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PHY 503 MODULE 4.1 > Module 4 Lecture 4.1-4.6 > Flashcards

Module 4 Lecture 4.1-4.6 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 subareas of the Motor Cortex?

A
  1. PRIMARY MOTOR CORTEX
    - Fine motor movement elicited by stimulation.
  2. PREMOTOR AREA
    - Stimulation results in movement of muscle groups to perform a task.
    3.SUPPLEMENTARY MOTOR AREA
    - Simulation often elicits bilateral movements.
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2
Q

What motor area is involved in coordinating the sequential movements of the legs and arms while walking and running?

A

Supplementary Motor Area

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3
Q

Writing typing, buttoning clothes are examples of motor functions controlled by the?

A

Primary Motor Cortex

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4
Q

Which motor area is involved in coordinating the muscles of the arms and shoulders to move and catch a baseball?

A

Premotor Area

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5
Q

What are some examples of Primary Motor cortex functions?

A

HIPS, LEGS, TRUNK, ARMS, FEET, FINGERS, NECK, THUMB, LIPS, VOCALIZATION, JAW TONGUE, SWALLOWING/CHEWING

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6
Q

What are some examples of Supplementary and Premotor Areas?

A

HAND SKILLS, HEAD ROTATION, CONTRALATERAL EYE MOVEMENTS

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7
Q

BROCA’S AREA

A

closely associated with cortical areas that control the appropriate respiratory function for speech. DAMAGE TO THIS AREA WILL CAUSE DECREASED SPEECH CAPABILITY.

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8
Q

The Corticospinal tract carries movement-related messages from the brain to the muscles involved. Imagine you are squeezing your hand, sort the steps of the descending Corticospinal tract pathway to cause that motor effect. The first and last steps are given (i.e., #1 would start where the signal originates in the motor cortex and #9 would finish with the effector muscles being stimulated).

A
  1. Motor Cortex
  2. Synapse with Gray Matter
  3. Midbrain
  4. Pons
  5. Pyramidal Decussation
  6. Synapse with Betz Cells
  7. Lateral/Ventral Corticospinal tract fibers
  8. Lower motor neurons
  9. Muscle
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9
Q

DEFINE BETZ CELLS

A

Known as “Giant Pyramidal Cells” :primary neural cell type in the Corticospinal tract. (34,000) They are pyramidal spinal cord neural connections for vision-guided motor function and cognition. They also send short collateral axons back to the cortex to sharpen boundaries of the excitatory signal by lateral inhibition on adjacent cortical regions.

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10
Q

Define Cortical Motor Signal Transmission

A

Provides information for discrete, detailed movements directly from the cortex to the spinal cord, whereas signals from the lower brain areas are communicated indirectly by helping to prevent unwanted muscle contractions from competing with voluntary movements.

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11
Q

Define the 2 pathways of the Cortical Motor signal?

A
  1. DIRECT PATHWAY (corticospinal tract): excitatory and is in charge of the initial part of the movement)
  2. INDIRECT PATHWAY (signals to basal ganglia, cerebellum, and brainstem nuclei): is inhibitory and prevents unnecessary movements).
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12
Q

__________ is essential for motor control?

A

Sensory Feedback

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13
Q

What three things tunes muscle movement?

A

Sensory feedback from muscle spindle, tactile receptors, and proprioceptors.

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14
Q

LESIONS OF THE PRIMARY MOTOR CORTEX?

A

(Remember contains giant Betz-Cells important for fine motor control) -Loss of voluntary control of discrete movement of the distal segments of the limbs. LESIONS HERE CAN CAUSE VARYING DEGREES OF PARALYSIS IN WHICH YOU CAN STILL GET GROSS MOTOR CONTRACTION, BUT THE ABILITY TO CONTROL FINE MOVEMENTS WOULD BE GONE.

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15
Q

“gate keeper for motor movement”Muscle spasticity from loss of inhibitory input from accessory areas of the cortex that inhibit excitatory brainstem motor nuclei. LESIONS OFTEN RESULT IN SPASMS THAT OCCUR IN MUSCLES ON THE OPPOSITE SIDE OF THE BODY. (parkinson’s and huntninton disease disruption)

A

BASAL GANGLIA

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16
Q

Loss of control of swallowing, clapping, and kissing are results of?

A

Lesions in the Primary Motor Cortex

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17
Q

Define Reticular Nuclei Functions

A

support the body against gravity through the involvement of muscles of the spinal column and extensor muscles of the leg.

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18
Q

EXCITE THE ANTIGRAVITY MUSCLES. They have a high degree in natural excitability. When opposed they cause powerful excitation of the antigravity muscles.

A

PONTINE RETICULAR NUCLEI:

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19
Q

INHIBIT ANTIGRAVITY MUSCLES. Inhibitory signals are sent to the antigravity muscles through the medullary reticulospinal tract. They receive collateral input from the corticospinal tract, the rubrospinal tract, and other motor pathways to activate the inhibitory action of the medullary reticular nuclei and counterbalance the signals coming from the pons.

A

MEDULLARY RETICULAR NUCLEI

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20
Q

What are the three main parts of the vestibular apparatus and define each part?

A
  1. SEMICIRCULAR DUCTS/CANALS: provide sensory input about rotational movement of the head
  2. UTRICLE: responds to movements of the head oriented horizontally (sidways and lateral displacements)
  3. SACCULE: respnds to movements of the head oriented vertically (up and down backwards-forward)
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21
Q

Define the Macula?

A

-Within the Utricle and Saccule sensory organs detect the orientation of the head with respect to gravity.

-hair cells provide information about linear acceleration and position of the head with respect to gravity

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22
Q

True or False: All 3 sensory organs provide spatial orientation and movement information to the brain about the head’s position in space?

A

True

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23
Q

What is the Vestibular Apparatus made of?

A
  • Bony Labyrinth-from the inside to the outside its bathed in perilymph fluid which separates the bony from the interior membranous labyrinth.
  • Membranous Labyrinth: Inside includes endolymph fluid.
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24
Q

What are the sensory cells for the vestibular system?

A

Hair Cells

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25
Q

Define the term: where hair cells are clustered under a thin layer of calcium carbonate crystals that make the structure top heavy to respond to changes in head position?

A

Stratoconia

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26
Q

type of hair cell that provides structural support

A

Sustentacular cells

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27
Q

sensory cells for signaling positional information

A

hair cells

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28
Q

Vestibular hair cells, In a hair cell, the largest protrusion is called the ? And is connected via ? to a series of protrusions called ?

A

Kinocilium, Tip Links, Sterovilli

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29
Q

Bending of the stereocilia (or stereovilli) away from the kinocilium will cause the cell to?

A

Hyperpolarize

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30
Q

Bending of the stereocilia (or stereovilli) toward from the kinocilium will cause the cell to?

A

Depolarize

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31
Q

The voltage difference across the ?membrane allows for potassium to enter the hair cell from the ? fluid whereas the concentration difference across the ? membrane allows for potassium to leave the hair cell to enter the fluid.

A

1.APICAL membrane
2.ENDOLYMPH fluid
3. BASOLATERAL membrane

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32
Q

List the steps involved for signal transduction within vestibular hair cells?

A
  1. Head changes position.
  2. Endolymph movement causes mechanical deformation.
  3. Apical K+ channels open
  4. K+ rushes into the hair cell
  5. Hair cells depolarize.
  6. Calcium enters from the perilymph fluid.
  7. Vesicular fusion occurs.
  8. Neurotransmitters are released.
  9. Signals is sent down the afferent axon.
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33
Q

SEMICIRCULAR CANALS

A

provides information about rotational movement and involves 3 types Ampullar: located at the end of each duct (enlargement),
Capula,
Cristae ampullaries: sensory structure

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34
Q

The semicircular canals detect what type of
acceleration

A

rotational/angular
acceleration

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35
Q

otoliths detect what type of
acceleration.

A

linear

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36
Q

rest and digest division

A

PARASYMPATHETIC

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37
Q

flight or flight response

A

SYMPATHETIC

38
Q
  • Most active in non-stressful situations
  • Brainstem and sacral regions of the spinal cord.
  • closer to effector tissue
    -have long preganglionic axons and short postganglionic axons
A

PARASYMPATHETIC

39
Q
  • Most active in emergency or threating situation
  • Emerges from the thoracic and lumbar regions
    -ganglia reside close to spinal cord
    -effector chains have shorter preganglionic axons and long postganglionic of axons.
A

SYMPATHETIC

40
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers secrete ? , which binds to its ? receptor on the postganglionic fiber. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers secrete ?, which binds to its ? receptor on the effector tissue.

A

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers secrete ACETYCHOLINE , which binds to its NICOTINIC/IONTROPIC receptor on the postganglionic fiber. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers secrete NOREPIENPHRINE, which binds to its ADRENERGIC receptor on the effector tissue.

41
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers secrete ?
, which binds to its ?receptor on the postganglionic fiber. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers secrete ? , which binds to its ? receptor on the effector tissue.

A

Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers secrete ACETYCHOLINE
, which binds to its ACETYCHOLINE receptor on the postganglionic fiber. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers secrete ACETYCHOLINE , which binds to its MUSCARINIC/
METABOTROPIC receptor on the effector tissue.

42
Q

T/F The postganglionic parasympathetic axon is typically longer than the preganglionic parasympathetic axon.

A

FALSE: Preganglionic axons of parasympathetic fibers are typically quite long, only synapsing with the postganglionic axon at a point that is at or near the target tissue.

43
Q

IS CATALYZED BY THE CHOLINE ACETYL-TRANSFERASE ENZYME FROM SUBSTRATES THAT ARE TAKEN UP BY THE PRESYNAPTIC CELL AFTER CLEVAGE WITHIN THE SYNAPTIC CLEFT BY ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE.

A

ACETYLCHOLINE FORMATION

44
Q

IS DERIVED FROM DOPAMINE AND CAN ALSO BE METHYLATED TO FORM THE STRUCTURALLY RELATED HORMONE EPINEPHRINE. BOTH THE NOREPINEPHRINE NEUROTRANSMITTER AND EPINEPHRINE HORMONE CAN BIND TO ADRENERGIC RECEPTORS.

A

NOREPINEPHRINE

45
Q

Based on what you know about the parasympathetic nervous system function so far, which of the following is NOT a response by this system?

A

It stimulates glucose release by the liver
explanation:Glucose release from the liver occurs in response to an increased demand for blood glucose, which is stimulated in response to stress or exercise (i.e., the sympathetic division).

46
Q

What are some responses of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

It stimulates salivation.
It stimulates digestive activity
It relaxes the rectum

47
Q

Parasympathetic neurons originate from what four cranial nerves and spinal cord?

A
  • Ocular Motor nerve (cranial nerve III):
  • Facial nerves (cranial nerve VII)
    – Glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) s
  • Vagus nerve (cranial X)
    – Sacral segments in spinal cord
48
Q

What cranial nerve send fibers to the pupillary sphincters and ciliary muscles.

A

Ocular Motor nerve (cranial nerve III)

49
Q

What cranial nerves are fibers to the nasal, lacrimal, and submandibular glands

A

Facial nerves (cranial nerve VII)

50
Q

What cranial nerve sends fibers to parotid glands for salivary secretion.

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) s

51
Q

Which cranial nerve send motor inputs to most of the visceral organs (plays a major role in the neural communication between the central nervous system and the enteric nervous system in the gut.

A
  • Vagus nerve (cranial X)
52
Q

Located at the base of the spinal cord send fibers to the descending colon, rectum, bladder, and genitalia. Serve functions for the lower abdomen including penile and clitoral erection, relaxation of the sphincter in the distal colon during peristalsis and micturition of voiding of the bladder.

A

Sacral Segments

53
Q

True/False: The parasympathetic rest and digest effects are all centered on the normal physiological functions of the body in the absence of stress.

A

True

54
Q

Parasympathetic innervation occurs at the level of _______ and the ______ level of the spinal cord.

A

Cranial nerves/Sacral

55
Q

Which cranial nerve accounts for the majority of parasympathetic innervation of the body?

A

CN X -The Vagus nerve, which innervates the majority of the viscera

56
Q

True/False: Parasympathetic stimulation triggers constriction of the pupils

A

True

57
Q

What type of neurotransmitter does the Parasympathetic nerves release?

A

acetylcholine

58
Q

What are the two types of acetylcholine receptors?

A
  1. nicotinic: receptors are inotropic receptors that increase ion permeability primarily of sodium upon activation
  2. muscarinic (GCPR): receptors are the target of cell receptor of choice. Response takes longer to activate however it last longer than nicotinic activation.
59
Q

This type of receptor are inotropic receptors that increase ion permeability primarily of sodium upon activation

A

Nicotinic Receptors

60
Q

This type of receptor is the target of cell receptor of choice. Response takes longer to activate however it last longer then nicotinic activation.

A

Muscarinic (GCPR)

61
Q

Parasympathetic neuron releases _____________, ____________, and _________________ act in concert to lower intracellular calcium levels, which triggers relaxation of vascular smooth muscles.

A

nitric oxide, acetylcholine, and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide

62
Q

Define Response: mass sympathetic discharge involves increases in arterial pressure, heart rate and contractility, blood flow to muscles, blood glucose, metabolic rate muscle strength, mental activity, and blood coagulation.

A

Fight/Flight Response

63
Q

run parallel to the spinal cord

A

The sympathetic chain of ganglia is also called the paravertebral ganglia

64
Q

What are the lesions that disrupt Sympathetic Fibers?

A

Blood vessel dilation
Lack of Sweating
Constricted pupil
Lack of “goose bumps”:

65
Q

How would sympathetic disruption impact inhibitory neurons?

A

When the basal tone is lost due to the absence of innervation, the muscle cells become much more sensitive to the presence of the missing transmitter

66
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic neurons secrete _________ which acts on with Alpha or Beta-adrenergic receptors

A

norepinephrine

67
Q

located on blood vessels where they cause vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels).

A

Alpha Receptors

68
Q

-_________: increased heart rate and contractility
-_________ bronchial and skeletal blood vessel dilation

A

-beta1
-beta2

69
Q

Activating ________ adrenergic receptors would cause narrowing of blood vessels. Activating ________ adrenergic receptors would facilitate breathing. Activating _________ adrenergic receptors would result in an increase in cardiac output.

A

ALPHA
BETA 2
BETA 1

70
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter in preganglionic sympathetic neurons

A

ACH-Acetylcholine

71
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic

Pupils become dilated?

A

Sympathetic

72
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic

Lenses of the eyes become focused?

A

Parasympathetic

73
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic
Sweat glands stimulated?

A

Sympathetic

74
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic

Stronger heart contraction

A

Sympathetic

75
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic
GI glands stimulated

A

Parasympathetic

76
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic
Heart Rate lowers?

A

Parasympathetic

77
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic

Constriction of the airways

A

Parasympathetic

78
Q

Sympathetic vs Parasympathetic

Vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin

A

Sympathetic

79
Q

Act like norepi and epi: they act on sympathetic fibers because they either activate adrenergic receptors themselves or they increase endogenous release of the body’s own norepinephrine stores.

A

Adrenergic drug

80
Q

___________ (stimulate alpha receptors)

A

Phenylephrine (used to releave nasal discomfort caused by colds. allergies, fever)

81
Q

________ (stimulate Beta 1&Beta2

A

Isoproterenol( drug treats heart conditions)

82
Q

_______ (stimulate beta2)

A

albuterol

83
Q

What are some drugs that act indirectly by increasing the release of nonepi from epi storage terminals

A
  • Ephedrine
  • Tyramine: monoamine compound that’s formed when tyrosine is decarboxylated. Stimulates norepinephrine release from sympathetic fibers and function in the regulation of blood pressure.
  • Amphetamine: potent CNS stimulate
84
Q

TRUE/FALSE: Patients on monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) must adhere to dietary restrictions to avoid blood pressure and heart rate spikes from elevated tyramine levels.

A

True:Remember that tyramine is an amino acid that stimulates catecholamine release and functions in the regulation of blood pressure. It is a monoamine compound and is broken down by the enzyme monoamine oxidase. When patients are on an MAOI regimen, care must be taken to restrict the ingestion of tyramine-rich foods to avoid cardiovascular complications.

85
Q

Parasympathomimetic drugs

A

fibers alter the normal synaptic functions

86
Q

_________ (activate nicotine receptors)

A

Nicotine (activate nicotine receptors)

87
Q

pilocarpine methacholine

A

(activate muscarinic receptors, cause profuse sweating)

88
Q

neostigmine, pyridostigmine, and ambenonium (potentiates effect of Ach)

A
  • Cholinesterase Inhibitors
89
Q

atropine and scopolamine (blocks effector of Ach on effector cells). Derived from Atropa Belladonna also known as deadly nightshade.

A

Antimuscarinic drugs

90
Q

what would help to alleviate the symptoms associated with a moderate defect in the ability of acetylcholine to stimulate skeletal muscle contraction?

A

neostigmine

PHY 503 MODULE 4.1 (3 decks)

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