Module 4 - Anti-Infectives Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A
  • The tetracyclines are bacteriostatic to multiplying bacteria by inhibiting protein synthesis. Both passive diffusion & energy-dependent active transport systems are necessary for tetracyclines to cross bacterial cell membranes & reach ribosomes.
  • Tetracyclines bind at the 30S ribosomal subunit.
  • Resistance develops by changes in the active transport system as well as changes in the binding sites. Cross-resistance among all tetracyclines is common.
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2
Q

What are the indications for using tetracyclines?

A

Tetracyclines are a group of bacteriostatic antibiotics with a wide range of activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria plus some other organisms

  • 1st line drugs for mycoplasma, chlamydia, the spirochete of Lyme disease, rickettsia causing Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and lymphogranuloma venereum
  • Acne
  • Comunity acquired pneumonia
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3
Q

What are the s/x associated with tetracyclines?

A
  • GI distress (nausea, vomiting, and epigastric burning)
  • tetracycline-resistant bacterial enteritis can occur.
  • Diarrhea - may result from the irritative effect of tetracycline but must be distinguished from pseudomembranous coliti
  • IV administration causes phlebitis and IM causes pain due to the irritating effect.
  • Tetracyclines are deposited in the dentin of teeth of the fetus when given to pregnant women or children under age 8, resulting in hypoplasia and brown discoloration of the tooth
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4
Q

What drugs interact w/ tetracyclines?

A
  • Antacids, iron or calcium supplements, and magnesium laxatives (di- and tri-valent cations) interfere with the absorption of all tetracyclines. Food decreases absorption of all except minocycline and doxycycline
  • Cholestyramine or colestipol decrease absorption (and blood level) of all tetracyclines.
  • Oral estrogen-containing contraceptives may have reduced contraceptive reliability during tetracycline use. (Interaction is questioned).
  • Enzyme inducers (phenobarbital, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and rifampin): shorten the half- life of doxycycline from a normal time of 16-17 hours to 10 hours.
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5
Q

What type of drug is Vancomycin and what is its MOA?

A

Type: Glycopeptide

MOA: Vancomycin acts by inhibiting synthesis of cell walls of sensitive bacteria (gram-positive cocci), at a location different than the action of the beta-lactams.

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6
Q

What are the s/x of Vancomycin?

A
  • skin rash
  • chills and fever called “red man (or red neck) syndrome”
    • Red man syndrome occurs if the drug is infused too rapidly
  • hypotension
  • phlebitis
  • ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
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7
Q

What are the Alternatives to vancomycin in the treatment of MRSA?

A

linezolid (DOC), quinupristin/dalfopristin, daptomycin, rifampin, gentamicin, trimethoprim and doxycycline

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8
Q

What type of drug is Gentamicin and what is its moa?

A

Type: Aminoglycoside

MOA: They water-soluble drugs and are rapidly bactericidal for aerobic gram-negative bacteria by virtue of their ability to inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 30S subunits of bacterial ribosomes & they also dissolve the cell envelope.

Because gentamicin is less costly and as efficacious as tobramycin and amikacin, gentamicin is the preferred aminoglycoside for most indications

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9
Q

What are the indications for using Aminoglycosides?

A
  • Treatment of sepsis due to aerobic gram-negative enteric bacteria
  • Treating infections by Ps aeruginosa, E coli, Kl pneumonia, Serratia marcescens, and Proteus organisms
  • They are effective against gram-positive cocci but must be used in combination with a cell wall-active agent
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10
Q

With what frequency have aminoglycosides been administered?

A
  • Aminoglycosides traditionally have been administered q8h
  • Several studies advocate once daily dosing with the same daily dose as when given in divided doses.
  • Once daily dosing in patients with good renal function is claimed to be less nephrotoxic and possibly more efficacious
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11
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with Aminoglycosides?

A
  • Ototoxicity - manifests as vestibular (N/V, vertigo, disruption of balance) or auditory (impairment of hearing dysfunction) or both and is a result of the accumulation of aminoglycoside (plasma concentration) in the perilymph of the inner ear
  • Nephrotoxicity - Aminoglycosides are the major nephrotoxic cause of acute tubular necrosis. They accumulate in the renal cortex & the incidence of nephrotoxicity depends on the specific drug, duration of treatment, total dose, & predisposing factors (advanced age; preexisting renal disease, concomitant administration of other nephrotoxic substances, and hypotension.).
  • Skeletal muscle weakness
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12
Q

What are some drugs that interact with aminoglycosides?

A
  • Amphotericin B, loop diuretics, cisplatin, cyclosporine or vancomycin may result in increased ototoxicity and/or nephrotoxicity.
  • Halogenated hydrocarbon anesthetics, citrated blood, & neuromuscular blocking agents may enhance or prolong skeletal muscle weakness.
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13
Q

What type of drug is Amphotericin B and what is its MOA?

A

Type: Antifungal

MOA: Antifungal activity depends on the ability of the drug to bind to a sterol moiety (ergosterol), causing pores to form in the cell membrane, increasing permeability, and allowing leakage of small molecules. Once a clinical response has been elicited, therapy can be continued with maintenance therapy with an oral azole.

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14
Q

What are the indications for using Amphotericin B?

A
  • It is administered IV as a colloid for systemic effect (do NOT use an in-line filter)
  • It is used in the treatment of serious systemic fungal infections such as cryptococcal, histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, blastomycosis, sporotrichosis, and disseminated candidiasis.
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15
Q

What are the s/x of Amphotericin B?

A
  • Adverse effects are common and some serious (“Amphoterrible”). 80% of patients suffer impaired renal function
  • Infusion-related reactions are nearly universal and consist of fever, chills (fever & chills 50% “shake & bake”), muscle spasms, vomiting, headache, and hypotension
  • To decrease severe side effects, give aspirin, acetaminophen, antihistamines, and antiemetics before infusion. Small doses of IV corticosteroids before infusion may decrease febrile reactions
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16
Q

What are the benefits of using Liposomal amphotericin [AmBisome] vs amphotericin B?

A
  • It is approved for the treatment of aspergillosis or any progressive fungus infection that does not respond to conventional therapy.
  • The liposomal formulation delivers a much higher dose of amphotericin with reduced liver toxicity
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17
Q

What type of drug is metronidazole and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Antiprotozoal
  • MOA: Metronidazole’s mechanism of action is unclear. It has a selective toxicity to anaerobic or microaerophilic microorganisms, probably forming chemically reactive intermediates that involve reactions with DNA, proteins, and membranes.
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18
Q

What are the indications for using metronidazole?

A
  • It is effective against Trichomonas vaginalis, Entameba histolytic and Giardia lamblia
  • It also displays antibacterial activity against all anaerobic cocci and most anaerobic gram-negative bacilli including Bacteroides and anaerobic spore-forming gram-positive bacilli.
  • It is the drug of choice for treating mild to moderate Clostridium difficile infection (pseudomembranous colitis)
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19
Q

What are the s/x of using metronidazole?

A
  • Side effects are rarely serious.
  • Most common are headache (18%), nausea (10%), dry mouth, metallic taste (9%) & vaginitis (15%), GI irritation may be lessened by taking the drug with meals.
  • Neurotoxic effects (dizziness, vertigo, convulsions) are rare as is hepatitis
  • Metronidazole is a weak enzyme inhibitor and may increase serum levels of phenytoin, warfarin and lithium.
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20
Q

What type of drug is Rifampin and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Broad spectrum antibiotic
  • MOA: It inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase of mycobacterium, leading to suppression of chain formation and ribonucleic acid synthesis in bacteria. Resistance develops quickly if rifampin is used alone, and there is cross-resistance with other rifamycins. Rifampin is bactericidal to M. tuberculosis, atypical mycobacteria & M. leprae
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21
Q

What are the indications for using Rifampin?

A
  • Used in the treatment of TB & Prophylaxis against meningococcal disease in household contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis
  • Unlabeled uses include infections that have failed to respond to other antibiotics and treatment of leprosy.
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22
Q

What are the s/x of Rifampin?

A

Most common (less than 4%) side effects are rash (0.8%), fever (0.5%), and nausea & vomiting (1.5%). Rare are thrombocytopenia, anemia, hepatic dysfunction, and hepatorenal syndrome, the latter when the drug is used sporadically or less than twice weekly

Rifampin imparts a harmless orange color to urine, sweat, tears, and soft contact lenses.

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23
Q

What are some drug interactions with rifampin?

A

The rifamycins are potent enzyme inducers (1A2, 2C9, 3A4) and importantly decrease the serum level and effectiveness of a number of drugs including warfarin, methadone, glucocorticoids, estrogens, cyclosporine, beta blockers, sulfonylureas, disopyramide, quinidine, ketoconazole, methadone, theophylline and others.

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24
Q

What type of drug is Isoniazid and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: tuberculostatic (for resting organisms) and tuberculocidal
  • MOA: It inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids, important constituents of the mycobacterial cell wall.
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25
Q

What are the s/x of Isoniazid?

A
  • Peripheral neuropathy can be minimized by prophylactic therapy with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) 25-50 mg/day. (Peripheral neuropathy results from isoniazid-induced deficiency of pyridoxine.)
  • Liver damage has occurred (2nd leading cause of liver transplants)
  • Most prominent reactions are rash (2%), fever (1.2%), jaundice (0.6%) and peripheral neuritis
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26
Q

What type of drug is interferon and what is its moa?

A

Type: Glycoproteins / Antivirals

MOA: interferons are glycoproteins produced by cells infected with viruses. Interferons bind to specific receptors and inhibit cell proliferation

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27
Q

What are the indications for using interferons?

A
  • Interferons have been administered in Europe as a nasal spray for rhinovirus infections.
  • In the US two alpha interferons are marketed for treatment of hairy cell leukemias but they are also useful in treatment of hepatitis, particularly non-A, non-B hepatitis (basically hepatitis C)
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28
Q

What are the s/x of using interferons?

A

The major side effects are nausea and fatigue. A flu-like syndrome with headache, fevers, chills, myalgia, and malaise is common (occurs within 6 hours after dosing in more than 30% of patients

29
Q

What type of drug is Zidovudine (Retrovir) and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitor
  • MOA: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) are incorporated into viral DNA as a false nucleoside. This results in proviral DNA chain termination and blocking further viral replication.
30
Q

What are the indications for using Zidovudine (Retrovir)?

A
  • Zidovudine is used in the treatment of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome or syndrome-related complex.
  • It is possibly virustatic.
  • It is the drug of choice for preventing mother-to-infant HIV transmission during labor and delivery.
31
Q

What are the s/x of using Zidovudine (Retrovir)?

A
  • The most frequent serious side effects are neutropenia and anemia (Black box warning). Other black box effects are hematologic toxicity, symptomatic myopathy, lactic acidosis, and severe hepatomegaly.
    • most commonly occurs after 4-6 weeks of therapy
  • Other adverse effects include fever, chills, sore throat, pale skin, unusual bleeding or unusual tiredness.
  • Side effects that are common but less serious are changes in taste, diarrhea, dizziness, headache, loss of appetite, nausea, and skin rash.
32
Q

What type of drug is Mebendazole and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Anthelmintics
  • MOA: It prevents glucose uptake by susceptible worms. ​
33
Q

What is the indication for using Mebendazole?

A

It is probably the most commonly used anthelmintic in the US because of the small dose (often only one or three days) and its wide spectrum of activity (indicated for the treatment of whipworm, pinworm, roundworm and hookworm)

34
Q

What are the s/x of using Mebendazole?

A
  • Side effects are transient abdominal pain and diarrhea.
  • Although it is poorly absorbed (<10%), it is teratogenic in animals and should not be given to pregnant women.
35
Q

What type of drug is Terbinafine and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Antifungal
  • MOA: It blocks the biosynthesis of ergosterol, an essential component of fungal cell membranes.
36
Q

What are the indications for using Terbinafine?

A

Terbinafine is indicated orally for the treatment of onychomycosis of the toenail or fingernails and tinea capitis (hair)

37
Q

What are the s/x of using Terbinafine?

A
  • Adverse effects occurring more frequently than with a placebo include rash, pruritus, urticaria, diarrhea, dyspepsia, abdominal pain, headache, and taste disturbances.
  • Topically there may be burning, itching, and dryness.
  • Black box warning of rare cases of hepatic failure, which may occur in patients with or without existing liver disease. Pretreatment serum transaminase (ALT and AST) tests are advised for all patients before taking terbinafine.
38
Q

What type of drug is Ketoconazole and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Antifungal
  • MOA: Ketoconazole (and other imidazoles) seems to block synthesis of the fungal wall and alter membrane permeability of the fungal cell wall.​
39
Q

What are the indications for using Ketoconazole?

A
  • ketoconazole was found to be effective against histoplasmosis of the bone and soft tissue. Oral doses have also been found useful against nonmeningeal (does not cross the BBB) cryptococcal disease as well as paracoccidiomycosis, blastomycosis, candida species (of the mouth & vagina), and other
  • It is indicated for treatment of systemic infections, systemic candidiasis, mucocutaneous candidiasis, oral thrush, blastomycosis, and recalcitrant cutaneous dermatophyte infections not responding to oral griseofulvin
40
Q

What are the drug interactions with Ketoconazole?

A
  • The effectiveness of ketoconazole (and itraconazole) is decreased by antacids, H2 antagonists, and proton pump inhibitors (effect on gastric acid), as well as isoniazid, and rifampin.
  • Ketoconazole and, to a lesser extent, the other -azoles are enzyme inhibitors (especially CYP3A4 and possibly others) and increase the blood levels of warfarin, corticosteroids, cyclosporine, theophylline, and many other drugs.
41
Q

What are the s/x of Ketoconazole?

A
  1. (oral): Nausea & vomiting are most common; these are decreased if the drug is given with food.
  2. Other side effects are anorexia, headache, GI pain, and thrombocytopenia. Very rarely, high doses (such as those used in the treatment of prostatic cancer) cause hepatotoxicity;
  3. ketoconazole has a black box warning of hepatic toxicity including death
  4. Unlike the other azoles, ketoconazole inhibits gonadal and adrenal steroid synthesis and causes gynecomastia, decreased libido, impotence and menstrual irregularities.
42
Q

What type of drug is Co-Trimoxazole (Bactrim) and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Sulfonamide
  • MOA: It binds to the bacterial enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, blocking the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to its functional form, tetrahydrofolic acid.
43
Q

What are the indications for using Co-Trimoxazole (Bactrim)?

A
  • Co-Trimoxazole is probably the most effective agent for both primary and secondary Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) pneumonia (PCP) but poses a risk in pregnancy
  • Shigella enteritis, systemic Salmonella infection, complicated urinary tract infections (a DOC), prostatitis, and other infections.
  • Found to be as or more effective than vancomycin in the treatment of community-acquired MRSA
44
Q

What are the s/x associated with Co-Trimoxazole (Bactrim)?

A
  • The most common adverse effects are nausea, vomiting, and rash.
  • Because of the risk of kernicterus, sulfonamides should not be administered to infants under the age of 2 months.
  • The sulfonamide component, by enzyme inhibition, may intensify the effects of warfarin, phenytoin, and sulfonylurea hypoglycemics.
  • TMP/SMZ can cause hyperkalemia and may increase the risk of hyperkalemia in patients receiving ACE inhibitors or ARBs.​
45
Q

What are the s/x associated with Sulfonamides?

A
  • Allergic reactions may range from skin rash to anaphylaxis to Stevens Johnson syndrome. Drug fever is common with prolonged therapy. They are said to be cross-allergenic with thiazide and loop diuretics and sulfonylurea hypoglycemics.
  • GI upset is common (NVD).
  • Other effects reported include photosensitivity, blood dyscrasias, hepatitis, dizziness, and headache.
  • The drugs should be taken with a full glass of water because of the potential for crystalluria
46
Q

What type of drug is Levofloxacin and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: 2nd generation fluoroquinolone​
  • MOA: It is believed these agents inhibit the A subunit of DNA gyrase, an enzyme essential for ATP-dependent coiling and supercoiling of bacterial DNA. In the absence of supercoiling, DNA replication cannot take place​
47
Q

What are the indications for using Levofloxacin?

A
  • It is approved for short course therapy (once daily x 3 d) for uncomplicated urinary tract infections.
  • Some studies showed it to be effective in the treatment of tuberculosis.
  • Levofloxacin (and moxifloxacin) are more active than ciprofloxacin against gram-positive organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae.
48
Q

What are the s/x of using levofloxacin?

A
  • Dizziness, headache, lightheadedness, unpleasant taste, and GI upset (NVD) are common.
  • fluoroquinolones may cause hypoglycemia
  • Pregnancy category C
  • Rarer are CNS stimulation effects (ranging from insomnia to seizures), crystalluria, hypersensitivity reactions, convulsions, joint pain, photosensitivity, visual disturbances and peripheral neuropathy.
  • black box warning: “Increased risk of tendonitis and tendon rupture with all fluoroquinolone antibiotics.
    • frequently involves the Achilles tendon but tendons in the rotator cuff, hand, biceps, and thumb have also been involved
  • black box warning that the fluoroquinolones may exacerbate muscle weakness in persons with myasthenia gravis.
49
Q

What are the drug interactions with levofloxacin?

A
  • Don’t take levofloxacin with calcium-fortified orange juice or cereal with milk (decreased the bioavailability of levofloxacin)
  • fluoroquinolones increase the INR in patients taking warfarin
  • Can cause positive opiate results in urinary assays.
50
Q

What is the preferred fluoroquinolone for hospital-acquired infections & what is the preferred fluoroquinolone for community-acquired infections?

A
  • Ciprofloxacin is the preferred agent for hospital-acquired infection because it has the best activity against Ps. aeruginosa.
  • Levofloxacin is preferred for community-acquired infections because of their greater activity against S. pneumoniae.
51
Q

What drug interactions are associated with fluoroquinolones?

A
  • antacids containing aluminum, magnesium, iron, and to a less extent, calcium, iron and zinc (found in multivitamin/mineral supplements) markedly reduce absorption of all fluoroquinolones
  • Ciprofloxacin reduces hepatic clearance of theophylline by competitive inhibition of cytochrome P-450
  • (moxifloxacin) prolongs the QTc interval and increase the risk of torsades de pointes if used with other drugs (e.g., antiarrhythmics) that also prolong the QT interval.
52
Q

What type of drug is Linezolid (Zyvox) and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Oxazolidinoe
  • MOA: It binds to a unique site on bacterial 50S ribosomal RNA and is either bacteriostatic or bactericidal, depending on the organism. ​
53
Q

What are the indications for using Linezolid (Zyvox)?

A
  • Indicated for the treatment of adult patients with infections caused by primarily aerobic gram-positive bacteria, vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium infections, nosocomial or community-acquired pneumonia caused by Staph aureus (including methicillin-resistant strains) or Strep pneumoniae, complicated or uncomplicated skin infections.
  • Linezolid is more effective against MRSA than the other agents that are alternatives to vancomycin. It has no clinical activity against gram-negative pathogens.
54
Q

What are some drug interactions associated with Linezolid (Zyvox)?​

A
  • It is primarily metabolized to inactive metabolites but does not affect the various P450 isoenzymes.
  • However, the drug is a MAO inhibitor. Practitioners should be aware of the many interactions of the MAO inhibitors and patients should be advised to avoid foods or beverages with high tyramine content.
  • Patients taking SSRIs should not receive linezolid.
55
Q

What are the s/x associated with Linezolid (Zyvox)?​

A
  • Myelosuppression
    • The manufacturer recommends CBCs performed weekly because of its potential to cause bone marrow toxicity (anemia, leukopenia, pancytopenia & thrombocytopenia)
  • The most common adverse events were diarrhea, headache, and nausea
56
Q

What type of drug is Clindamycin and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: Lincosamide
  • MOA: It binds to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes and suppresses protein synthesis.
57
Q

What are the indications for using Clindamycin?

A
  • It is used for the treatment of infections caused by anaerobic bacteria
  • Clindamycin is listed as a DOC for treating paronychia and is a 1st line drug for treating anaerobic infections.
  • The combination of clindamycin and gentamicin has become the standard of care in treating mixed aerobic and anaerobic infections.
58
Q

What are the s/x associated with Clindamycin?

A
  • Black box warning for causing pseudomembranous colitis, caused by overgrowth of Clostridium difficile
  • Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and skin rashes are other sides effects

This drug should be taken w/ a full glass of water

59
Q

What type of drug is Ceftriaxone?

A

It is a 3rd generation cefalosproin

60
Q

What are the indications for using Ceftriaxone?

A
  • It is the CDC recommended treatment for Gonococcus Gm (-) diplococcus combined with doxycycline 100 mg bid x 7d or azithromycin 1 g po once for coexisting Chlamydia
  • 1st line drug for otitis media and pneumonia
  • 1st line drug for pharyngitis and sinusitis
61
Q

What are the indications for using 3rd generation cephalosporins?

A

Third generation cephalosporins have a high degree of stability in the presence of beta-lactamases and excellent activity against a wider spectrum of aerobic gram-negative bacteria including most Enterobacteriaceae and some strains of Ps. aeruginosa but are generally less active and less reliable than 1st generation against gram-positive organisms.

62
Q

What type of drug is Cefepime and what is its indication?

A
  • Type: 4th Generation Cephalosporin
  • It is more active against Gram (+) aerobes than 2nd & 3rd generation agents. It is stable to hydrolysis by many beta-lactamases and is a poor inducer of 1-β-lactamase
    *
63
Q

What are the s/x associated with cefalosprins?

A
  • Allergy to cephalosporins is the most common adverse response.
  • Although there is potential cross-sensitivity with the penicillins, it appears to occur only in 5-20% of patients allergic to penicillin
  • Pseudomembranous colitis (manifested by abdominal cramps, bloating, diarrhea, fever, thirst, NV, and tiredness) may occur with these agents, usually caused by overgrowth of Clostridium difficile
64
Q

What type of drug is Meropenem and what is its MOA?

A
  • Type: carbapenems
  • MOA: the carbapenems bind to penicillin binding proteins on the cell wall and interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis, however, they are resistant to hydrolysis by most beta-lactamases.
65
Q

What are the indications for using Meropenem?

A
  • They have excellent activity against aerobic gram-positive organisms (including staphylococci), gram-negative organisms (such as Enterobacteriaceae & Ps. aeruginosa), and most gram-negative anaerobic organisms.
  • Thus they are used as single agents in treating polymicrobial infections.
66
Q

What is an adverse effect associated with Meropenem?

A
  • S/X: diarrhea, nausea/vomiting, headache, rash, pruritus, apnea & constipation.
  • Neurotoxicity, characterized by seizure activity, is a well-known adverse effect of the carbapenems.
    *
67
Q

What are the indications for using Azithromycin?

A
  • DOC in pneumonia & pharyngitis
  • It is a 1st line drug for the treatment of Gonorrhea and Chlamydia
  • It is also recommended for prophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis and prevention or treatment of traveler’s diarrhea
68
Q

What are some s/x associated with Azithromycin?

A
  • The most common side effects of azithromycin are diarrhea, nausea, and abdominal pain. In contrast to erythromycin and clarithromycin, azithromycin does not inhibit the metabolism of other drugs.
  • Azithromycin might increase the risk of cardiovascular death
    • It may prolong the QT interval