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Amanda Akouayri > Module 4 Study Guide > Flashcards

Module 4 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following would NOT break the infection cycle?
A. Sanitation
B. Hand washing
C. Disinfection
D. Throwing needles in the garbage
A

Throwing needles in the garbage

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2
Q 
Who is credited with the first vaccine to protect against smallpox?
A. Jenner
B. Pasteur
C. Koch
D. Curie
A

Jenner

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3
Q 
Which of the following best defines pathogen?
A. Normal flora
B. Necessary for plant survival
C. Helps cure disease
D. Causes infectious disease
A

Causes infectious disease

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4
Q 
Which of the following are examples of a reservoir in the infection cycle?
A. Excretions and secretions
B. Immunosuppressants and the elderly
C. Equipment and water
D. Respiratory tract and broken skin
E. Protozoa and fungi
A

Equipment and water

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5
Q 
Which of the following best describes a susceptible host?
A. Excretions and secretions
B. Immunosuppressants and the elderly
C. Equipment and water
D. Respiratory tract and broken skin
E. Protozoa and fungi
A

Immunosuppressants and the elderly

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6
Q 
Which of the following best describes a portal of exit?
A. Excretions and secretions
B. Immunosuppressants and the elderly
C. Equipment and water
D. Respiratory tract and broken skin
E. Protozoa and fungi
A

Excretions and secretions

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7
Q 
Which of the following links in the infection cycle would wearing gloves most effectively break?
A. Portal of exit
B. Portal of entry
C. Mode of transmission
D. Infectious host
E. Susceptible host
A

Mode of transmission

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8
Q 
Which of the following links in the infection cycle is the sixth link?
A. Portal of exit
B. Portal of entry
C. Mode of transmission
D. Infectious host
E. Susceptible host
A

Susceptible host

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9
Q 
Which of the following best describes how to inhibit bacterial growth?
a. Supply plenty of nutrients
B. Raise temperature
C. Keep surfaces dry and clean
D. Regular oxygen
A

Keep surfaces dry and clean

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10
Q 
Which of the following links in the infection cycle would be broken by cleansing and sterilization?
A. Portal of exit
B. Portal of entry
C. Mode of transmission
D. Infectious host
E. Susceptible host
A

Infectious agent

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11
Q 
Which of the following would include typhus, Lyme disease, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A. Parasites
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Rickettsiae
E. Virus
A

Rickettsiae

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12
Q 
Which of the following is the step in the infection cycle when an infectious agent leaves the reservoir host?
A. Portal of exit
B. Portal of entry
C. Mode of transmission
D. Infectious host
E. Susceptible host
A

Portal of exit

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13
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an effect of inflammation?
A. Forming antigens
B. Destroying pathogens
C. Eliminating pathogen by-products
D. Restricting the amount of damage
A

Forming antigens

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14
Q 
Which of the following is the phase in the immune response in which antibodies are formed?
A. Recognizing the invader
B. Growing defenses
C. Attacking infection
D. Slowing of the immune response
A

Attacking infection

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15
Q 
Which of the following types of immunity is achieved following administration of vaccines?
A. Acquired active immunity
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Congenital passive immunity
D. Passive immunity
A

Artificial active immunity

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16
Q 
Which of the following types of immunity is achieved through administration of ready-made antibiotics?
A. Artificially acquired passive
B. Artificial active immunity
C. Congenital passive immunity
D. Passive immunity
A

Artificially acquired immunity

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17
Q 
Which of the following classifications of vaccines include tetanus and diphtheria?
A. Live attenuated pathogens
B. Pathogenic toxins
C. Killed pathogens
D. Artificial pathogens
A

Pathogenic toxins

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18
Q 
Which of the following stimulates the body's own antibody production?
A. Live attenuated pathogens
B. Pathogenic toxins
C. Killed pathogens
D. Artificial pathogens
A

Live attenuated pathogens

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19
Q 
Which of the following stages of infectious disease includes general complaints such as malaise and fever?
A. Incubation
B. Prodromal
C. Acute
D. Convalescent
E. Declining
A

Prodromal

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20
Q 
Which of the following stages of infectious disease shows improved levels of health?
A. Incubation
B. Prodromal
C. Acute
D. Convalescent
E. Declining
A

Declining

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21
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant during a medical aseptic hand wash?
A. Allow clothing to touch sink
B. Only touch inside of sink with hands
C. Turn off faucet with a dry paper towel
D. Use the same towel to shut off faucet
E. Hold hands upward

A

Turn off faucet with dry paper towel

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22
Q 
Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when sanitizing instruments?
A. Use bare hands
B. Hold instruments with a clamp
C. Use heavy gloves
D. Rinse well with cold water
A

Use heavy gloves

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23
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when removing contaminated gloves?
A. Hold hands near the body and pull quickly
B. Throw the glove away in the regular garbage
C. Throw the gloves into a separate container
D. Turn the gloves inside out one over another

A

Turn the gloves inside out one over another

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24
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when handling containers used to transport blood?
A. Use double bagging
B. Label with orange-red biohazard labels
C. Place in plastic containers
D. Incinerate containers

A

Label with orange-red biohazard labels

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25
Q 
Which of the following diseases does NOT have an available vaccine?
A. Measles
B. Chickenpox
C. HCV
D. HBV
A

HCV

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26
Q 
Which of the following applies to the set of infection control guidelines that should be used by all health care professionals?
A. Standard precautions
B. Transmission precautions
C. Body substance isolation
D. Universal precaution
A

Standard precautions

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27
Q 
Which of the following is NOT considered standard personal protective equipment?
A. Gloves
B. Mask
C. Face shield
D. Gown
E. Shoe cover
A

Shoe cover

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28
Q 
Which of the following viral disease does NOT have a vaccine available?
A. Herpes simplex
B. Rubella
C. Varicella zoster
D. Human papilloma
A

Herpes simplex

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29
Q 
According to the DC, standard precautions should be practiced at all times. These practices apply to which of the following?
A. Body fluids
B. Blood
C. Non-intact skin
D. All of the above
A

All of the above

30
Q 
Who has the highest risk of developing a nosocomial infection?
A. People in social settings
B. Children
C. Hospitalized patients
D. Women
A

Hospitalized patients

31
Q 
Which of the following types of gloves is recommended for wear when instruments are sanitized?
A. Sterile latex
B. Sterile nylon
C. Non-sterile latex
D. Non-sterile nylon
E. Heavy-duty rubber
A

Heavy-duty rubber

32
Q 
In any of the acute hepatitis diseases, which organ is affected?
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Gallbladder
D. Kidney
A

Liver

33
Q 
Which of the following does NOT need to be reported to the CDC's Notifiable Disease Surveillance System?
A. Salmonella
B. Lyme disease
C. Meningitis
D. Chickenpox
A

Chickenpox

34
Q 
All of the following are desirable characteristics of safety devices EXCEPT what?
A. Jet injection
B. Cannot be deactivated
C. Easy to use
D. Does not work passively
A

Does not work passively

35
Q 
Which of the following best describes the order of occurrence of the infection cycle?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of exit
3. Infectious agent
4. Reservoir host
5. Means of transmission
6. Portal of entry
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 2,3,4,5,6,1
C. 3,4,2,5,6,1
D. 4,3,2,6,5,1
A

3,4,2,5,6,1

36
Q

What are the steps in the inflammatory process in physiologic order from first to last?
1. Pathogens are destroyed
2. White cells move into injured tissue
3. There is pain due to nerve damage
4. Plasma moves into tissues, causing swelling
5. Blood flow causes redness or heat
6. dilation of blood vessels increases blood supply
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 6,5,4,3,2,1
C. 5,6,4,3,1,2
D. 5,6,3,4,2,1

A

6,5,4,3,2,1

37
Q 
Practices such as hand washing, general cleaning, and disinfectant are all part of which of the following?
A. Surgical asepsis
B. Medical asepsis
C. Infection control
D. OSHA compliance
A

Medical asepsis

38
Q 
Which medical asepsis process uses various chemicals that can destroy many pathogenic microorganisms?
A. Sanitization
B. Ultrasound
C. Disinfection
D. Sterilization
A

Disinfection

39
Q 
When hand washing with antimicrobial soap and water is not available, which method can be used?
A. Antimicrobial wipes
B. Alcohol-based hand rub
C. Lotion
D. Do nothing
A

Alcohol-based hand rub

40
Q

Which of the following best describes the patient’s idea of treatment success?
A. Curing the disease
B. Understanding what caused the illness
C. Being able to successfully manage the disease
D. Understanding the physiology of the disease
E. Getting medications

A

Being able to successfully manage the disease

41
Q 
Which of the following is usually contained in the first part of medical history?
A. Personality
B. Chief complaint
C. Mental status
D. Social history
E. Cause of illness
A

Chief complaint

42
Q

Which of the following best describes the first responsibility of the medical assistant when taking the medical history?
A. Wash hands
B. Allow freedom of conversation
C. Put the patient at ease
D. Follow the exact order of the history form
E. Obtain personal information first

A

Put the patient at ease

43
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when the patient comes in to the office for a singular problem and wants to discuss many problems with the physician?
A. List all the problems under chief complaint
B. Remind the patient that the physician’s time is limited, but he will try and accommodate if possible
C. Tell the patient not to worry because the physician will meet his needs
D. Tell the patient more time is needed and reschedule the appointment

A

Remind the patient that the physician’s time is limited, but he will try and accommodate if possible

44
Q

Which of the following statements is true about interviewing?
A. Do not worry about comfort level
B. Allow the patient to tell anecdotes
C. Do not waste time explaining terms or concepts
D. Guide the conversation and keep it on track

A

Guide the conversation and keep it on track

45
Q 
Which part of the medical history includes notes about location, quality, and timing?
A. Social history
B. Present illness
C. Past medical history
D Family history
E. Review of symptoms
A

Present illness

46
Q 
Which of the following best describes the physician's overall assessment of major body functions?
A. Review of systems
B. Disease examination
C. Past medical history
D. Family history
E. Social history
A

Review of systems

47
Q

Which of the following best describes the format of a source-oriented medical record?
A. Notes written in SOAP format
B. Chronological set of notes for each visit
C. Database, problem list, and examination
D. All the objective materials gathered about the patient

A

Chronological set of notes for each visit

48
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action when the medical assistant is taking the medical history?
A. Ask the patient whether there are any questions
B. Use medical jargon when possible
C. Be form and inflexible
D. Ask intimate questions right away to get them over with

A

Ask the patient whether there are any questions

49
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the medical assistant with the uncommunicative patient?
A. Tell the patient that cooperation is mandatory
B. Give the patient a sample problem list to review
C. Let the physician interview the patient
D. Inform the patient of guidelines for expected behavior

A

Give the patient a sample problem list to review

50
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when asking a patient about sensitive topics such as alcohol or drug abuse?
A. Ask sensitive questions at the beginning to get uncomfortable moments over with
B. Do not make eye contact
C. Be judgmental when necessary
D. Wait until a good rapport with the patient is established before asking sensitive questions

A

Wait until a good rapport with the patient is established before asking sensitive questions

51
Q 
Which of the following components of the review of systems includes joint stiffness, muscle pain, and limitations of movement?
A. Nervous
B. Cardiovascular
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Gastrointestinal
E. Respiratory
A

Musculoskeletal

52
Q 
Which of the following components of the review of systems includes change in speech?
A. Neurological
B. Cardiovascular
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Gastrointestinal
E. Respiratory
A

Neurological

53
Q 
Which of the following components of the review of systems includes shortness of breath?
A. Nervous
B. Cardiovascular
C. Musculoskeletal
D. Gastrointestinal
E. Respiratory
A

Respiratory

54
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a common medical records format?
A. Source-oriented
B. Problem-oriented
C. Patient-oriented
D. None of the above
A

Patient-oriented

55
Q

Which of the following best describes the major components of the problem-oriented medical record?
A. Problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, progress notes
B. Database, problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan
C. Database, problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, progress notes
D. Database, problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, laboratory reports
E. Problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, progress notes, laboratory reports

A

Database, problem list, diagnostic and treatment plan, progress notes

56
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate action in order to make a correction when an error has been made in the chart?
A. Cover with White-Out, write over it, and initial and date it
B. Erase the error and correct it
C. Scribble out the error and write over it
D. Draw a single line through the error. Write the correct entry and put initials and date

A

Draw a single line through the error. Write the correct entry and put initials and date

57
Q

What is the correct order for information placed chronologically in the chart?
A. Primary providers notes, EKGs and x-rays, laboratory reports, pathology reports
B. Primary providers notes, EKGs and x-rays, hospital notes, consultations, correspondence
C. Primary providers notes, laboratory reports, pathology reports, hospital notes
D. Primary providers notes, laboratory reports, pathology reports, consultations
E. Primary providers notes, hospital notes, laboratory reports, medications

A

Primary providers notes, EKGs and x-rays, hospital notes, consultations, correspondence

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the patient’s medical history?
A. Helps guide the patient’s treatment
B. Allows the provider to recall previous treatment
C. Allows the patient to help with the diagnosis
D. Gives a base for statistical analysis

A

Allows the patient to help with the diagnosis

59
Q

When you ask the patient questions in the history interview, what is the MOST important consideration?
A. That the patient answer each question
B. That the patient understand each question
C. That the patient be allowed to decline to answer
D. That all questions be repeated

A

That the patient understand each question

60
Q 
Which is considered the patient's chief concern?
A. Disease
B. Illness
C. Treatment
D. Medication
A

Illness

61
Q 
Which is considered the physician's chief concern?
A. Disease
B. Illness
C. Treatment
D. Medication
A

Disease

62
Q 
Which of the following is NOT included on the patient's medical history form?
A. Present health history
B. Body systems review
C. Insurance history
D. Social history
A

Insurance history

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the provider’s notice of its privacy act according to the HIPAA privacy rule?
A. Describes patient’s rights
B. Explains facilities practices related to PHI
C. Explains where to file a complaint
B. Describes various treatments

A

Describes various treatments

64
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a method used for charting?
A. CHEDDAR
B. SWISS
C. SOAP
D. SOAPER
A

SWISS

65
Q 
In the SOAPER method, what does the letter "E" represent?
A. Examination
B. Early history
C. Education
D. Elaboration
A

Education

66
Q 
Which is NOT a vulnerable area that HIPAA regulations focus on in regard to medical records and the patient's chart?
A. Paper record storage
B. Fax machines
C. Photocopies
D. Workstations
A

Photocopies

67
Q 
Which of the following examination methods is used to check the amount of flexion and extension of a joint by using forceful passive movement?
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Mensuration
E. Manipulation
A

Manipulation

68
Q 
Which of the following is a reason for positioning the patient for the provider?
A. To keep the patient warm
B. To examine selected areas efficiently
C. To provider for patient privacy
D. To prevent contamination
E. To decrease patient anxiety
A

To examine selected areas efficiently

69
Q 
Which of the following is the most comfortable position for patients with back and abdominal problems?
A. Sims'
B. Dorsal recumbent
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
E. Prone
A

Dorsal recumbent

70
Q 
Which of the following positions may be substituted for the lithotomy position for elderly and physically challenged patients?
A. Semi-fowler's
B. Sims'
C. Supine
D. Knee-chest
E. Prone
A

Sims’

Amanda Akouayri (1 decks)

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