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YEAR 3 MED > Module 3D ENT - Lectures > Flashcards

Module 3D ENT - Lectures Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by amplitude and frequency?

A
  • Amplitude (difference between the denser and less dense areas of air molecules) = loudness
  • Frequency = the number of waves that pass in one second
    –> 1 wave per second = 1 Hertz (Hz)
    –> The greater the frequency, the higher the pitch.
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2
Q

What is sound measured in?

A

decibels (dB)

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3
Q

Ear anatomy

A
  • The pinna is the outer fleshy part of the ear
  • Sound waves travel down into the auditory canal until they reach the tympanic membrane
  • The tympanic membrane moves in relation to the sound waves hitting it –> this moves the 3 bones within the middle ear –> which in turn moves the oval window which is attached to the cochlear
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4
Q

Middle ear anatomy
- what are the 3 bone structures called
- what holds these bone structures in place?

A
  • The 3 bone structures within the middle ear are called the malleus, incus, and stapes –> held in place by the stabilising ligaments and two muscles (stapedius muscle and tensor tympani muscle)
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5
Q

Do the bones of the middle ear amplify the sound or the force against the oval window + why is this beneficial?

A
  • The bones of the inner ear do no amplify the volume of the sound, they amplify the force
  • There is a fluid-filled structure within the cochlear which requires more force as it is fluid not air
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6
Q

What is impedance matching in regards to the middle ear and sound?

A

Impedance matching allows vibration of the fluid in the inner ear –> sound can be transmitted directly to the cochlear through bone

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7
Q

What is the attenuation reflex in regards to sound and the middle ear?

A
  • this describes the action of the two muscles (stapedius muscle and tensor tympani muscle) in response to a very loud sound
  • the muscles help to stabilise the bone structures and in turn protects the cochlear from the loud sound
  • it also acts to mask low frequency sounds in loud environments –> reducing background noise making speech easier to hear in noisy enivronments
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8
Q

Describe the travel of sound waves from initial entry to the round window
+ what is the round window?

A
  • The sound waves pass through the aduitory canal, through the middle ear, and through to the cochlear
  • They hit the oval window (where the stapes are) –> the waves then pass along through fluid called perilymph which goes all around the cochlear (over the top of the Organ of Corti) to the round window
  • The round window is a membranous structure at the other end of the cochlear and basically just allows for the transmission of waves
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9
Q

Where does all of the ‘actual hearing’ take place within the ear + where are low/high frequency sounds heard

A
  • The Organ of Corti
  • High frequency sounds –> heard at the base
  • Low frequency sounds –> heard near the helicotrema
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10
Q

Organ of Corti
- where does it sit
- what does it do in response to vibrations

A
  • Organ of Corti sits in the middle of these two fluid-filled areas –> gets vibrated as the waves pass either side
  • Genereates a nerve impulse in response to vibration of the basilar membrane
  • Contains specialised cells called inner and outer hair cells
  • Synapses with the spiral ganglion of Corti and then the cochlear nerve
    .
  • Perilymph –> Na+ rich
  • Endolymph –> K+ rich
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11
Q

What happens when the oval window is pushed in

A
  • Pushing in of the oval window pushes perilymph into the scala vestibule
  • The pressure change travels along the scala vestibule, through the helicotrema along the scala tympani and causes movement at the round window
  • Causes non-rigid structures within the cochlear to move –> the basilar membrane moves
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12
Q

Organ of Corti - hair cells
- why are outer hair cells important

A
  • The hair cells (inner and outer) are the structures that actually detect the movement of the basilar membrane
  • Movement of the basilar membrane relative to the tectorial membrane –> results in displacement of the hair cells
  • Inner hair cells are not attached to the tectorial membrane
  • Outer hair cells are important for the amplification of sound
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13
Q

What ion is involved in depolarisation of inner ear hair cells?

A

Hair cells depolarise with K+, unlike nerve cells

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14
Q

Which inner ear hair cell type innervates the majority of spiral ganglion cells?

A

Inner hair cell

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15
Q

Outer hair cells are responsible for the amplification of sound –> what is the name of the protein which contracts and elongates to amplify sensitivity to sound waves?

A

Prestin

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16
Q

Auditory pathway –> which cranial nerve is involved?

A

Cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve)

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17
Q

Primary auditory cortex

A
  • Primary auditory cortex is like a ‘piano’ –> damage to a part of it can knock out that frequency of sound
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18
Q

The Organ of Corti –> YouTube video

A

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bwCz3Q8y-PM

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19
Q

The vestibular system –> what is it?

A
  • The vestibular system provides information on the spatial orientation and movement of the head and plays an essential role in regulating movement of the trunk and limbs as well as the maintenance of body posture
  • In addition, afferent discharges from the vestibular organs influence reflex centres responsible for maintenance of a stable retinal image by controlling neck muscles and extraocular eye muscles
  • Rotary movement of the head is detected by hair cells in the semicircular canals, while linear acceleration and the direction of gravity are detected by hair cells in the otolith organs
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20
Q

Inner ear anatomy

A
  • In addition to the cochlear, there is the Otolith organs and the semicircular canals
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21
Q

What is Meniere’s disease?

A
  • A transient condition that can last up to 3hrs
  • Symptoms –> dizzy, unsteady, nauseous, ringing in ears, and a drop in hearing
  • thought to be due to excessive secretion of endolymph with acute swelling in vestibular and cochlear duct –> self-limiting may be due to minor rupture relieving pressure
  • Treatment –> betahistine, diuretics, corticosteroids, surgery
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22
Q

Inner ear –> Otolith organs

A
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23
Q

Inner ear –> semicircular canals

A
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24
Q

Vestibular nervous pathway

A
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25
Q

Vestibular-ocular reflex

A
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26
Q

The vestibular system endolymph motion –> YouTube video

A

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dSHnGO9qGsE

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27
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A
  • Manoeuvre to diagnose (Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre) –> pt sat on bed, head tilted 45 degrees laterally and eyes facing you for 30 secs, then lower the patient horizontally flat keeping head in 45-degree position –> if pt has nystagmus then +ve test
    (perform on both sides)
    (video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8RYB2QlO1N4 )
    .
  • Common disorder of the inner ear
  • Typically lasts a few seconds to a few minutes
  • Thought to be caused by displaced otoconia
  • Can be detected using the Dix-Hallpike maneuver
  • Head tilting and rotating can reposition otoconia (Epley maneuver)
  • Acute severe BPPV can be treated with antivertigo medication
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28
Q

Nystagmus

A
  • Rhythmical, repetitive and involuntary movement of the eyes
  • Multiple causes, congenital and acquired
  • Semi-circular canals are stimulated while the head is not in motion
  • Can be associated with vertigo
    .
    Video: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9LsHp-tgx8w
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29
Q

What is an audiogram?

A

An audiogram measured by an audiologist using an audiometer converts measured thresholds from absolute sound pressure level to a hearing threshold level relative to the normative population, thereby allowing direct reading of the loss in hearing sensitivity at each frequency relative to the normal population

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30
Q

Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory system –> YouTube video

A

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=A2Ee9VrDHh4

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31
Q

Which of the following best describes the middle ear ossicle attached to the tympanic membrane?

  • Incus
  • Malleus
  • Stapes
A

Malleus

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32
Q

The cochlea’s 3 chambers are the scala vestibuli, scala media, and scala tympani. The scala vestibuli and scala tympani are filled with _____________ (similar to _____________ fluid).

  • Endolymph (similar to intracellular fluid)
  • Perilymph (similar to cerebrospinal fluid)
A

Perilymph (similar to cerebrospinal fluid)

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33
Q

Low-frequency sound causes which portion of the basilar membrane to vibrate to the greatest extent?

  • Near oval window
  • Middle portion
  • Along entire length
  • Near helicotrema
A

Near helicotrema

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34
Q

The otolith organs (utricle and saccule) are primarily involved in detecting which type of movement?

  • Rotational movements
  • Linear acceleration
  • Sound waves
A

Linear acceleration

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35
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves is involved in transmitting sensory information from the vestibular system to the brain?

  • Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor nerve)
  • Cranial nerve IV (Trochlear nerve)
  • Cranial nerve VI (Abducens nerve)
  • Cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve)
A

Cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve)

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36
Q

Carotid sheath –> Axial view

A
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37
Q

Vagus nerve

A
  • vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve –> provides motor supply to the muscles of swallow and speech
  • also supplies parasympathetic fibres to all organs except the adrenal glands
  • also supplies sensory fibres to the ear, throat, heart, lungs, abdomen, and taste
  • one of the main branches is the recurrent laryngeal nerve which supplies all the muscles of the larynx
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38
Q

Facial nerve

A
  • Facial nerve (7th cranial nerve) –> supplies all the muscles of facial expression
  • 5 terminal branches –> temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch, and the cervical branch
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39
Q

Phrenic nerve?

A
  • at risk during neck surgery
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40
Q

Accessory nerve

A
  • 11th cranial nerve
  • motor supply to sternocleidomasteoid and trapezius
  • at risk during lymph node excision or neck dissection
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41
Q

Hypoglossal nerve

A
  • 12th cranial nerve
  • motor supply for all ipsilateral muscles of the tongue (except the palatoglossus muscle)
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42
Q

Cervical sympathetic trunk

A
  • paired nerve bundle from skull to coccyx
  • in neck embedded in posterior wall carotid sheath on prevertebral fascia
  • 3 ganglia –> Superior (C2, C3), Middle (C6), and Inferior (1st rib)
  • Injury can cause Horner’s syndrome –> ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis
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43
Q

Thyroid –> arterial blood supply (2) + veins (3)

A

Arterial supply:
- superior thyroid artery (branch of external carotid artery)
- inferior thyroid artery (branch of thryocervical trunk)
.
Veins:
- Superior thyroid vein
- Middle thyroid vein
- Inferior thyroid vein

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44
Q

History for neck lump

A
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45
Q

Examination of neck lump

A
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46
Q

Thyroid examination video

A

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=exGgjm55Stw

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47
Q

Why give a glass of water for the pt to swallow during a thyroid examination?

A
  • a thyroid swelling will move up and down on swallowing because the thyroid gland is attached posteriorly to the cricoid and thyroid cartilages by a layer of pre-tracheal fascia called Berry’s ligament
    (Note: lymph nodes do not move on swallowing)
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48
Q

Thyroglossal cyst

A
  • most common congenital cyst in neck
  • moves up and down on swallowing and tongue protrusion
  • can be managed conservatively
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49
Q

Brachial cyst

A
  • typically present with swelling arising deep to upper 1/3 of SCM
  • may be infected at initial presentation with erythema/pain/temp.
  • Investigate with USS fine needle aspiration and MRI to exclude a deep tract/sinus
  • treatment with surgery as they may become recurrently infected
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50
Q

Carotid body tumour (paraganglioma)

A
  • rare
  • pulsatille lateral neck swelling at bifurcation of common carotid artery (possible bruit on auscultation)
  • typically benign but some are malignant with metastases
  • treatment with surgery or radiotherapy
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51
Q

Lyre’s sign

A
  • splaying of the external and internal and external carotid arteries
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52
Q

Schwannomas

A
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53
Q

Salivary gland tumours

A
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54
Q

Recurrent salivary gland swellings

A
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55
Q

Parotid gland swelling

A

80% of tumours are within parotid gland

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56
Q

Alarming symptoms of a neck/facial lump suggesting malignancy

A
  • Painful mass
  • Rapidly increasing mass
  • VII nerve weakness
  • Lymph nodes
  • Paraesthesia
  • Trismus
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57
Q

Parotid SCC

A
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58
Q

Bilateral parotid swelling

A
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59
Q

Thyroid lumps

A
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60
Q

Aetiology of thyroid lumps

A
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61
Q

Alarm bells for thyroid cancer

A
  • Family hx of thyroid cancer
  • Hx of exposure to radiaiton
  • <20 yrs or >70 yrs
  • Male
  • Lymph nodes palpable
  • Vocal cord palsy
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62
Q

Investigations for thyroid nodules

A
  • TFTs
  • Thyroid USS +/- FNA (fine needle aspiration)
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63
Q

When to treat thyroid nodules

A
  • C –> Cosmesis
  • C –> Compression
  • C –> Cancer
  • C –> fear of ‘Cancer’
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64
Q

Sebaceous cyst

A
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65
Q

Lipoma

A
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66
Q

Lymphangioma

A
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67
Q

Main investigation for lymph nodes

A

USS FNA
- if lymphoma suspected –> USS core biopsy will diagnose and subtype

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68
Q

Reactive lymph nodes

A
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69
Q

lymph node abscess

A
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70
Q

Lymph node –> Atypical mycobacteria

A
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71
Q

TB neck

A
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72
Q

Other infected lymph node causes

A
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73
Q

Neck lumps –> Sarcoidosis

A
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74
Q

How many cranial nerves are there + functions

A

12 paired cranial nerves (PNS)
- Sensory (general or special)
- Motor
- Parasympathetic

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75
Q

12 cranial nerves names

A
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76
Q

How do lesions affecting cranial nerves (CN) present?

A

Most of the time will present with ipsilateral effects –> some may present with contralateral however
- generally cranial nerves do not decussate (cross-over)

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77
Q

What type of nerve fibres carry motor information from the CNS?

A
  • efferent fibres
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78
Q

What type of nerve fibres carry sensory information from the internal and external environment (general and special senses)?

A
  • afferent fibres
  • General senses –> pain, pressure, touch, temperature, proprioception
  • Special senses –> all carried in cranial nerves –> olfaction, vision, taste and hearing. and vestibular function
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79
Q

Cranial nerves can be organised on the basis of the functional components of each nerve:
1) General Somatic Afferent (GSA)
2) General Visceral Afferent (GVA)
3) General Visceral Efferent (GVE)
4) General Somatic Efferent (GSE)

A
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80
Q

All modalities of conscious sensation pass through a sequence of ______ neurones from peripheral receptor via the _______ to perception of sensation in the cerebral _______.
Except _____ projections which only consists of ___ neurones between receptor and cerebral cortex and does not primarily project via the _____.

A

All modalities of conscious sensation pass through a sequence of three neurones from peripheral receptor via the thalamus to perception of sensation in the cerebral cortex.
Except olfactory projections which only consists of two neurones between receptor and cerebral cortex and does not primarily project via the thalamus.

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81
Q

Parasympathetic and sympathetic efferent fibres pass through a sequence of _____ neurones between CNS and innervated structure.

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic efferent fibres pass through a sequence of two neurones between CNS and innervated structure.

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82
Q

Where are cell bodies of first order neurone (preganglionic neurone) located?

A

brain or brainstem

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83
Q

Where are cell bodies of the second order neurone (postganglionic neurone) located?

A

in the periphery in an autonomic ganglion

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84
Q

What does the brainstem consist of?

A
  • Mid-brain
  • Ponjs
  • Medulla Oblongata
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85
Q

Where do CN exit brainstem?

A
  • CN III, IV –> Mid-brain
  • CN V –> Pons
  • CN VI, VII, VIII –> Ponto-medullary junction
  • CN IX, X, XI (Cranial part), XII –> Medulla Oblongata
  • CN XI (spinal part) –> C1 - 5
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86
Q

Which cranial nerves are from nuclei components of the forebrain and which are from cranial nerve nuclei in the brainstem?

A
  • CN I and II are from nuclei components of the forebrain
  • CN III-XII are from cranial nerve nuclei in the brainstem
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87
Q

Functions of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata

A
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88
Q

Are sensory nerve nuclei usually located medially or laterally in the brainstem?

A

Laterally
- motor nuclei tend to be located more medially

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89
Q

Olfactory Nerve (CN I) –> function

A

Purely sensory – olfaction (smell)

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90
Q

What muscle does the trochlear nerve (CN IV) innervate?

A

Superior oblique muscle

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91
Q

What muscle does the abducens nerve (CN VI) innervate)?

A

Lateral rectus muscle

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92
Q

What are the 3 sensory divisions of the trigeminal nerve + which division do motor fibres only travel in?

A
  • Ophthalmic
  • Maxillary
  • Mandibular –> motor fibres travel in the mandibular divison only
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93
Q

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (VIII) –> function

A
  • Vestibular –> carries info regarding position and movement of head
  • Cochlear –> carries auditory info
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94
Q

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX) –> what sensory area is supplied + which muscle is innervated by the motor component?

A
  • Taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue
  • Motor component arises from nucleus ambiguous –> innervates one muscle –> stylopharyngeus
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95
Q

Are the Accessory nerve (CN XI) and Hypoglossal nerve (XII) purely sensory or purely motor?

A

Purely motor

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96
Q

Motor functions of cranial nerves

A
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97
Q

Sensory functions of cranial nerves

A
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98
Q
A

Extradural haematoma
- ‘lemon-shaped’, more localised than subdural haematoma
- located between skull vault and dural layer

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99
Q
A

Subdural haematoma
- ‘banana shape’

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100
Q
A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

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101
Q

How would an inflammatory neck swelling present and what is the main differential?

A
102
Q

Atypical mycobacteria neck –> presentation, how is it transmitted, treatment options

A
  • Symptoms –> painless, ‘cold abscess’, may be discharge
  • Transmitted oral route from soil
  • Initial treatment –> oral clarithromycin 6/52
  • Surgery –> nodal excision or curettage
103
Q

TB neck (aka. “scrofola”) –> presentation, at risk groups, investigations/diagnosis, treatment

A
  • collar stud abscess, lymphadenopathy, lungs may be affected
  • Risk groups –> immunocompromised (eg. HIV), developing countries (poverty)
  • Dx –> FNA-cytology (granulomas), acid-fast bacilli, culture (mycobacterium), lymph node excision biopsy, Mantoux test
  • Treatment (triple therapy) –> Rifampicin, Ethambutol, Isoniazid
104
Q

Lymph node malignancy –> primary vs secondary

A
  • Primary –> lymphoma (haem malignancy)
  • Secondary –> squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
105
Q

Investigations for a neck lump

A
  • USS fine needle aspiration –> non-lymphoma lymph node/thyroid/salivary gland swelling
  • USS core biopsy –> lymph nodes (suspected lymphoma diagnosis)
106
Q

Treatment options for head/neck cancer

A

MDT:
- Surgery
- Radiotherapy +/- chemotherapy –> chemo alone has no curative role

107
Q

Deep neck space infections –> what are we worried about, presentation, treatment principles

A
  • Potential airway compromise
  • External erythema and significant neck swelling may present late –> may present with torticollis +/- sepsis in child
  • Submandibular, retropharyngeal, parapharyngeal abscess
  • Treatment principles –> stabilise airway/monitor FIRST (before imaging too), incision and drainage of abscess, IV antibx, monitor bloods after (FBC, ESR, CRP), and low-threshold to rescan +/- return to theatre
108
Q

Ludwig’s angina –> what is it, most common aetiology, and treatment

A
  • life-threatening cellulitis of the soft tissue involving the floor of the mouth and neck –> the infection is rapidly progressive, leading to potential airway obstruction
  • Ludwig angina involves 3 compartments of the floor of the mouth: sublingual, submental, and submandibular
    .
  • Aetiology –> dental infection
    .
  • Treatment –> secure airway, IV antibx (broad-spectrum), surgical drainage is an option
    –> IV steroids and nebulised adrenaline can also improve facial and airway oedema and antibx penetration
109
Q

Audible breathing (aka. noisy breathing) is either referred to as stertor or stridor, what is meant by these terms?

A
  • Stertor = “noisy breathing caused by partial obstruction of the respiratory tract above the larynx”
  • Stridor = “noisy breathing caused by partial obstruction of the respiratory tract at or below the larynx”
    (Stridor and stertor are sounds (signs) of airway narrowing and cold be a sign of impending airway obstruction)
110
Q

What are some signs of impending airway obstruction?

A
  • noisy breathing –> stertor or stridor
  • increased resp. rate
  • increased use of muscles (accessory, interstitial)
  • tracheal tug
  • difficulty in talking
  • tachycardia
  • sweating
  • nasal flaring
  • reduced resp. rate
  • cyanosis, reduced GCS
  • cardiorespiratory arrest
111
Q

Management

A
  • “open curtains” –> do nothing
112
Q

Management

A
  • “closed curtains” –> consider intubation
113
Q
A
  • “wardrobe obstructing curtains” –> consider surgical airway
114
Q

Tracheostomy video

A

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=d_5eKkwnIRs

115
Q

Nasal structure –> split into 1/3’s

A
  • Upper 1/3 –> bony
  • Middle 1/3 –> upper lateral cartilage
  • Lower 1/3 –> lower lateral cartilage (alar cartilage)
116
Q

What are the turbinates within the nose made up of ?

A

Ciliated columnar epithelium

117
Q

What are the 4 sinuses within the nose?

A
  • Frontal
  • Maxillary
  • Anterior ethmoid
  • Posterior ethmoid and sphenoid –> sits at the back, affected the least
118
Q

Which arteries supply the nose?

A
  • Internal and external carotid arteries
    –> the carotid system anastamoses at ‘Little’s area’ –> this is where most nose bleeds occur
119
Q

Nerve supply of the nose –> sensory

A
  • Sensory supply is via the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve
  • The nasal vascular supply is controlled by sympathetic and parasympathetic NS
120
Q

Functions of the nose

A
  • Filtration of dust and pathogens and protection
  • Olfaction (smelling)
  • Humidification of inspired air and warming
  • Reception and elimination of secretions from the nasal mucosa
  • Vocal resonance
121
Q

Aetiology of nose bleeds (epistaxis)

A
  • Majority are idiopathic and self-limiting
  • Trauma –> picking at nose
  • Infection
  • Neoplasia
  • Foreign body
122
Q

What are some general things that can exacerbate nose bleeds (epistaxis)?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Drugs (anticoagulants/Warfarin)
  • Blood diseases (leukaemia)
  • Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
123
Q

Who should you not give naseptin to for epistaxis?

A
  • ppl with peanut/soya allergy –> it contains peanuts
124
Q

What substance is used for cautery in the treatment of epistaxis?

A

Silver nitrate

125
Q

Where is the best place to apply pressure during a nose bleed + first aid measures

A
126
Q

How would you assess blood loss in an active nose bleed?

A
  • Record pulse and BP
  • signs of shock –> pallor and sweating
  • IV fluids
  • FBC (Hb), clotting screen, and G+S
127
Q

Controlling the bleeding in a nose bleed –> what can we do?

A
  • First-aid measures to start with
  • Nasal cautery –> silver nitrate
  • Nasal packing –> Merocel (smear with Nasewptin cream before insertion to allow it to slide in more easily) –> once inserted you inject saline into it and it becomes larger and can absorb blood
  • Surgery –> ligation of vessels –> sphenopalatine artery (last resort)
128
Q

Septal haematoma –> what is it and treatment

A
  • a rare but serious complication of nasal or facial trauma –> it refers to the collection of blood under the mucoperichondrium or mucoperiosteum of nasal septal cartilage or bone
  • Need to drain hematoma otherwise septal perforation or nasal deformity will occur
129
Q

Nasal fracture –> when do we reduce the deformity?

A
  • at about 10 days
  • too soon and there is still swelling
  • too late and bony callus has formed
130
Q

Mandibular fractures –> symptoms, investigations, treatment

A
  • Usually presents from RTA or heavy knock to the face
  • Symptoms –> severe trismus and possibly dental malocclusion
  • Investigations –> X-rays highlight the fracture line
  • treatment –> reduce and immobile the fracture for several weeks by wiring teeth together
131
Q

Malar fractures –> presentation + which nerve may be damaged?

A
  • Presentation –> following RTA or heavy knock to face, palpation of orbital rum will reveal a step
  • Infraorbital nerve –> supplies big area over the cheek
132
Q

Maxillary fractures –> what classification is used to categorise + presentation + treatment

A
  • Le Fort I, II, and III
  • Due to severe force such as RTA, may be life-threatening (often associated with other severe injuries)
  • Requires reduction and splinting
133
Q

Auricular haematoma (aka. “cauliflower ear”) –> presentation + treatment

A
  • Occurs following blunt trauma –> typically rugby or boxing
  • Simple aspiration or incision and drainage –> need to monitor to ensure haematoma does not re-accumulate
    (if not treated properly then can get deformities eg. cauliflower ear)
134
Q

Rhinophyma –> what is it?

A
  • Due to overgrowth of sebaceous glands in tip of nose + often associated with rosacea
  • Cosmetic but can also limit nasal airway
135
Q

Facial pain aetiology

A
  • Rhinological –> inflammation within nasal cavities or sinuses (note: chronic sinusitis is usually painless)
  • Dental –> TMJ dysfunction, myofascial pain, dental disease
  • Vascular –> migraine (unilateral), cluster headaches (unilateral or periorbital), temporal arteritis
  • Neuralgia –> trigeminal (very painful), glossopharyngeal (pain on swallowing), post-herpetic
  • Non-organic –> tension headache, atypical facial pain
136
Q

Taste (gustation) –> five core modalities and taste zones

A
  • Salt, sweet, sour, bitter, umami
137
Q

What nerves supply the anterior 2/3 of tongue and posterior 1/3 of tongue?

A
  • Anterior 2/3 –> chorda tympani branch leaves facial and joins lingual branch of V3 to supply ant. 2/3
  • Posterior 1/3 –> glossopharyngeal nerve
138
Q

Key rhinological symptoms/questions…

A
139
Q

Definition of rhinitis

A

Rhinitis = an inflammatory disorder of the nasal mucosa characterised by two or more of the following symptoms:
- rhinorrhoea (anterior and/or posterior)
- blockage
- itching/sneezing

140
Q

Two types of rhinitis

A
141
Q

Allergic rhinitis and asthma share many common inflammatory processes –> what characterises these?

A

Eosinophil infiltration

142
Q

Intermittent rhinitis VS persistent rhinitis (ARIA rhinitis classification)

A
143
Q

History taking in pt with rhinitis –> key things to ask

A
  • distinguish from other types of rhinitis or rhinosinusitis
  • allergen contact –> pets, damp home, etc.
  • seasonal vs perennial
  • concurrent asthma
  • paternal atopy
  • drug hx –> eg. use of nasal sprays, beta-blockers
144
Q

Investigations in a pt with rhinitis

A
  • Endoscopic examination of nose
  • Skin prick allergy tests or RAST
145
Q

Acute rhinosinusitis –> timeline, symptoms, recurrent ABRS criteria

A
  • 10 days to 12 weeks
  • Symptoms –> nasal blockage, hyposmia (decreased sense of smell), mucopus discharge, facial pain/pressure
  • Recurrent ABRS –> complete resolution between episodes but 12/52 per year
146
Q

Key organisms involved in acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
147
Q

Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis treatment

A
  • Nasal steroids
  • Nasal douching
  • Decongestants –> topical +/- oral
  • Co-amoxiclav 625mg tds for 2/52 or clarithromycin 500mg bd if penicillin allergy
148
Q

Complications of sinusitis

A
  • Mucucole/pyomucocoele formation –> mucosal cyst
  • Osteomyelitis (Pott’s puffy tumour) –> tender forehead swelling with associated symptoms
  • Periorbital cellulitis
  • Silent sinus syndrome
  • Meningitis
  • Cranial nerve palsies
149
Q

What is required for a diagnosis of chronic rhinosinusitis?

A
150
Q

Chronic rhinosinusitis (CRS) –> what immune cells are involved (nasal polyps vs without nasal polyps)

A
  • Nasal polyps –> TH2 mediated pathway
  • Without nasal polyps –> TH1 mediated pathway
151
Q

Most common bacterial flora found on CRS (chronic rhinosinusitis pts)

A

Staph. aureus

152
Q

CRS (chronic rhinosinusitis) treatment

A
  • Nasal douching for all
  • With polyps –> topical steroids, spray, drops, prednisolone, doxycycline 3/52
  • Without polyps –> nasal steroids, macrolide 12/52
  • If this fails consider –> sinus surgery, biologics (dupilumab, mepolizumab)
153
Q

“Allergic” fungal rhinosinusitis (AFRS)

A
154
Q

Nasal obstruction differentials –> Bilateral vs Unilateral

A
  • Usually bilateral –> rhinitis, rhinosinusitis
  • Usually unilateral –> neoplasia, antro-choanal polyp, deviated nasal septum, foreign body
155
Q

Facial pain

A
156
Q

Red flag symptoms for sinonasal disorders

A
  • Unilateral symptoms –> bleeding, crusting, cacosmia, blockage
  • Orbital symptoms
  • Neurological signs inc. CN palsies
  • Severe frontal headaches
  • Clear, watery rhinorrhoea, esp. unilateral
157
Q

Smell and taste disorders

A
158
Q

What is the role of the tendon of stapedius

A
  • tenses when there is loud noise –> dampening movement of stapes bone and protecting the cochlear
159
Q

Tuning fork –> what Hz is used

A

512Hz

160
Q

Audiogram –> High tone deafness

A
  • this is the type of deafness we see as we age
  • Red + round = right ear (RRR)
  • Blue + crosses = left ear
161
Q

What is a BAHA (bone-anchored hearing aid)?

A
  • a surgically implanted device that helps people with hearing loss hear better
  • BAHAs are often used by people who can’t wear traditional hearing aids
162
Q

Facial nerve anatomy

A
163
Q

Facial parlaysis –> UMN (central) VS LMN (peripheral)

A
  • UMN facial palsy (stroke) –> preservation of forehead and brow movements –> due to bilateral innervation centrally
  • LMN/peripheral facial palsy (eg. tumour in parotid gland) –> entire side of face paralysed
164
Q

Bell’s Palsy and cholesteatoma

A
  • Bell’s Palsy –> idiopathic facial paralysis
  • Cholesteatoma –> chronic disorder of the ear with infection and dead skin gathering within the middle ear and eroding bone locally –> this is also a cause of a facial paralysis
    (therefore, a diagnosis of Bell’s palsy can only be made with confidence after ear drum has been inspected)
165
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome –> what is it

A

a rare neurological disorder that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus (VZV) reactivates and affects the facial nerve –> can cause facial paralysis

166
Q

Examination of balance disorders

A
  • Watch the pt walk in
  • Romberg –> pt stood up with feet together and arms by side –> look for swaying (repeat with eyes closed)
  • Unterberger
  • Hallpike
  • Check for postural BP change
  • Rest of CNS exam may not help much
    (Note: Hx is more useful than assessment)
167
Q

BPPV (Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo) –> what is it + diagnosis + management

A
  • a common inner ear disorder that causes vertigo, dizziness, and other symptoms when you move your head
  • Basically caused by an imbalance of crystals within the inner ear
  • Episodic transient and positional
  • +ve Hallpike test with rotating nystgamus
  • Epley manouvre works well
168
Q

Example: Fast-beating nystagmus to the right –> which ear is affected

A

left ear

169
Q

Audiogram example

A
170
Q

Air conduction hearing test

A
  • Simply tests what sounds you can hear at different volume and pitch –> the results are recorded on an audiogram
  • Can identify hearing loss, but doesn’t tell us what the issue is
171
Q

Bone conduction hearing test

A
  • By using vibrations, it goes straight to the cochlear (inner ear) –> bypasses outer and middle ear
  • Therefore, can identify if there is an issue with the cochlear itself
172
Q

Bone conduction hearing test –> example

A
  • There is an issue with the cochlear itself –> the triangles represent the bone conduction test
  • SNHL: ac=bc (inner ear problem)
173
Q

Bone conduction hearing test –> example

A
  • There is an air-bone gap –> this tells us that something in the outer or middle ear is stopping the sound from getting through to the cochlear
  • Could just be wax in the ear, or could be perforation or infection
  • CHL: bc<ac (middle ear problem)
174
Q

Tympanometry –> what does it measure

A

Measures the change in compliance (movement) of the eardrum

175
Q

Tympanometry classification

A

Peak classification

176
Q

Newborn hearing screening

A
  • (left) otoacoustic emission (OAE) test –> measures how well the inner ear responds to sound, and is often used to screen for hearing loss in infants and children
  • (right) automated audiotry brainstem response (AABR) test –> tests auditory nerve function
177
Q

Hearing aids

A
178
Q

Digital Hearing Aids –> advantages

A
179
Q

Vestibular function tests

A
  • most commonly teste semicircular canal is the horizontal semicircular canal
180
Q

Nystagmus

A
181
Q

Vestibular assessment

A
  • Hx gives most of info
182
Q

Labelled tonsil anatomy –> Normal

A
183
Q

Tonsilitis

A
184
Q

Main function of tonsils and adenoids

A

Immunological function –> part of Waldyer’s ring

185
Q

Why take tonsils and/or adenoids out?

A
  • Recurrent tonsilitis/adenoiditis (?causing ear infections)
  • Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome
186
Q

What causes tonsilitis?

A
  • Viral
  • Bacterial –> 15-40% are Strep)
187
Q

Management of tonsilitis

A
  • Conservative
  • Antibiotics –> only if bacterial
  • Tonsillectomy –> if 6/7 per year, or 3/4 per year over 2 years
188
Q

What is Quinsy?

A
  • Peritonsillar abscess causes by a bacterial infection –> tonsilitis progresses and causes an abscess to form
189
Q

Adenoid anatomy

A
  • If become enlarged then can block eustachian tube and cause issues with middle ear
190
Q

Waldyer’s Ring

A
  • A ring of tissue that helps protect against pathogens entering via the nose/mouth
191
Q

Basics of hearing –> anatomy

A
192
Q

Normal eardrum/tympanic membrane

A
193
Q

Abnormal eardrum/tympanic membrane –> “glue ear” or otitis media with effusion

A
194
Q

Abnormal eardrum/tympanic membrane –> acute otitis media causing eardrum to bulge

A
195
Q

Why would we put grommets in a pt’s ear?

A
  • Recurrent otitis media
  • Persistent otitis media with effusion (glue ear)
196
Q

How do grommets work in the ear?

A

Ventilates the middle ear

197
Q

Congenital nasal –> Choanal atresia

A
  • a congenital condition where the back of the nose does not form properly –> cartilage overgrowth or bony blockage
  • if one side blocked then okay but if both blocked then serious
198
Q

Lymphangioma of the tongue

A

uncommon, benign malformations of the lymphatic system that can occur anywhere on the skin and mucous membranes

199
Q

Teratoma

A
  • a rare type of germ cell tumor that may contain immature or fully formed tissue, including teeth, hair, bone and muscle
  • contain cells from all 3 cell lines (mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm)
200
Q

Larynx anatomy

A
  1. Vocal cord
  2. False vocal cords (vestibular bands)
  3. Epiglottis
  4. Aryepiglottic fold
    5.. Arytenoid process
  5. ?
  6. Base of tongue
201
Q

What is the abnormality?

A

Subglottic stenosis
- small lumen and a band of tissue

202
Q

What is this abnormality?

A
  • Recurrent laryngeal papillomatosis –> due to HPV
203
Q

What is this abnormality?

A

Perforation of ear drum

204
Q

What is this abnormality?

A
  • Cholesteatoma –> infected skin cyst
  • pearly white skin cyst behind the eardrum
205
Q

Cochlear implantation

A
  • consists of an internal and external part
  • this device allows people with no ability to hear to hear sounds
206
Q

Vertigo definition

A

a sensation of dizziness or abnormal motion resulting from a disorder of the sense of balance

207
Q

Assessing the dizzy patient –> history

A
  • Onset (first episode)
  • Precipitating factors (eg. neck movements)
  • Associated symptoms (eg. deafness, tinnitus)
  • Frequency
  • Duration
  • PMH (trauma, surgical hx)
208
Q

Presentation of dizziness –> differentials

A
209
Q

Duration of dizziness attacks

A
210
Q

Triggers of dizziness attacks

A
211
Q

Examination and interpretation –> dizziness

A
212
Q

Dix-Hallpike

A
213
Q

Common peripheral vestibular disorders

A
  • BPPV –> vertigo lasts seconds, nystagmus on Dix-Hallpike
  • Menieres –> vertigo lasts hours, fluctuable hearing loss, tinnitus
  • Vestibular neuritis –> acute vertigo lasting days, normal hearing and neuro exam
214
Q

BPPV treatment

A

Epley manoeuvre –> canalolith repositioning manoeuvres

215
Q

Vestibular rehabilitiation

A
  • Central compensation
  • Recalibratoin of vestibular reflexes
  • Physio –> Cawthorne-Cooksey exercises (or Brant-Daroff exercise)
216
Q

Main function of pinna

A

To collect sound –> large SA helps with this

217
Q

Roles of outer ear, inner ear, and middle ear

A
218
Q

Shape deformities of ear

A
  • purely cosmetic –> hearing won’t be affected really
219
Q

Microtia –> sizes of ear (grades)

A
  • mainly cosmetic again
220
Q

Preauricular sinus

A
221
Q

Haematoma of the ear

A

treatment is drainage

222
Q

Otitis externa and perichondritis

A
  • infection of outer ear = otitis externa
  • Otitis externa –> Staph. A or pseudomonas
  • Perichondritis –> Pseudomonas
223
Q

Acute otitis externa

A
224
Q

Chronic otitis externa

A
225
Q

Necrotising otitis externa

A
  • Potentially life-threatening progressive infection of the external ear canal which may spread to cause osteomyelitis of the temporal bone and adjacent structures
  • Symptoms –> night pain, not responding to usual treatment, immunocompromised, cranial nerve involvement
  • Most common pathogen –> Pseudomonas aerogenosa
  • Management –> CT temporal bone, long-term pseudomonas antibx
226
Q

Risk factors for otitis externa (outer ear infections)

A
227
Q

Otitis externa clinical signs and symptoms

A
228
Q
A
  • Top left –> inflamed
  • Bottom left –> folliculitis
  • Top right –> otomycosis (fungal ear infection)
  • Bottom right –> necrotising otitis externa
229
Q

Chronic otitis externa

A
  • chronically inflamed skin
230
Q

Treatment of otitis externa

A
  • Avoiding ear infections –> avoid self-cleaning, water precautions, manage risk factors
    .
  • Cleaning external auditory canal
  • Analgesia
  • Topical antibx +/- topical corticosteroid (7-14 days)
  • Oral antibx if pt is immunocompromised or severe infection, or systemic infection
231
Q

Acute otitis media

A
  • the presence of inflammation in the middle ear cleft
  • viral
  • bacterial
232
Q

Risk factors for middle ear infections (otitis media)

A
233
Q

Presentation of otitis media

A

Ear ache, hearing loss, systemic signs

234
Q

Treatment of otitis media

A

Surgical management for severe acute otitis media –> Myringotomy

235
Q

Otitis media with effusion

A

Eustachian tube dysfunction or block

236
Q

Images of fluid within middle ear (otitis media with effusion)

A
237
Q

Management of otitis media

A
  • Audiogram and tympanogram
  • Conservative –> Otovent balloon, treat URI if present
  • Surgical –> grommet +/- adenoidectomy
238
Q

Chronic otitis media - mucosal

A
  • Repeated acute otitis media prevents healing of the perforation –> persistent perforation
  • Copious mucopurulent ear discharge + hearing loss
239
Q

Chronic otitis media - squamous –> Cholesteotoma

A

Squamous epithelium in middle ear (build up)

240
Q

Otosclerosis

A
  • Stapes bone gets fixed –> therefore cannot vibrate
  • Symptoms –> hearing loss
241
Q

Meniere’s Disease –> symptoms

A
  • Vertigo –> episodic lasting 20 min to 12hrs
  • Hearing loss –> fluctuating
  • Tinnitus –> pulsatile
242
Q

Healthy inner ear VS Meniere’s disease

A
243
Q

Treatment for Meniere’s disease

A
  • Self-limiting
  • Diet and lifestyle
  • Medical –> diuretics, betahistine, intratympanic
  • Surgical –> endolymphatic sac surgery
244
Q

BPPV –> symptoms + diagnosis + treatment

A
  • Symptoms –> vertigo on turning head in relation to gravity (turning while sleeping, looking up while taking book from shelf)
  • Diagnosis –> Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre (vertigo can be elicited by movement)
  • Treatment –> Epley manoeuvre (canalolith repositioning manoeuvre/exercise)
245
Q

Labrynthitis/Vestibular neuritis

A
  • Viral infection
  • Vertigo lasts for days –> peaks and gradually subsides
  • Diagnosis –> clinical, audiogram
  • Treatment –> labrynthine sedative, steroids
246
Q

Vestibular schwannomma

A
  • Benign tumour arising from vestibular
  • Constant, less severe, facial palsy, central signs
  • Always MRI to check for tumours
247
Q

Types of hearing loss –> Conductive VS Sensorineural

A
  • Conductive –> issue with outer ear or middle ear
  • Sensorineural –> issue with inner ear
248
Q

Causes of hearing loss

A
249
Q

Rinne’s Test

A
  • Using a 512Hz tuning fork
  • Initiate vibration and place on pt’s mastoid process of the tested ear
  • Once pt cannot hear vibrations, move the tuning fork over ear and ask if pt can hear (air conduction)
  • If bone conduction is greater than air conduction then suggests conductive hearing loss
  • Note: air conduction should be greater than bone conduction so this would be normal or if Weber has detected a hearing loss then could be sensorineural
250
Q

Weber Test

A
  • Tells us which side hearing loss is, but use Rinne’s to distinguish whether conductive or sensorineural
  • Sound lateralises towards conductive hearing loss
  • Sound lateralises away from sensorineural hearing loss
251
Q
A

YEAR 3 MED (9 decks)

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