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module 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

what do somatic symptom disorders involve?

A

physical symptoms that cannot be explained by medical conditions and are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as anxiety

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2
Q

how can symptoms of somatic symptom disorders present

A

as dramatic, unexplainable bodily complaints

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3
Q

what is conversion disorder

A

a disorder where individuals experience sensory or motor symptoms (ex. paralysis, blindness, seizures) that lack a clear medical cause.

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4
Q

what is somatization disorder

A

this disorder is characterized by multiple, recurrent physical complaints without any identifiable medical cause.

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5
Q

what are symptoms of somatization disorder

A

individuals may experience a variety of symptoms affecting different body systems such as gastrointestinal, neurological, and sexual symptoms.

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6
Q

what are common treatments for somatic symptom disorders

A

psychotherapy, such as cognitive-behavioural therapy, family therapy, assertiveness training, social skills training, exposure therapy and sometimes medication for managing anxiety or depression

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7
Q

what are the main somatic symptom disorders

A

conversion disorder and somatization disorder

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8
Q

what are dissociative disorders

A

dissociative disorders include disruptions in consciousness, memory, and identity

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9
Q

what disorders does dissociative disorders include

A

dissociative disorders include dissociative amnesia, dissociative fugue, depersonalization /derealization disorder, dissociative identity disorder

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10
Q

what is anesthesias

A

a form of conversion disorder where the person experiences a loss of sensation or an impairment of sensation

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11
Q

what is dissociative amnesia

A

involves the loss of memory, often related to a traumatic event

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12
Q

what is dissociative fugue

A

a sudden, unexpected inability to recall one’s identity. it usually occurs after a person has experienced some severe stress.
- breaking bad when walter faked a dissociative fugue state to cover up his kidnapping

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13
Q

what is depersonalization/ derealization disorder

A

involves feelings of detachment from oneself or reality. it involves no disturbance of memory
- ex. someone has unusual sensory experiences (their limbs may seem drastically changed in size or their voices may sound strange to them) or they could have the impression that they are outside their bodies

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14
Q

What is dissociative identity disorder

A

the presence of two or more separate ego states or alters-different modes of being and feeling and acting that exist independently of each other and come forth at different times.
- usually caused from significant stress or trauma

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15
Q

what is malingering

A

faking symptoms to avoid a responsibility (ex. work) or to achieve a specific goal (ex. financial gain)

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16
Q

what is factitious disorder

A

intentionally producing symptoms without a clear external incentive

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17
Q

what is factitious disorder by proxy

A

(or munchausen syndrome by proxy)
individuals cause harm to others, usually a child, to gain attention or sympathy for themselves

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18
Q

what is the historical concept of dissociation

A

Pierre Janet, introduced the idea that dissociative disorders arise when trauma causes memories to be stored in a way that makes them inaccessible to the conscious mind. this results in symptoms such as amnesia or fugue

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19
Q

what is the behavioural view of dissociative disorders

A

some behavioural theorists suggest that dissociation is an avoidance mechanism that helps individuals to cope with painful memories and distressing experiences

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20
Q

what is the trauma model of dissociation

A

Dissociative identity disorder develops in childhood as a response to severe trauma, such as physical or sexual abuse

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21
Q

what is the social role enactment theory of dissociative disorders

A

Nicholas Spanos, suggests that DID could be a form of role-playing that is learned through social interaction, often influenced by therapists.

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22
Q

What did Nicholas Spanos do

A

conducted experiments showing that people can role-play multiple personalities under certain conditions such as hypnosis.

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23
Q

what is hypochondriasis

A

a somatoform disorder where the person, misinterpreting rather ordinary physical sensations, is preoccupied with fears of having a serous disease

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24
Q

what is hysteria

A

a physical incapacity such as paralysis, anaesthesia, is not due to a physiological dysfunction

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25
Q

what is illness anxiety disorder

A

the term given in the DSM-5 to refer to hypochondriasis and the tendency to worry obsessively about illness despite the apparent objective lack of a physical illness

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26
Q

what is pain disorder

A

a somatoform disorder in which the person complains of severe and prolonged pain that is not explainable by organic pathology

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27
Q

what is gender identity

A

a deeply ingrained sense of being male or female, typically formed early in childhood

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28
Q

what is sexual orientation

A

the gender to which a person is attracted

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29
Q

what is gender dysphoria

A

individuals with gender dysphoria experience significant distress because their gender identity conflicts with their biological sex, sometimes leading to a desire for physical transition to align with their identity.

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30
Q

when do gender identity issues often appear

A

in childhood, with behaviours such as cross-dressing and preferring gender non-conforming playmates. these behaviours typically begin between the ages of 2 and 4

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31
Q

what do body alterations include

A
  • 6 to 12 months of psychotherapy to address underlying anxiety, depression, and explore options
  • cosmetic procedures and hormone treatments are common steps before sex-reassignment surgery
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32
Q

what is sex-reassignment surgery

A

a surgical procedure that alters the genitalia to match the gender identity

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33
Q

what are paraphilias

A

paraphilias are disorders characterized by sexual attraction to unusual objects or activites, and they typically cause significant distress or impairment.

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34
Q

what is the distinction between paraphilias and paraphilic disorders

A

Paraphilias are unusual sexual behaviours. paraphilic disorders are when the behaviours cause distress or harm. this is critical in diagnosis.

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35
Q

what is fetishism

A

a person with fetishism has a recurrent, intense sexual attraction to inanimate objects (ex. shoes, stockings) or body parts (ex. feet)
- fetishists experience compulsive urges that make the object necessary for sexual arousal. they may also collect these objects.

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36
Q

when does fetishism often begin

A

in adolescence
- they may coexist with other paraphilias like pedophilia or sadism

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37
Q

what is transvestic disorder (or transvestism)

A

when a man experiences sexual arousal from dressing in women’s clothing, even though he identifies as a man.

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38
Q

when does transvestism typically start and who is it most common in

A

in childhood or adolescence, and is most common among heterosexual men

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39
Q

what is pedophilic disorder

A

adults deriving sexual gratification from prepubescent children, typically at least five years younger than the adult.

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40
Q

who is pedophilic disorder most common in and what does it often co-occur with

A

more common in men and often co-occurs with other mental health issues like mood disorders, anxiety, and substance abuse

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41
Q

what is incest

A

sexual relations between close family members

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42
Q

what are the short term effects of child sexual abuse

A

common issues include anxiety, depression, low self-esteem and conduct disorder.

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43
Q

what can child sexual abuse lead to for the child

A

PTSD, self blame, suicidal thoughts and behaviour

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44
Q

what is voyeurism

A

obtaining sexual gratification from watching others in a state of undress or engaged in sexual activities, often with an element of risk. physical contact is rare.

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45
Q

when does voyerism typically begin

A

adolescence

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46
Q

what is exhibitionism

A

obtaining sexual arousal from exposing one’s genitals to an unwilling person, typically in public settings

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47
Q

when does exhibitionism begin and why does it occur

A

begins in adolescence and is characterized by fantasies or actions aimed at shocking or embarrassing the victim

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48
Q

what is frotteurism

A

involves the touching or rubbing of an unsuspecting person, typically in public spaces

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49
Q

what is sexual sadism

A

involves deriving sexual pleasure from inflicting pain or humiliation on others
- some sadists may commit severe acts, including murder

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50
Q

what is sexual masochism

A

involves seeking gratification through being subjected to pain or humiliation

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51
Q

what behavioural therapies were used for people with paraphilias

A

aversion therapy and satiation

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52
Q

what are the two types of rape

A

forced rape and statutory rape

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53
Q

what is forced rape

A

involves sexual intercourse without the consent of the partner

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54
Q

what is statutory rape

A

involves intercourse with a minor, typically someone under the age of consent

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55
Q

what is the age of consent in canada

A

14

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56
Q

what are the possible natures of rape

A

can be planned or impulsive, and is often linked with intoxication.
some rapes are sexually motivated, while others are driven by a desire for power and control.

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57
Q

what is pohypnol

A

a “date rape drug” which can incapacitate the victim and cause memory loss of the event

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58
Q

what are common reasons rapists commit those actions

A

hostility towards women, they may lack empathy, have low self-esteem, and exhibit distorted beliefs about women.

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59
Q

what does therapy for rapists focus on

A

cognitive and behavioural techniques including anger management, empathy training, and relapse prevention.

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60
Q

what is the sexual response cycle

A

four stages:
desire, excitement, orgasm, resolution

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61
Q

what are common sexual desire disorders

A

hypoactive sexual desire disorder (low libido) and sexual aversion disorder (intense avoidance of sex)

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62
Q

what are common causes of sexual desire disorders

A

relationship problems, depression, and sexual trauma

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63
Q

what are common sexual arousal disorders

A

erectile dysfunction in men and sexual interest/arousal disorder in women

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64
Q

female orgasmic disorder (FOD)

A

the inability of women to achieve orgasm after a period of normal sexual excitement

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65
Q

what can female orgasmic disorder be caused by

A
  • limited masturbation before intercourse
  • alcohol use
  • fear of losing control during sex
  • psychosocial factors (ex. relationship difficulties)
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66
Q

Delayed ejaculation

A

in men, delayed ejaculation is a rare condition where a man is unable to ejaculate during sexual activity, despite prolonged sexual arousal

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67
Q

what can delayed ejaculation be caused by

A
  • fear of pregnancy
  • hostility
  • fear of losing control
  • physical causes such as spinal cord injury or certain medications
68
Q

what is premature ejaculation

A

one of the most common sexual dysfunctions in men, often occurring before or shortly after penetration

69
Q

what can premature ejaculation be caused by

A
  • commonly linked to anxiety and can be exacerbated by performance concerns
  • sensitivity of the penis
  • negative past experiences
  • relationship difficulties
70
Q

4 symptoms of sexual pain disorders (genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder)

A
  1. persistent or recurrent difficulties with vaginal penetration during intercourse
  2. persistent or recurring pain during sexual intercourse or during penetration attempts
  3. fear or anxiety about vulvovaginal or pelvic pain
  4. involuntary spasms of the outer third of the vagina to a degree that makes intercourse impossible
71
Q

what is dyspareunia

A

persistent or recurrent pain during sexual intercourse or during penetration attempts

72
Q

what is dyspareunia linked with

A

alterations of all aspects of the sexual response cycle, including lower sexual desire, lower arousal, greater dissatisfaction

73
Q

what is vaginismus

A

involuntary spasms of the outer third of the vagina to a degree that makes intercourse impossible.
women with vaginismus have normal sexual arousal and have orgasms from manual or oral stimulation that does not involve penetration

74
Q

what percent of people with a sexual dysfunction did not seek medical assistance

A

75%

75
Q

what is accommodation

A

the cognitive process of modifying existing schemas to incorporate new events and new information

76
Q

what is assimilation

A

the cognitive process of incorporating new information and new events into existing schemas

77
Q

child sexual abuse

A

sexual abuse of children that involves direct physical contact, such as pedophilia or incest

78
Q

medical forensic examination

A

the procedure used to collect medical evidence for legal purposes when it is alleged that a sexual assault has taken place

79
Q

orgasmic reorientation

A

a behaviour therapy technique for altering classes of stimuli to which people are sexually attracted

80
Q

sensate focus

A

exercises prescribed at the beginning of the masters and johnson sex therapy program. partners are instructed to fondle each other to give pleasure but to refrain from intercourse, thus reducing anxiety about sexual performance

81
Q

sensory-awareness procedures

A

techniques that help clients tune into their feelings and sensations, as in sensate-focus exercises, and to be open to new ways of experiencing and feeling.

82
Q

sexual value system

A

as applied by masters and johnson, the activities that an individual holds to be acceptable and necessary in a sexual relationship

83
Q

spectator role

A

as applied by masters and johnson, a pattern of behaviour in which the individuals focus on and concern with sexual performance impedes his or her natural sexual responses

84
Q

what is a personality disorder

A

a heterogeneous group of disorders that are regarded as long standing, pervasive, and inflexible patterns of behaviour and inner experience that deviate from the expectations of a persons culture and that impair social and occupational functioning

85
Q

what are the three core features that distinguish disordered personalities identified by Theodore Millon

A

rigidity, self-defeating behaviour, structural instability

86
Q

Livesley and colleagues proposed that failure to adapt to what 3 tasks indicate a personality disorder

A

forming stable self-other representations, developing intimacy, and functioning in society

87
Q

why is it often difficult to diagnose a single, specific personality disorder

A

because many disordered people exhibit a wide range of traits that make several diagnoses applicable

88
Q

what personality disorders are in the odd/eccentric cluster (Cluster A)

A

paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal

89
Q

what are the behaviours of someone with a cluster A personality disorder

A

they seem odd or eccentric
- these disorders reflect oddness and avoidance of social context (paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal)

90
Q

what personality disorders are
in the dramatic/erratic cluster (Cluster B)

A

borderline, histrionic, narcissistic, and anti-social

91
Q

what are the behaviours of someone with a cluster B personality

A

dramatic, emotional, or erratic.
- behaviours are extra punitive and hostile

92
Q

what personality disorders are in the anxious/fearful cluster (cluster C)

A

avoidant, dependent, and
obsessive-compulsive

93
Q

what is the main behaviour trait of someone with a cluster C personality disorder

A

they appear fearful

94
Q

how do people with paranoid personality disorder act/think

A
  • suspicious of others
  • they expect to be mistreated or exploited by others and thus are secretive and always on the lookout for possible signs of trickery and abuse
  • they are reluctant to confide in others and tend to blame them even when they themselves are at fault
  • they can be extremely jealous and may unjustifiably question the fidelity of a spouse
95
Q

how does paranoid personality disorder differ from schizophrenia, paranoid type

A

symptoms such as hallucinations are not present and there is less impairment in social and occupational functioning in paranoid personality disorder

96
Q

how does paranoid personality disorder differ from delusional disorder

A

because full blown delusions are not present in paranoid personality disorder

97
Q

who does paranoid personality occur most frequently in

A

men

98
Q

what are characteristics of someone with schizoid personality disorder

A
  • they do not appear to desire or enjoy social relationships and usually have no close friends
  • they appear dull, bland, and alloof
  • they have no warm, tender feelings for others
  • they rarely report strong emotions, have no interest in sex, and experience few pleasurable activities
  • they are indifferent to praise and criticism
  • they are loners with solitary interests
99
Q

what is comorbidity highest for

A

scizotypal, avoidant, and paranoid personality disorders

100
Q

what is the prevalence of schizoid personality disorder

A

less than 1%. it is slightly more common in men

101
Q

what are the characteristics of someone with schizotypal personality disorder

A
  • interpersonal difficulties
  • excessive social anxiety that does not diminish as they get to know others.
  • odd beliefs or magical thinking (ex. superstitiousness, believe they are telepathic)
  • recurrent illusions (they may sense a presence or force or a person not actually there)
  • they may use words in an unclear fashion
  • behaviour and appearance may be eccentric
  • they may talk to themselves
102
Q

what is the prevalence of schizotypal personality disorder

A

3%. more common in men

103
Q

what are the core features of borderline personality disorder (BPD)

A

impulsivity and instability in relationships, mood, and self image.

104
Q

what are the characteristics of someone with Borderline personality disorder

A
  • emotions are erratic and can shift abruptly
  • they are argumentative, irritable, sarcastic, quick to take offence, and very hard to live with
  • they cannot be alone, they have fears of abandonment, and demand attention
  • chronic feelings of depression and emptiness
105
Q

what are examples of the unpredictable and impulsive behaviour of people with borderline personality disorder

A

gambling, spending, indiscriminate sexual activity, eating sprees

106
Q

how many people with borderline personality disorder commit suicide

A

1 in 10, mostly female, and mostly occur after multiple attempts

107
Q

what does the object-relations theory of borderline personality disorder say

A

concerned with the way children incorporate the values and images of important people, such as their parents.

108
Q

what are the heritability rates for borderline personality disorder

A

estimates range from 37% to 69%

109
Q

what does Linehan’s diathesis-stress theory say about borderline personality disorder

A

BPD arises from a biological predisposition to emotional dysregulation in an invalidating environment

110
Q

what is histrionic personality disorder

A

people who are overly dramatic and attention seeking

111
Q

what are the characteristics of someone with histrionic personality disorder

A
  • they often use features of physical appearance, such as unusual clothes, makeup, or hair colour, to draw attention to themselves
  • they are emotionally shallow
  • self-centred, overly concerned with their attractiveness, and uncomfortable when not the centre of attention
  • they can be inappropriately sexually provocative and seductive and are easily influenced by others
  • their speech is often impressionistic and lacking in detail (ex. they may state a strong opinion yet be unable to give any supporting information
112
Q

what is the prevalence of histrionic personality disorder

A

2 - 3 %

113
Q

who is histrionic personality disorder more common in

A
  • women
  • separated and divorced people
114
Q

what is histrionic personality disorder associated with

A

depression and poor physical health

115
Q

what are the characteristics of someone with narcissistic personality disorder

A
  • they are preoccupied with fantasies of great success
  • self centred is an understatement
  • they require almost constant attention and excessive admiration and believe that only high-status people can understand them
  • they lack empathy, feelings of envy, arrogance, and they take advantage of others
  • they are very entitled
116
Q

what is the prevalence of narcissistic personality disorder

A

less than 1%

117
Q

what are the four factors that assess narcissistic grandiosity in the pathological narcissism inventory (PNI)

A

entitlement rage, exploitativeness, grandiose fantasy, self-entitlement

118
Q

what are the three factors that assess narcissistic vulnerability in the pathological narcissism inventory (PNI)

A

contingent self-esteem, hiding the self, and devaluing

119
Q

what is the “dark tetrad”

A

consists of narcissism, psychopathy, and machiavellianism, sadism

120
Q

what is machiavellianism

A

a personality style characterized by an extreme willingness to take advantage of others when the opportunity presents itself because people with this orientation believe that everyone is out form himself or herself

121
Q

what are the two components of
anti-social personality disorder

A
  1. a conduct disorder is present before the age of 15 (truancy, running away, lying, theft, arson, destruction of property)
  2. this pattern of anti-social behaviour continues in adulthood
122
Q

what are symptoms of anti-social personality disorder

A
  • failure to conform to social norms
  • deceitfulness
  • impulsivity
  • irritability
  • reckless disregard for the safety of self and others
  • working only inconsistently
  • breaking laws
  • physically aggressive
  • no regard for truth or remorse for misdeeds
123
Q

what is the prevalence of antisocial personality disorder

A

between 1% and 4 % of the population have APD

124
Q

what is antisocial personality disorder comorbid with most commonly

A

substance abuse

125
Q

what are the characteristics of psychopathy

A
  • no sense of shame, even their seemingly positive feelings for others are and act
  • superficially charming and manipulates others for personal gain
  • they exploit others even if it involves the use of violence and aggression
  • lack of anxiety makes it impossible for psychopaths to learn from their mistakes
  • their anti-social behaviours are performed impulsively, for thrills
126
Q

what is the primary cause of psychopathic behaviour in the role of the family

A

lack of affection and severe parental rejections
- physical abuse
- inconsistency in discipline
- failure to teach responsibility toward others

127
Q

what are the characteristics of someone with avoidant personality disorder

A
  • keenly sensitive to the possibility of criticism, rejection, or disapproval and are reluctant to enter into relationships unless they are sure they will be liked
  • avoid employment that entails a lot of interpersonal contact
  • restrained in social situations owing to an extreme fear of saying something foolish or of being embarrassed
  • they believe they are incompetent and inferior to others and are reluctant to take risks or try new activites
128
Q

what is the prevalance rate of avoidant personality disorder

A

2% of the general population

129
Q

what are the characteristics of someone with dependent personality disorder

A
  • a lack of self-confidence and a sense of autonomy
  • they view themselves as weak and other people as powerful
  • they have an intense need to be taken care of, which makes them uncomfortable when alone
  • they subordinate their own needs to ensure that they do not break up protective relationships
  • when a close relationship ends, they urgently seek a replacement
130
Q

what are characteristics of someone with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

A
  • a perfectionist, preoccupied with details, rules, schedules, etc
  • often pay so much attention to detail they never finish projects
  • work-oriented rather than pleasure oriented
  • inordinate difficulty making decisions and allocating time
131
Q

why do people with obsessive-compulsive personality disorders often struggle with interpersonal relationships

A
  • they are stubborn and demand that everything be done their way
  • they are serious, rigid, formal and inflexible
  • unable to disgard worn-out and useless objects, even those with no sentimental value
132
Q

how is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder different from obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

it does not include the obsessions and compulsions that define the latter

133
Q

what is the prevalence of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and what does it often co-occur with

A

1% to 2% and often co-occurs with anorexia or depression

134
Q

what are the goals for dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) for borderline personality disorder

A
  1. modulate and control their extreme emotionality and behaviours
  2. tolerate feeling distressed
  3. trust their own thoughts and emotions
135
Q

what are client therapy outcome expectations

A

this uses the demoralization hypothesis as an explanation for when clients will seek therapy. they suggest that clients seek help but not just because of their symptoms
- the symptoms are accompanied by a state of demoralization that includes feelings of alienation, helplessness, hopelessness, loss of self esteem, and subjective feelings of incompetence

136
Q

what role does client personality play in treatment

A
  • clients with insecure attachment have less favourable treatment outcomes
  • a fearful attachment style was linked with negative outcomes
  • avoidant attachment styles are linked to dropping out of therapy
  • anxious attachment styles are linked to poorer treatment outcomes
137
Q

what personal qualities of a therapist leads to more favourable outcomes

A
  • warm
  • secure attachment style
138
Q

why is oparent conditioning behaviour therapy so effective with children

A

because much of their behaviour is subject to the control of others

139
Q

what is intermittent reinforcement

A

rewarding a response only some of the time it appears - makes new behaviour more enduring

140
Q

what are common elements to brief therapy

A
  • assessment tends to be rapid and early
  • it is made clear right away that therapy will be limited, and improvment is expected withing 6 to 25 sessions
  • goals are concrete and focused
  • interpretations are directed more toward present life circumstances, interpersonal experiences and client behaviour
  • development of transference is not encouraged, but some positive transference to the therapist is fostered to encourage the client to follow suggestions
  • understanding that therapy does not cure, but can help to deal with stressors
141
Q

what are the elements that distinguish short-term psychodynamic interpersonal psychotherapy from CBT

A
  1. focus on effect and expression of emotion
  2. exploration of attempts to avoid thoughts and feelings that create distress
  3. identification of recurring themes and patterns
  4. emphasis on past experiences and how they relate to current experiences
  5. focus on interpersonal relationships
  6. emphasis on therapy relationship
  7. exploration of clients wishes, dreams, and fantasies
142
Q

what is the goal of the therapist in client-centred therapy

A

to create conditions in therapy that are totally accepting and non-judgemental, and the therapist should accomplish this by being empathetic rather than directive

143
Q

what is the result of client centred therapy

A

clients gradually come to better understand their own wishes, needs, fears, and aspirations and gain the courage to pursue their own goals rather than the goals that others have set

144
Q

what are the four types of psychotherapy integration

A
  • technical eclecticism
  • common factorism
  • theoretical integration
  • assimilative integration
145
Q

what is assimilative integration

A

a method of psychotherapy integration in which the clinician mostly identifies with one therapeutic orientation, but assimilates concepts and techniques from other orientations

146
Q

what is common factorism

A

a method that seeks therapeutic strategies that are common to all forms of psychotherapy

147
Q

what are core competencies

A

the key clinical skills and abilities needed to be an effective therapist, such as the ability to communicate and to relate well and in an empathic way toward others

148
Q

what is the dodo bird effect

A

the general finding that all forms of psychotherapies achieve similar outcomes

149
Q

what are empirically formed therapies

A

treatment approaches that have been based on processes and components shown to be effective via research

150
Q

what is evidence-based practice

A

an approach advocated by the canadian psychological association in which the best available research evidence is used in decision-making regarding assessment and treatment

151
Q

what are psychotechnologies

A

emerging therapeutic techniques that incorporate technological advances such as smart phones and videoconferencing

152
Q

what is stepped care

A

a treatment strategy that begins with less complex and costly interventions followed by more complex attempts if initial attempts are not successful

153
Q

what is technical eclecticism

A

a method of psychotherapy integration in which a particular style or school of psychotherapy is employed but one in which the therapist is free to borrow from other schools or methods deemed effective

154
Q

what is theoretical integration

A

an approach to psychotherapy integration that attempts to synthesize and combine not only various techniques but also various conceptual orientations

155
Q

what does “insanity” mean in legal terms

A

whether a person was capable of understanding the nature of their actions or distinguishing right from wrong at the time of the crime.

156
Q

what is the FIT-R used for and what does it do

A

the FIT-R is used to assess fitness to stand trial. the FIT-R evaluates the defendants understanding of legal proceedings, the potential consequences, and their ability to communicate with their lawyer

157
Q

what is the process of civil commitment in ontario

A
  • form 1: this form, signed by a physician, is used to hold an individual for up to 72 hours for psychiatric assessment. it applies when the person is seen as a danger to themselves or others
  • after the 72 hour period, if a physician or justice of the peace has not authorized a further commitment, the individual must be released. however, if the criteria for involuntary treatment are met, longer periods of detention can occur.
  • if the person is held under form 1 for assessment, the physician can extend the commitment for an additional seven days if necessary
158
Q

what is the definition of mental disorder in ontario

A

a disease or disability of the mind

159
Q

what is a community treatment order

A

a form of involuntary treatment designed to ensure compliance with psychiatric care in the community

160
Q

what are community treatment orders used for

A

these orders are used to mandate individuals with mental illness, particularly those who lack insight to their condition, to adhere to treatment plans in the community.

161
Q

what were community treatment orders (CTOs) established under

A

“Brians Law”
following the tragic death of an Ottawa sports caster who was killed by a man with untreated schizophrenia

162
Q

what are the four key principles of the canadian code of ethics for psychologists

A
  1. respect for the dignity of persons: highest priority
  2. responsible caring: ensure they are competent
  3. integrity in relationships: open communication is essential, but should not undermine dignity of others
  4. responsibility to society: duty to promote societal welfare, though individual dignity is prioritized in conflicts between individual needs and societal goals
163
Q

actuarial prediction

A

a prediction of dangerousness or risk using statistics

164
Q

civil commitment

A

a form of commitment in which a person can be legally certified as mentally ill and hospitalized, even against his or her will

165
Q

neurolaw

A

a new field of inquiry that stems from the use of neuroscientific data in legal contexts. it involves the use of neuroscience to influence legal decisions.

166
Q

prior capable wish

A

the result of the process of getting a person to outline his or her treatment wishes at an earlier time when he or she is sounder mind and is not incapacitated

abnormal psych final (1 decks)

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