathway of Complement Cascade

A

initial step with activation of C1 (complement 1 protein)

Fc portion (constant) of IgG and IgM antibody is turned on after the antigen binds to the Fab portion

123
Q

Alternative (Properdin Pathway) of Complement Cascade

A

Initial step with activation of C3

Activation is done by pieces of bacterial or fungal cell walls being released during phagocytosis

Does NOT involve antibodies

Debris activates complements for its destruction

124
Q

What do Complement Proteins 1 through 5 do?

A

Stimulates mast cell degranulation, WBC chemotaxis, and opsonization of bacteria

125
Q

What do Complement Proteins 6 through 20 do?

A

Bacterial cell lysis by making cell wall “leaky”

Pokes holes for enzyme injection

126
Q

Complement Mediated Immune Responses

A 
Cytolysis
Adherence of Immune Cells
Chemotaxis
Anaphylaxis
Opsonization
127
Q

Cytolysis

A

Destruction of cell membranes (body cells or pathogens)

128
Q

Adherence of Immune Cells

A

Adhesion of Ag-Ab complexes to surfaces of cells or tissues (phagocytes)

129
Q

Chemotaxis

A

Chemical attraction of phagocytic cells to foreign agents

130
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Degranulation of mast cells with release of histamine and other chemical mediators

131
Q

Opsonization

A

Targeting of antigen so it can be easily engulfed and digested by macrophages

Not marked by antibodies, another molecule

132
Q

What are the main things complements do?

A

They launch an inflammatory response and mark a virus for a macrophage to find

This is a non specific response

133
Q

Types of Immune Disorders

A

Hypersensitivity Disorders

Autoimmune Disorders

Immunodeficiency Disorders

134
Q

Type I Hypersensitivity Disorders

A

IgE Mediated allergic reaction (basically allergic mast cell reaction)

Anaphylactic - immediate, mediated by IgE

IgE antibodies bind with antigens on the surface of Mast cells –> release of allergic mediators that cause vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, smooth muscle contraction, and eosinophilia

ex: anaphylaxis, allergy, hay fever, asthma, rhinitis, anaphylaxis, insect reactions

135
Q

Type II Hypersensitivity Disorders

A

Cytotoxic reaction (cytolytic, complement-dependent)

IgG or IgM antibodies bind to cellular or exogenous antigens causing activation of the complement cascade –> this causes phagocytosis or cytolysis

ex: Blood transfusion reaction, Goodpasture’s syndrome, erythroblastosis fetalis, autoimmune anemia

136
Q

Type III Hypersensitivity Disorders

A

Immune complex reactions / antigen and antibodies keep grouping together (d/t PMNs) and clump together and are deposited somewhere causing inflammation reaction

ex: Post streptococcal, serum sickness, autoimmune vasculitis

137
Q

Type IV Hypersensitivity Disorders

A

Cell mediated reactions (immediately activates T4 cascade)

Delayed reaction

APC presents antigen to T cells in association with MHC –> T cells release lymphokines that stim macrophages (NO ANTIBODIES) –> Lysozymes released and damage surrounding tissue (an inflammation reaction causing damage)

ex: Contact dermatitis, Tb test, transplant rejection, poison ivy, allograft rejection, HVGD and GVHD

138
Q

Which Hypersensitivity Disorder types are humoral/antibody mediated and which are cell mediated?

A

Humoral/Antibody - I II III

Cell Mediated - IV

139
Q

Autoimmune Disorders

A

Immune response against self / T celsl get hyperactive and destroy healthy “you” cells

ex: rheumatoid arthritis and SLE, can cause Diabetes type I or Pernicious Anemia

140
Q

Anaphylactic Shock

A

A systemic response from a type I hypersensitivity reaction

141
Q

Anaphylaxis

A

Systemic response to the inflammatory mediators released in type I hypersensitivity

ex: Histamine, acetylcholine, kinins,, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins all cause VASODILATION (less circulating volume, could lead to shock)
ex: acetylcholine, kinins, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins all can cause BRONCHOCONSTRICTION

142
Q

Goodpasture’s Syndrome

A

Type II Hypersens. Rxn

Inflammation in glomerulus from exposure to an antigen similar to the lining of the glomerulus

143
Q

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

A

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

Type II Hypersens. Rxn

If the mom is rH negative and dad is rH positive and the baby is rH positive, during delivery the babies blood, if exposed to the mom, can cause the mom to develop antibodies in response to rH antigens

Nothing occurs in the first pregnancy, but in the second if the baby is rH+ then the IgG will cross the placenta (not IgM since its too big) and bind to rH and kill fetal RBC –> leads to anemia and cyanosis

This is why we give Rhogam twice during pregnancy

144
Q

Agglutination

A

Blood clumping that occurs if the opposite antibody hits the antigen on an opposite blood type

ex: If you give B blood transfusion to an A blood person, the anti A antibodies in the donor B blood will connect with the A antigen on the recipients normal blood and destroy it, while the recipients anti b antibodies will hook to the b antigen and destroy those cells

145
Q

Hemolytic Anemia

A

Type II reaction

This is the agglutination when the donor blood antibodies kill an opposite recipient blood type if given to the wrong person

146
Q

What antigen and antibodies are present in A, B, O, and AB Blood?

A

A - Antigen A; Anti B Antibody

B - Antigen B; Anti A Antibody

O - No Antigens; Anti A and Anti B Antibodies

AB - A and B Antigens; No Antibodies

147
Q

What is the mechanism of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Immune complexes deposit on the walls of blood vessels and activate complements

Blood vessels are then damaged

Inflammatory response at the vessel level causes damage in type III

148
Q

HVGD

A

Host v Graft Disease

Type IV Hypersens Rxn

Tissue Transplant Rejection

If the MHC I are not similar enough (still need autoimmune drugs even if they are) the autoimmune system activates in a delayed reaction to the new organ

149
Q

GVHD

A

Graft v Host Disease

Type IV Hypersens Rxn

Organ transplanted attacks the host

We can suppress the T cells in the person, but T cells in the organ will attack the person and are not suppressed

150
Q

How is Tb testing a Type IV Hypersen Rxn?

A

Tb is a huge bacteria so we dont have antibodies or a titer for it

If we put an antigen under the skin and look for a cell mediated response indicating Tb exposure

NURS361 - Pathophysiology II (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions