Module 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Unmanned Aerial Systems are licensed under what FAR part? (1 answer)
A
Part 107
2
Q
FAA’s Unmanned Aerial Systems Integration Office predicts how many licensed operators by 2020?
A
400k - 2.3 Mil
3
Q
Unmanned Aerial Systems describe all the components required to operate a UAV, name them (4 answers)
A
Ground control station
payload
data link
vehicle itself
4
Q
What is the difference between a Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) and Remotely Piloted Vehicle (RPV)?
A
- The definition of an RPV is when an operator at a remote site actually pilots a “true” RPV
- UAV may be either piloted or programmed to fly autonomous missions
5
Q
What is the purist definition of a “Drone”
A
Something that flies in a dull monotonous, and indifferent manner
6
Q
What are the three classes of unmanned aerial systems (UAS)?
A
1) Public
2) Civil
3) Model Aircraft
7
Q
Define a Public UAS
A
Aircraft operated by the US Government or another entity authorized to operate on the governments’ behalf
8
Q
Define a Civil UAS
A
Aircraft that does not qualify as public and may be used to perform commercial or other non-hobby operations in low-risk controlled environments
9
Q
Define a Model Aircraft
A
Drones weighing 55 lbs or less and used by hobbyist
10
Q
Model Aircraft and Part 107 operators must fly below what ceiling height?
A
400’
11
Q
Model aircraft operators must not fly how close to an airport?
A
5 miles
12
Q
What exception do model aircraft operators have to fly closer to an airport than what is allowed?
A
Contact the airport and ATCT
13
Q
What FAR Part refers to model aircraft hobbyists?
A
Part 101
14
Q
Part 107 is for which of the 3 classes of Unmanned Aerial Systems?
A
Civil
15
Q
If you want to operate a drone that does not fit into Part 101 or Part 107 you must apply for what?
A
Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA)
16
Q
What must an operator have to operate a UAV under Part 107? (1 item)
A
Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate
17
Q
To receive a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate the applicant must do what?
A
Pass an aeronautical knowledge test
18
Q
What is the maximum speed a drone can fly with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?
A
100 MPH
19
Q
What visibility distance is required to operate a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?
A
3 miles or greater from the control station
20
Q
What times of day are you allowed to operate a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107
A
30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset with appropriate anti-collision lighting
21
Q
What is the line of sight requirement to operate a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?
A
Drone is operated Line of Sight or first person view with a LOS observer
22
Q
UAV cannot operate where with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107? 3 answers
A
- Over anyone not participating in the operation
- Under a covered structure
- Inside a covered vehicle
23
Q
Can UAV operate from a moving vehicle with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?
A
No unless it’s flying in a sparsely populated area
24
Q
What airspace can a UAV operate without contacting ATC for approval with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?
A
Class G Airspace
25
What airspace can a UAV operate ONLY WITH contacting ATC for approval with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?
Class B,C,D,E
26
What are the restrictions on carrying an external load by a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?
1. Total weight must remain below 55 lbs
| 2. Stay within state boundaries
27
Can a UAV carry a load for compensation or hire?
Yes, as long as they stay within the external load restrictions
28
UAVs with an N-number and designated as a public aircraft must be authorized through what?
Certificate of Authority
29
What airspace can a certificate of authority UAV fly in?
Operations can be technically granted outside of Class B airspace, but most public organizations are limited to D,E, and G
30
Operation of a UAV with a certificate of authority typically takes 3 people, name them
1. Pilot in Command
2. Visual Observer
3. Ground Control Operator
31
All COA programs must incorporate what outlined in which AC?
a Safety Management System
| AC 120-92
32
6 test sites were selected for UAV research at GA facilities. What 5 things were they researching?
1. Standards for unmanned aircraft categories
2. traffic control procedures with NextGen
3. sense and avoid technologies
4. differing climates, airworthiness, and reliable data links
5. UAS Failure mode testing
33
What are some uses of UAVs that the Mesa County Sheriff's department uses it for? 3 uses
1. Search and Rescue operations
2. Monitoring wild fires
3. Broad area suspect searches
34
Part 139 places responsibility on _______ to exercise control over tenant fueling practices
Airport Management
35
Airport management must establish fueling practices and standards with regards to? (3 things)
1. Facilities
2. Procedures
3. Training of fueling personnel
36
What are the four parts to the fire "tetrahedron"
1. Combustible material
2. Oxygen
3. Heat or Ignition Source
4. The chemical chain reaction
37
Which one of the four in the fire tetrahedron does foam remove to stop a fire?
Oxygen
38
The degree or ease of ignition with regards to a fire is known as ?
Flash Point
39
Which has more explosive potential - Avgas or Jet A?
Avgas
40
Where is the FAA's major efforts made to reduce or eliminate fire or explosion risk?
Identifying and preventing ignition sources
41
Name sources of ignition (6)
1. Lightning
2. Open Flame
3. electrical spark
4. static discharge
5. chemical reaction
6. Any heat source that can raise/ignite the fuel-air vapor mix
42
Material with a flash point over 100 degrees is what?
Combustible
43
Avgas has a flash point below 100 degrees, it is considered what?
Flammable
44
Flammable material has a flash point and vapor pressure of what
Below 100 F and/or a vapor pressure below 40 psi
45
What is the primary role of terminal operations?
To keep people and vehicles moving safely and efficiently
46
What programs have been shown to be effective in improving the passenger experience in terminals?
Airport Ambassador Programs
47
What do airport ambassadors typically provide in a terminal?
Information and assistance to passengers
48
What significant challenges have hampered the ability of the Airport Executive to provide a positive customer experience to passengers? (3 answers)
1. Airline Pricing
2. Staffing
3. Operational Models
49
What have many airports done to counter the issues of travel experience for passengers? (5 answers)
1. Hired their own customer service personnel
2. Created information booths
3. Hired contractors to manage line queues
4. Brought in therapy dogs
5. Play calming music throughout the the terminal
50
What does a good experience at an airport lead to? ( 3 answers)
1. Customer Loyalty
2. Positive word of mouth marketing
3. Increased non-aeronautical revenue
51
What is a second hand effect of Airport Executives managing the customer satisfaction process?
1. More safety and security because passengers are more orderly
52
What terminal process consists of touch-screen monitors at the counters or kiosks set up in the terminal which allow a passenger to complete the functions that a ticket agent would normally perform?
Self Ticketing
53
What does self ticketing do to help airlines?
It helps the airline reduce labor requirements
54
Efforts to reduce congestion at the ticket counter have resulted in an increased use of what outside the terminal?
curbside check-in
55
Ticketing congestion has been reduced my placing what computerized mechanism throughout terminals?
Flight Information Display Systems (FIDS)
56
What do Flight Information Display Systems (FIDS) typically display? ( 2 answers)
Information regarding
1) Airlines
2) the Airport
57
What is the name of the system to reduce ticketing congestion with computerized mechanisms throughout the terminal hosted by the airport and not a single airline?
Multi-User Flight Information Display Systems (FIDS)
58
What are the five essential customer touch points Airport Executives can use to positively influence the passenger experience?
1. Physical
2. Subliminal
3. Communicative
4. Procedural
5. Human
59
The essential customer touch point that one might experience by visiting an airport website is?
Communicative
60
The essential customer touch point that one might experience by the where the restrooms are located in an airport is
Physical
61
The essential customer touch point that one might experience when going through the security checkpoint is?
Procedural
62
The essential customer touch point that one might experience by the overall atmosphere of an airport is?
Subliminal
63
The essential customer touch point that one might experience when they have an interaction with the ground based flight crew is
Human
64
An airport employee who purchases food at the airport is considered what kind of airport customer?
External Customer
65
An airline employee purchasing a reduced fare flight ticket from their own airline is considered what kind of customer at the airport?
Internal Customer
66
What are some examples of an external customer?
1. Passengers
2. Visitors (meeters-greeters)
3. Airport Employees buying food at the airport
4. People doing business at the airport
67
What is the definition of an internal customer?
Internal customers are employees or business departments who receive services from other employees or business departments of the same organization
68
At any given time it is estimated that what % of the airport passenger population has a special or functional need?
15%
69
What do customers expect of terminal facilities? (6 items)
1. Clean
2. Short Lines
3. Clear wayfinding
4. Friendly Staff
5. Ease of access
6. Comfortable Gate waiting areas
70
What do airport customers expect with concessions?
| 3 items
1. Good Food
2. Good Value (not too much above street pricing)
3. Relaxed open airport ambience
71
The airport can set the level of customer service for the airport, communicate the airport brand, ensure a reliable level of performance, and manage customer expectations by publishing what?
Airport Customer Service Standards
72
What should Airport Customer Service Standards focus on? (5)
1. Condition/Cleanliness
2. Efficiency
3. Employee Behavior and knowledge
4. Wayfinding
5. Ways to minimize construction effects on customers
73
One use what to size food and beverage services?
Applying Use Factors
74
How does one determine a Use Factor with regards to sizing a food and beverage service?
Divide daily average transactions by the average daily enplanements
75
What are some examples of specialty retail kiosks in a terminal? (3 examples)
1. ATM
2. Foreign Exchange Services
3. Internet Kiosks
76
What is the definition of a concessionaire?
Companies that have been granted a contract to provide goods or services at the airport
77
What are some examples of concession minimum operating requirements at an airport? (3 answers)
1. Hours of operation
2. cleanliness
3. other standards of customer service performance
78
A robust concession program can increase what two things at an airport?
1. Internal Revenue
| 2. Customer Satisfaction
79
The success of a concessionaire is based on what factors? (5 factors)
1. Passenger Volume
2. Quality/Variety of concessions
3. Amount of Intl. traffic
4. Terminal Configuration
5. Customer Dwell time
80
Recent trends regarding terminal concessions show that passengers are looking for what kind of food options?
Healthier options
81
Effective concession placement can also assist with ________ by locating Flight Information Display Screens (FIDS) close to concessions and gate areas
Airport operational efficiencies
82
The timely collection and dissemination of airport condition information to air carriers especially relating to unsafe conditions or nonconformance with FAA standards or the Airport Certification Manual is required under what FAR?
Part 139
83
The primary system to convey safety information to airport users is known as what?
NOTAMs
84
Define a NOTAM
A notice containing information that is not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means about the establishment, condition, or change in component the timely knowledge in which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operation.
85
A notice containing information that is not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means about the establishment, condition, or change in component the timely knowledge in which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operation is what?
NOTAM
86
NOTAMs are used to disseminate information of unanticipated or temporary changes to components or hazards in the National Airspace System (NAS) until what publications can be ammended?
Aeronautical Charts
87
Airport operators have a duty to put out NOTAMs regarding what at an airport? (2 answers)
Changes in
1. Airport Procedures
2. Physical Facilities
88
According to Part 139.343 Noncomplying conditions what happens if an element of Part 139 is no longer met?
Air carrier activity in that area must be halted
89
Due to construction, Runway 15/33 of the airfield is no longer accessible by the ARFF facility. A private pilot is flying in and requests use of Runway 15/33 what happens?
He is allowed. Part 139 only refers to air carrier operations
90
Due to construction, Runway 15/33 of the airfield is no longer accessible by the ARFF facility. An airliner is flying in and requests use of Runway 15/33 what happens?
This is not allowed. Due to noncomplying conditions, Air carrier activity in that area must be halted
91
Who has overall national management responsibility for the NOTAM system?
National Flight Data Center (NFDC)
92
Any NOTAM that is not part of the military system is considered what kind of NOTAM?
Civil
93
Chilicothe Municipal Airport in Missouri has some snow on the runway. What kind of NOTAM does the airport manager issue?
Field Condition (FICON) NOTAM
94
The Cleveland ARTCC has issued a NOTAM regarding a Temporary Flight Restriction affecting 12 of the areas airports. What kind of NOTAM is this?
Center Area NOTAM
95
There is a Navy fighter pilot exercise going on overhead, what type of NOTAM is issued
Military NOTAM
96
Farmington Regional Airport allows pilots to call in their own NOTAMs regarding field conditions under a Letter of Agreement. Until the NOTAM is confirmed by airport management, this kind of NOTAM is considered what?
A (U) NOTAM
97
On September 11, 2001 a NOTAM was issued which called all flight operations to cease. What kind of NOTAM was this?
FDC NOTAM
98
What kind of NOTAM is issued locally and/or beyond the area of responsibility of a Flight Service Station?
NOTAM (D)
99
At Cape Girardeau airport there was a change in Instrument Approach procedure and it has not been updated in the aeronautical charts yet. What needs to be issued?
An FDC NOTAM
100
Lee's Summit airport just had a construction project temporarily disable the runway High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL) what needs to be issued?
A NOTAM (D)
101
An airport is permitted to notify air carrier offices and tenants by telephone, fax, computer, etc. as long as these alternative methods are identified and approved in what?
Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
102
FICON Notam issuance is whose responsibility?
Airport Management is responsible for field condition notification
103
If a Letter of Agreement exists, who besides Airport Management can issue a FICON NOTAM?
ATCT
104
A NOTAM includes what information? 5 Items
1. Affected Airport facility and component
2. Description of the affected component that prompted the NOTAM
3. The period of time the component will be affected
4. Name, Address, Phone # of person issuing the NOTAM
5. Who will be receiving copies of the NOTAM
105
NOTAM issuance procedures at an airport with air carrier service are required documentation in what document?
Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
106
Airports certificated under Part 139 must describe what regarding NOTAMs in their Airport Certification Manual (ACM)? (2 answers)
1. NOTAM issuance procedures
| 2. A list of personnel authorized to issue NOTAMs for the Airport
107
What is required so that an airport manager can quickly access NOTAMs that are in effect and those that are not?
a NOTAM log
108
Who disseminates an FDC NOTAM?
National Flight Data Center (NFDC)
109
Most airports use a software called NOTAM manager, which provides a tie in to what system?
FAA's Digital NOTAM system
110
Who approves NOTAMs and posts them electronically within seconds?
Flight Service Specialists
111
What is the core of the Part 139 FAA overview process? (3 Things)
1. FAA Certifies a commercial service Airport
2. FAA approves the standards for which the airport will be operated through the Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
3. FAA periodically checks for compliance
112
Whose primary responsibility is it to ensure compliance with the Airport Certification Manual?
Airport Operator through the inspection process
113
Title 14 Part 139 requires the airport operator to have an airport safety ____________ program that monitors specific airport conditions in order to identify when prompt corrective actions must be taken
Self-inspection
114
An effective __________ program enables the airport operator to conduct uninterrupted day-to-day operations in compliance with _________ standards
Self Inspection
| Part 139
115
Primary attention in self inspection is given to what operational items? (12)
1. Pavement Areas
2. Safety Areas
3. Signs, Marking, Lights
4. Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting
5. Fueling Operations
6. Navaids
7. Ground Vehicles
8. Obstructions
9. Public Protection
10. Wildlife Hazard Management
11. Construction
12. Snow and Ice Control
116
Who has overall supervision and responsibility of an air carrier apron with regard to Part 139 inspection?
Airport Management
117
What are the 4 components of safety self-inspection
1. Regularly Scheduled Inspection
2. Periodic Inspection
3. Continuous Surveillance Inspection
4. Special Inspection
118
This type of inspection is made after an unusual event or complaint.
Special Inspection
119
What kind of inspection is made based on airport conditions that develop gradually
Periodic Inspection
120
Airport Fueling operations should be inspected in what way?
Continuous Inspection
121
At what times should regularly scheduled inspections occur?
1. 1 inspection before the beginning of air carrier flight operations during the day.
2. At least one at night if night air carrier operations are to be conducted
122
An inspection that occurs after a thunderstorm would be considered what kind of inspection?
Special Inspection
123
Inspection of FOD is considered what kind of inspection?
Continuous Inspection
124
What 3 items should a Part 139 Inspector Carry
1. VHF Radio
2. Checklist of items to inspect
3. Airport Layout Map
125
Inspection of suveying pavement for rubber build up is considered what kind of inspection?
Periodic Inspection
126
At the end of construction activity to ensure no unsafe conditions remain is considered what kind of inspection
Special Inspection
127
Checking navigational aids is considered what kind of inspection
Periodic Inspection
128
When is best practice times to conduct regularly scheduled inspections?
During times when aircraft activity is minimal to create the least impact on operations
129
Surveillance of Wildlife activities is considered what kind of inspection
Continuous
130
Surveying for faded signs is considered what kind of inspection
Periodic
131
Where should special inspections be documented?
On the appropriate portions of the regularly scheduled inspection check list
132
An effective safety self inspection program includes procedures for what?
Reporting and correcting deficiencies
133
Why is it important to use a safety self-inspection checklist?
Because it
1) constitutes as a written record of conditions noted
2) acts as a check on follow up actions taken
134
What should the operator do to report conditions that could have an immediate and critical impact on safety of aircraft operations
Issue a NOTAM
135
Regularly Scheduled inspection Checklists must be retained for Part 139 airports for how long?
12 Consecutive Calendar Months
136
A regularly schedule inspection checklist is made on 10/14/2017. When must it be retained until?
10/31/2018
137
A regularly scheduled inspection checklist is made on 3/2/2018. When must it be retained until
3/31/2019
138
Airport personnel that conduct self safety inspections should receive training in the following areas? (6)
1. Airport Familiarization
2. Airport Emergency Plan
3. NOTAM Procedures
4. Procedures for handling pedestrians and ground vehicles in the movement area
5. Airport inspection procedures and discrepancy reporting
6. Knowledge and use of correct radio communication phraseology as specified in the Aeronautic Information Manual
139
If construction is in progress inspectors should be familiar with what document?
Construction Safety Plan
140
Sufficiently Qualified Personnel Exist if ________
All the requirements of the Airport Certification Manual (ACM) are properly performed
141
If all the requirements of the Airport Certification Manual (ACM) are properly performed then _________ exist.
Sufficiently Qualified Personnel
142
Personnel with routine access and necessity to the movement area must receive _________
Initial Training
143
After receiving initial training, personnel with routine access and necessity to the movement area must receive recurrent training every __________
12 months
144
Recurrent training for personnel with routine access and necessity to the movement area happens every 12 months on what?
Operations and safety measures withing the Airport Movement Area (AMA)
145
Part 139 requires airports to keep and maintain records on what data? (4)
1. Training
2. Inspection
3. Incident
4. Condition
146
Records of training for personnel who are allowed to operate in the movement area and individuals trained as inspectors under the self-inspection program are required to be kept for?
24 CCM
147
What programs provide record keeping functions for Part 139 compliance?
AAAE's Interactive Employee Training (IET) learning management system
148
As part of Part 139 the following records must be kept for 12 consecutive calendar months? (4)
1. Airfield Inspection Reports
2. NOTAMs
3. Fueling Inspections
4. Accident and Incident Reports
149
Which kinds of runway lights have steps in intensity?
High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL)
| Medium Intensity Runway Lights (MIRL)
150
Which number is typically the highest intensity for runway lights?
7
151
Many airports that are not staffed 24 hours install what kind of lighting?
Pilot Controlled Lighting
152
How does Pilot Controlled Lighting Work?
The pilot keys the aircraft's radio microphone with a switch a predetermined number of times
153
What are 2 pros for Pilot Controlled Lighting?
1. Safer for pilots
| 2. Reduce's airports operating and maintenance costs
154
What color are runway edge lights typically?
White
155
When are runway edge lights not white?
1) on instrument runways when:
| 2) yellow edge lights replace the white the last 2,000 feet or 1/2 the runway length whichever is less
156
What color are runway centerline lights typically?
White in the direction of landing
157
When are runway centerline lights not white?
If the following are true
1) On a precision runway
2) 3000' left on the runway to 1000' left on the runway alternates red/white
3) At 1000' left, turns all red
158
What color are taxiway centerline lights?
Green
159
What color are taxiway edge lights?
Blue
160
Fergus Falls airport has a 3,000' instrument runway. What color are the runway edge lights in the direction of landing with 1,700' left to go before the end of the runway?
White
| yellow edge lights replace the white the last 2,000 feet or 1/2 the runway length whichever is less
161
New Ulm airport has a 5,000' precision approach runway. What color are the runway edge lights and centerline lights in the direction of landing with 1,200' left to go before the end of the runway?
Edge: Yellow
Centerline: Alternating Red/White
162
What color are taxiway lead on/lead off lights?
Alternate Yellow and Green
163
What color are threshold lights?
Split lens
1) In the direction of the end of the runway to departing aircraft they are red
2) In the direction of the beginning of the runway to arriving aircraft they are green
164
American Airlines flight 181 is arriving at Duluth Airport. What color are the threshold lights as it approaches the runway?
Green
165
Where are tolerance for lighting outages listed?
Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
166
What is required whenever lighting system standards are not met?
NOTAM
167
What is Runway Visual Range (RVR) and Surface Movement Guidance and Control Systems? (SMGCS)
A system of guidance, control, and regulation of all aircraft, ground vehicles, and personnel on the movement areas during low visibility conditions
168
The intent of _________ is to prevent collisions and to ensure traffic flows smoothly and freely in low visibility conditions
Surface Movement Guidance and Control Systems (SMGCS)
169
How are guidance and regulation of aircraft with regards to Surface Movement Guidance and Control Systems? (SMGCS) accomplished? (6)
1. Surface Markings
2. Stop Bar lights
3. Runway status lights
4. clearance bar lights
5. hold-position lights
6. Training
170
What item on the airport helps to identify the airport location and area to the pilot?
Rotating Beacon
171
What is the angle of a rotating beacon?
2-10 degrees above the horizon
172
What color is a civil land airport beacon?
Green and White
173
What does a beacon on during the day mean?
It represents conditions below visual flight rules
174
Where must changes regarding a light system be updated?
Airport Facility Directory (A/FD)
175
What color are the stop bar lights for an airport that require a Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)
Red
176
Under title 1542, all commercial service airports must designate whom?
An Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)
177
The Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) is the ______________________ for federal government security issues?
Primary Contact
178
Where is the scope of the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) responsibilities found?
Part 1542
179
Who is the primary contact for federal government security issues?
Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)
180
What are the roles played by the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) (9)
1. Ensures compliance with federal regulations
2. Develops and seeks approval for the Airport Security Program (ASP)
3. Responsible for enforcing the ASP
4. In charge of the airport access control system
5. In charge of airport perimeter security
6. In charge of credentialing
7. Personnel identification system
8 Manager of the air carrier and tenant security programs
9. Ensures security contingency plans are drafted
181
What specific security role is not led by the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)
Security Screening Process
182
Who processes applications from individuals seeking access to secure areas of the airport
Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)
183
Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) develops and seeks approval of what document?
Airport Security Program (ASP)
184
The Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) immediately correct conditions that do not comply with which FAR PART?
1542
185
Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) immediately applies what documents from the TSA?
Security Directives
186
Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) serves as a liaison between what two groups regarding sharing information about security issues
Air Carrier Station Manager
| Foreign Air Carrier Operator
187
How often does an established Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) need to undergo training?
Never as long as it is continuous service
188
John Adams was the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) from 2011-2016. He took a year break and resumed his role in 2017. Does Mr. Adams need retraining?
No. Once trained the ASC does not need to undergo retraining (except for site specific information if they change airports), unless there has been a two or more year break in service as an active and designated ASC.
189
No airport operator may use or designate any person as an Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) unless that individual has completed
Training to prepare the individual to perform the duties of the position
190
What does the "A" in ARFF stand for?
Aircraft
191
The ARFF Index is based on what?
Longest Air Carrier aircraft serving five or more average daily departures
192
ARFF Index A is how long of an aircraft?
<90'
193
ARFF Index B is how long of an aircraft?
90' - 125'
194
ARFF Index C is how long of an aircraft?
126' - 159'
195
ARFF Index D is how long of an aircraft?
160' - 200'
196
ARFF Index E is how long of an aircraft?
>200'
197
Lawton Airport has 2 Index D aircrafts daily, 4 Index C aircrafts daily, 20 Index B. What is the appropriate ARFF index for this facility?
Index C. If there are fewer than five average daily departures, the next lower index applies
198
Stillwater Airport is a part 139 airport with 3 daily Index A aircrafts. What is the ARFF index for this facility?
Index A. For Part 139 certificated airports, the minimum index level is Index A.
199
What 2 criteria are used to calculate ARFF index
Aircraft Length and frequency of service
200
Aircraft Length and Frequency are used to calculate ARFF index and __________________
The # of ARFF vehicles required
201
What is #1 ARFF priority
Saving Lives
202
Whats is #2 ARFF priority
Extinguish the fire
203
What is the performance requirement for the first ARFF vehicle?
from its assigned post, the first responding ARFF equipment must reach the mid-point of the furthest air carrier runway and begin to apply the firefighting agent within three minutes from the time the alarm sounds with all required onboard personnel in full protective gear?
204
What is the performance requirement for the all other ARFF vehicles after the first?
They must reach the same point within 4 minutes
205
How long is the survivability window after a fuselage fire?
3 minutes
206
How long does it take to burn a fuselage skin?
90 seconds
207
When the cabin reaches what temperature is it no longer considered survivable?
400 degrees
208
How many ARFF personnel on duty must be trained in basic medical care?
1
209
What agency the airport liaison agent work for
FBI
210
What does the airport liaison agent do?
1. Gives info to the airport
| 2. Serves on airport security consortium
211
What personnel are charged with protecting federal facilities like courthouses and federal buildings.
Federal Protective Services
212
Transportation Security Requirements are under what code?
Title 49 Part 1500 series
213
What is Title 49 Part 1542
Airport Security
214
What is Title 49 Part 1544
Domestic Aircraft Security
215
What does Title 49 Part 1542 cover?
Security at commercial service airports
216
Who is the primary contact for the federal government for security issues at the airport?
Airport Security Coordinator
217
What is the primary job for the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)?
Primary Contact for the federal government on security issues at the airport
218
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Managing Queues at screening checkpoints?
ASC
219
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Security Staffing?
FSD
220
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Seeks approval from TSA for the Airport Security Program (ASP)?
ASC
221
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Approval of the Airport Security Program (ASP)?
FSD
222
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Screening of checked baggage?
FSD
223
Whose responsibility? Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Airport Access Control System
ASC
224
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......management of air carrier and tenant security program?
ASC
225
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
.....Aircraft operator compliance inspections?
FSD
226
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Develops the Airport Security Program (ASP)?
ASC
227
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Screening of passengers?
FSD
228
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Airport Perimeter Security?
ASC
229
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Credentialing Program?
ASC
230
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Oversight of the Canine Program?
FSD
231
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Ensuring contingency plans are drafted and can be implemented?
ASC
232
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Screening of carry-on baggage?
FSD
233
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
......Security of sterile area exits?
ASC
234
Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
.....24 hour contact for communications with the TSA?
ASC
235
What title is directly responsible for the collection and processing of personally identifiable information and sensitive information?
Trusted Agent
236
What four things make airport police airport police
1. Arrest Authority
2. Carry a weapon
3. Trained
4. Identifiable (uniform, badge)
237
What one area of security holds police to a maximum response time?
Alarm at a screening checkpoint
238
The Gerardo Hernandez act required airport operators to have:
Active shooter response plans
239
Airports are expected to have an effective _____, _____, and _____ plan for hijackings and bombings
mitigation, response, recovery
240
Safety conscious organization actively utilizes 4 different items
1. Set of Standards
2. Investigations and resolutions of incidents
3. Internal Reporting System
4. Individuals trained to recognize unsafe conditions
241
Hazards eliminated or reduced means:
A good airport operation
242
users informed of non-compliant conditions means:
A good airport operation
243
records properly maintained means:
A good airport operation
244
What involves identifying hazards and eliminating them specifically or the chain of elements leading to the hazard?
Accident Prevention
245
What three items make up the chain of events that cause an accident?
1. Improper design of a component
2. Safeguards
3. Employee decision making
246
If an airport has how many total operations does it require SMS?
100,000
247
What size airports are required to use SMS?
Large, Medium, Small Hub Airports
248
What are the four elements of SMS?
1. Safety Policy
2. Safety Promotion
3. Safety Risk Management
4. Safety Assurance
249
Which Safety Management System (SMS) element includes training and communication?
Safety Promotion
250
Which Safety Management System (SMS) element establishes senior management's commitment to continually improve safety?
Safety Policy
251
Which Safety Management System (SMS) element determines the need for and adequacy of new or revised risk controls
Safety Risk Management
252
Which Safety Management System (SMS) element includes creating a positive safety culture within all levels of the workforce
Safety Promotion
253
Which Safety Management System (SMS) element evaluates the continued effectiveness of implemented risk control strategies
Safety Assurance
254
Which Safety Management System (SMS) element defines the methods processes and organizational structures needed to meet safety goals?
Safety Policy
255
Which Safety Management System (SMS) element supports the identification of new hazards?
Safety Assurance
256
If an Airport Certification Manual (ACM) is approved by the FAA what is issued
Airport Operating Certificate (AOC)
257
FAA issues Airport Operating Certificates to what two kinds of airport
1. Scheduled and Unscheduled air carrier >30 Seats
| 2. Scheduled air carrier between 9-30 seats
258
How many seats are on a scheduled small air carrier aircraft?
9-30
259
A Class IV airport serves what sort of aircraft?
Large Unscheduled Air Carrier Aircraft
260
A Class II Airport serves what sort of aircraft?
Small scheduled
| Large Unscheduled
261
A Class I Airport serves what sort of aircraft?
Large Scheduled
Small Scheduled
Large Unscheduled
262
A Class III Airport serves what sort of Aircraft?
Small Scheduled
263
A Joint Use Airport means what?
The military owns the airport and has leased a portion of the airport
264
On a Joint Use Airport where does Part 139 apply?
Wherever air carriers operate
265
With regards to Part 139, what is the term that typically identify unusual operational characteristics like when operations can only happen on specific runways due to pavement strength?
Limitations
266
With regards to Part 139, what is the term for relief to an airport operator for a particular requirement of Part 139?
Exemptions
267
With regards to Part 139, what is the term for when an airport must violate Part 139 due to an emergency condition?
Deviation
268
With regards to Part 139, which term is a used when there is a legal document granting an airport relief from a regulatory requirement of Part 139?
Exemption
269
A request from an airport manager for an exemption becomes a ____________ and necessitates review by ____________
Rule Making Action
| FAA Legal Staff
270
What happens when a requirement in Part 139, Subpart D - operations can't be met so uncorrected and unsafe conditions exist on the airport?
Certificate holder must confine operations to the portion of the airfield not rendered unsafe
271
What is term in Part 139 that discusses when operations can't be met so uncorrected and unsafe conditions exist on the airport?
Noncomplying Conditions
272
At Texarkana Airport, due to old pavement, a plane tonnage limit has been put on Taxiway C. What is the term with regards to Part 139 that describes this tonnage limit?
A limitation
273
How soon must an airport operator notify the FAA of a deviation?
14 days
274
At Fort Smith Airport, a Part 139 certificated Non Hub Primary airport, their ARFF responded to an emergency off airport and was not sufficiently staffed as commercial aircraft continued to land. Is this a deviation?
No. This is a violation of Part 139
275
What does a violation of Part 139 result in? (3)
1. FAA Administrative Action
2. Civil Penalty
3. Suspension/Revocation of the Airport Operating Certification (AOC)
276
How often does Part 139 allow the FAA to inspect a facility?
At Any time
277
What branch of the FAA inspects Part 139 airport annually?
Airport Certification Branch
278
Part 139 requires airports to keep and maintain records on what data? (5)
1. Training
2. Inspection
3. Condition
4. Incident
5. Accident
279
What records need to be maintained for 24 consecutive calendar months?
1. Training of personnel allowed in the movement areas
| 2. Individuals trained as inspectors for self inspection
280
According to the FAA $1 spent on preventative maintenance early in the life of pavement is....
$4-5 in repairs later in the life of the pavement
281
Airports should have a comprehensive ______________ to ensure that pavement issues are addressed as soon as possible and that there is a long-term strategic plan for the ongoing maintenance and replacement of paved surfaces.
Airfield Pavement Management System (APMS)
282
What are the 4 categories of pavement markings?
1. Runway
2. Taxiway
3. Hold Positions
4. Others
283
What 3 pavement markings are common to every runway?
1. Centerline
2. Designator
3. Hold Markings
284
What 5 pavement markings are common to Non-Precision Approach Runways
1. Centerline
2. Designator
3. Hold Markings
4. Aiming Points
5. Threshold
285
What 7 pavement markings are common to Precision Approach Runways
1. Centerline
2. Designator
3. Hold Markings
4. Aiming Points
5. Threshold
6. Touchdown Zone Stripes
7. Runway Side Stripes
286
What color are the markings for runways and helicopter landing areas?
White
287
What color are the markings for hospital helicopter pads?
Red
288
What color are Taxiway centerlines and holdpositions?
Yellow
289
What Advisory Circular has information on Pavement Markings?
AC 5340-1
290
Certain Airfield Markings require what two extra items?
1. Black Outlines
| 2. Glass Beads
291
How far down past the approach end of the runway are aiming points located
1,000'
292
How far spaced are Touchdown Zone Markings?
500' Intervals
293
Aiming points are required on Instrument approach runways what distance or greater?
4,200'
294
_____________ Are a number of longitudinal lines that identify the beginning of the runway
Runway Threshold Bars
295
What are the reasons for a displaced threshold? (4)
1. Obstacle Clearance
2. Obstruction in the runway approach
3. Noise Abatement
4. Construction
296
What are the requirements to have aiming points on a visual approach runway? (2)
1. Greater than 4,200' long
| 2. Serves airplane approach category (AAC) C or D
297
Arrows and arrowheads help to identify and locate a ________________________
Displaced Threshold
298
Describe the physical marking difference between a demarcation bar and a displaced threshold
Displaced Threshold - 10' Wide White Bar
| Demarcation Bar- 3' Wide Painted Yellow
299
Chevrons indicate the unusable area preceding what marking?
Demarcation Bar
300
Demarcation bars distinguish the difference between the runway and what 3 things?
1. Taxiway
2. Blast Pad
3. Stopway
301
Thick Dashed Yellow Lines denote what kind of pavement marking?
Taxiway Holding Position
302
A yellow solid line and a dashed marking adjacent to each other denote what kind of pavement marking?
Non-Movement Area Boundary
303
An enhanced taxiway marking are installed how many feet prior to the hold marking?
150'
304
Yellow solid double line defines what?
1. Edge of usable, full strength taxiway
| 2. Adjoining pavement is not intended for use by aircraft
305
A VOR Ground Marking Sign is what color?
Black letters on a yellow background
306
Where is a common application for a yellow dashed double line?
Taxi route along the outer edge of a terminal apron
307
Describe A VOR ground checkpoint marking. (4)
1. 2 Concentric Circles
2. Outside circle - white
3. Inside Circle -yellow
4. Yellow Arrow
308
What two markings are required on taxiways at public use airports?
1. Taxiway Centerline
| 2. Hold Markings
309
When are shoulder stripe markings required on visual and non-precision runways?
When the full runway pavement is not available for use as a runway
310
What is required to cross a runway hold-position marking onto a runway?
1. Authorization from ATCT if it's in operation
311
When does the pilot announce he is clear of the runway?
After they have crossed the dashed and solid lines of the runway hold position marking
312
What does a Yellow-Ladder type surface marking indicate?
The boundaries of certain navigational equipment sensitive areas. Aircraft and vehicles should be kept clear during IFR conditions
313
This pavement marking is two concentric circles - outside white and inside yellow - with a yellow arrow
VOR Ground Checkpoint marking
314
This line is a continuous white line and is required on precision instrument runways
Shoulder Stripe Markings
315
Yellow dashed double line defines what?
1. Edge where adjoining pavement is USABLE
316
A __________, typically a surface painted marking, is located in an area large enough for an aircraft to maneuver and align to the different magnetic headings indicated on the pavement.
Compass rose
317
When is a segmented circle required?
At airports serving air carrier operations and when no control tower is in operation
318
What is a compass rose used for?
To help calibrate the aircraft magnetic compass
319
What is at the middle of a segmented circle?
Surface wind indicator
320
A wind indicator can be one of 2 things
1. Wind sock
| 2. Wind Tee
321
What are the two colors a segmented circle can be?
1. White
| 2. Yellow
322
What extends from a segmented circle?
Landing Strip indicator
323
How many landing strip indicators are there per segmented circle
As many as there are runways
324
Wind socks typically have a minimum opening diameter of how many inches?
18"
325
What wind speeds does the wind sock indicate?
5-50 MPH
326
What is the typical color of a wind cone? (3)
White, yellow, or orange
327
What color is the support structure of a wind cone?
Orange
328
How many wind cones are required at an airport used for Part 139?
One for each runway available
329
Where are supplemental wind cones installed?
1. The end of each runway
| Or 2. A point visible to the pilot while on final approach and prior to takeoff
330
When must a windcone be lit? (2)
1. Air carrier operating airports
| 2. during darkness
331
The longevity of pavement is highly dependent on an airport pavement management system that focuses on _______________
Preventative Maintenance
332
Airport pavement is engineered for a minimum of _______ years structural life
20 years
333
To get 20 years of structural life out of pavement it is expected the airport performs ____________
Regular preventative maintenance
334
The FAA requires a pavement maintenance program that includes (5)
1. Pavement Inventory
2. Annual Inspections
3. Periodic Inspections
4. Record Keeping system
5. Identification of maintenance program funding
335
What is the greatest single cause of pavement deterioration?
Lack of adequate maintenance
336
Part 139 requires a __________ inspection of airport pavements in the movement area
Daily
337
In addition to daily pavement inspections, _____________ inspections should be conducted ___________
Periodic Maintenance Inspections
| Twice a year
338
Whose obligation is it to prevent the over-stressing of airport pavements?
Airport Operator
339
Which paved areas must be inspected daily before the beginning of commercial flight and again at night if night air carrier operations take place? (2)
1. All paved areas that are the responsibility of the operator
2. Or as specified in the Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
340
Nantucket's airport's pavement is rated to handle up to 80,000 lbs. They just received service from Aeromass who wants to use 120,000 lb aircraft. The aircraft manager can't turn down that opportunity and allows it, and the pavement starts to break down. What happens?
It is the airport operator's responsibility to not overstress the pavement.
The cost to restore the pavement may not be eligible for Federal funding
341
Worcester airport operates from 6 AM - 6 PM and has daily service to Boston and Hyannis. How often must they inspect the pavement
Once daily before commercial flight operations
342
Vineyard Haven airport has flights to Boston, Hyannis, and Provincetown during the day with an overnight flight to JFK as well. How often must they inspect the pavement?
Twice.
| Once daily before commercial flight operations and once at night
343
What does the checklist for a daily pavement inspection include?
1. Any pavement edges exceeding 3" as well as cracks and holes
2. Cracks or surface deterioration that may cause FOD
3. Pavement edge obstructions that may impede water
4. Rubber deposits from aircraft tires
5. Condition of Pavement Markings
6. Loose joint seal material
344
Define a hole (3)
1. 5" in diamter
2. 3" in depth
3. Inside slope greater than 45 degrees
345
Each FBI office that has an airport within its jurisdiction has an assigned agent to handle aviation security issues known as a(n) _____________
Airport Liaison Agent (ALA)
346
What is an Airport Liaison Agent (ALA) responsible for?
1. Disseminating relevant threat information to Airport operators and law enforcement personnel
2. Serving on the airport's security consortium
3. Liaison to both commercial service and GA airports
347
When a major plane crash occurs, what agency must be notified?
FBI
348
Who takes over as lead in aircraft accident investigation?
NTSB
349
If there is information that points the crash was possibly tied to terrorism or crime, who takes over as lead investigators?
FBI
350
What agency operates the Joint Terrorism Task Force?
FBI
351
What entity consists of FBI personnel, state and local police, and intelligence personnel focused on preventing terrorism and arresting terrorists?
Joint Terrorism Task Force
352
What person from the FBI must be notified whenever there is an act or potential act of unlawful interference with aviation (including air rage)
Airport Liaison Agent (ALA)
353
Airport Liaison Agent (ALA) should be contacted for any incidents such as (4)
1. Air Rage
2 Discovery of an explosive at the airport or on an aircraft
3. Bomb threats
4. Hijacking
354
Who is designated lead agency at an airport in the case of a security related incident? FBI or TSA?
FBI
355
Who is typically lead agency until the FBI can show up?
Airport Police
356
By regulation who from TSA can take over as the incident commander?
Federal Security Director
357
What is considered the security front door of an airport?
The security checkpoint
358
What primarily addresses the security back door?
The Airport Security Program
359
The four security areas of an airport are what?
1. Secure Area
2. Sterile Area
3. SIDA
4. Air Operations Area
360
This security area must be visually identified (most often by signs). Access must be controlled through lock and key
Air Operations Area
361
What is considered part of the Air Operations Area
The entire airfield except where secure areas are located
362
This area begins at the security checkpoint and extends to the doors leading outside to the airfield
Sterile Area
363
Who controls the sterile area? (3)
1. TSA
2. The airport operator (through employee credentials)
3. Aircraft Operator
364
This area can be part of a secured area or Air Operations Area
Security Identification Display Area (SIDA)
365
Which security area has the lowest level of access control requirements?
The Air Operations Area
366
Which area has the highest level of access controls?
Secured area
367
What type of security system does the secured area require? (3)
1. A system that can validate access
2. Distinguish the individual's access authority, and
3. Deny access immediately
368
What security does a SIDA need?
A SIDA doesn't have access control requirements without being incorporated into the AOA or a secured area
369
Where might a standalone SIDA be found?
Inside a cargo facility on commercial service airports.
370
What makes a SIDA unique?
You must display an airport approved identification badge
371
If aircraft operators want to control the access and movements of employees within leased areas they may be eligible to sign a(n) _____________
Exclusive Area Agreement
372
What is a benefit of an exclusive area agreement (EAA)
It fees up resources and money for the airport
373
What system is used to control the flow of authorized personnel but not passengers
Physical Access Control System (PACS)
374
An Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA) means there is an amendment in what document?
Airport Security Program (ASP)
375
Who must approve an Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA)?
TSA
376
What program is similar to an Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA) but is for non air carrier users?
Airport Tenant Security Program (ATSP)
377
To control access between the security areas and public areas of an airport what system might be used?
Physical Access Control System (PACS)
378
Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA) apply to entities operating under __________
Title 49 CFR Part 1544 or 1546
379
What are the 3 requirements of a Physical Access Control System (PACS)
1. Monitor access to secured/sterile areas
2. Record attempts to access the area
3. Verify the holder of the ID is entitled to pass
4. For AOA access airport operator must explain how the access control measure will deter, detect, allow the airport to respond to a breach
380
San Francisco Airport has a PACS system at all locked doors to get from the sterile area to the secured area, but not in the air operations area. Is it required that a PACS monitor all access control points at the airport?
No. Less used access points can be controlled with a padlock and key
381
What is the percentage performance requirement for a PACS system?
99.99% or higher
382
A door that access security areas are know as ________ access points
Point of Denial
383
Who must respond to all door/gate alarms on access points that access a security area?
Airport Operator
384
Airport operators should require vehicles to have what to identify the vehicle on the airfield
Stickers or decals on BOTH sides
385
An Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) has what four sections?
1. Basic Plan
2. Functional Annexes
3. Hazard Specific Sections
4. Standard Operating Procedures
386
This section in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) are plans organized around the performance of broad tasks or wide-scale operations
Functional Annexes
387
This section in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) provide detailed instructions needed by an individual or organization to fulfill responsibilities and perform tasks assigned.
Standard Operating Procedures or checklists
388
This section in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) provides an overview of the airport's emergency response organization and its policies
Basic Plan
389
This section in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) provide additional information applicable to the performance of a function in a support of a particular item
Hazard Specific Sections
390
What two sections of the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) are considered stand alone?
Hazard Specific Sections and Standard Operating Procedures
391
What describes the FEMA comprehensive approach to emergency management?
National Incident Management Systems (NIMS)
392
What 3 set of standardized organizational structures does National Incident Management Systems (NIMS) provide?
1. Incident Command System
2. Multiagency Coordination Systems
3. Joint Public Information Systems
393
What is a management system designed to enable effective and efficient domestic incident management by integrated a combination of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications within a common organizational structure?
Incident Command System (ICS)
394
What are the 5 functional areas of Incident Command System (ICS)
1. Command
2. Operations
3. Planning
4. Logistics
5. Finance/Administration
395
The effectiveness of an emergency plan depends on what three critical elements?
1. Command
2. Control
3. Communication
396
Within the Incident Command System (ICS) what means that a procedure has been established that coordinates the activities of many participants so that the emergency is effectively resolved without duplication of resources?
Control
397
Within the Incident Command System (ICS) _______ refers to the ability to act with clearly defined authority and to dominate the actions of the many elements involved so that the objective is accomplished
Command
398
Within the Incident Command System (ICS) _______ acts as the “central nervous system” of the overall response
Communication
399
Within the Incident Command System (ICS) _______ defines who will assume authority and accept responsibility at the scene of the incident
Command
400
____________ is a structure where the main responding agency representatives work together to develop common incident goals and policies.
Unified Command
401
in order to meet the NIMS ICS standards, they have made certain modifications such as changing the term Incident Commander to _____________
Incident Coordinator
402
Is the airport executive always the incident coordinator?
No. Sometimes its best to let the airport executive concentrate on running an airport even during an emergency
403
The ____________ is responsible for managing the equipment and personnel of all responding units
Incident Commander
404
________________ command has proven to be the most effective use of decision making and delegation in intense situation
Single Command
405
Does the person leading an emergency response always have to be the same person? (3)
No, the individual may change depending on
1. scope
2. intensity, and
3. duration of the incident
406
What 3 additional responsibilities in minor incidents does the incident commander have?
1. Scene Safety
2. Liaison
3. Dissemination of information
407
This function within Incident Command System (ICS) is responsible for tactical challenges at the incident site
Operations
408
In incidents of long duration within the Incident Command System (ICS), the _________ function can be established
Planning
409
The _______ of Incident Command System (ICS) is responsible for facilities, services, personnel, equipment, and material in support of the incident
Logistics
410
In Incident Command System (ICS) ________ consist of those personnel that carry out the necessary actions to respond to an emergency.
Operations
411
This element in Incident Command System (ICS) is responsible for tracking all incident costs, evaluation budget considerations, completing cost analysis, and assuring reimbursement
Finance/Administration
412
________ phase of an emergency describes the relationship between the Airport Emergency Plan and other emergency response plans
Recovery Phase
413
What are the three key phases of an emergency
1. Response
2. Investigatory
3. Recovery
414
________ phase of an emergency may require some type of activity to gather and analyze information and the drawing of conclusions including determination of cause
Investigatory Phase
415
________ phase of an emergency are focused on the dispatch and arrival of emergency first responders
Response Phase
416
________ phase of an emergency is focused on returning the airport back to normal operation as soon as possible
Recovery Phase
417
In Incident Command System (ICS) this group of people include police, fire, ems, and airport maintenance personnel being used
Operations
418
After an accident you may not move the wreckage until who arrives?
NTSB Accident Investigator
419
Before NTSB arrives you may not move wreckage except for what 3 reasons
1. Remove Trapped or injured people
2. Protect wreckage from further damage
3. Protect the public from injury
420
If there is a significant accident the airport should immediately close and not reopen until? (4)
1. Aircraft operating areas are secure
2. Aircraft movement areas are properly inspected
3. Adequate ARFF protection is available
4. Public Safety is assured
421
Upon initial alert the following information should be obtained (7)
1. Aircraft ID
2. Nature of emergency
3. Quantity of fuel on board
4. Runway to be used
5. Number of occupants on board
6. Presence of hazardous materials
7 Location of aircraft
422
A(n) ___________ happens after an aircraft incident has occurred on or near the airport.
Alert III
423
A(n) ___________ happens if an aircraft is known or suspected to have an operational defect that should not normally cause serious difficulty in achieving a safe landing
Alert I
424
A(n) ___________ happens if an aircraft that is known or suspected to have an operational defect that affect normal flight operations.
Alert II
425
In this type of emergency alert, response units will be staffed and will stand by in quarters
Alert I
426
In this type of emergency alert, All designated emergency response units proceed to the scene according to established plans and procedures
Alert III
427
In this type of emergency alert, all units respond to pre-designated positions.
Alert II
428
These are exceptional events that require actions and/or capabilities beyond those considered usual by an airport operator
Irregular operations (IROPS)
429
What typically creates Irregular operations (IROPS)
Weather
430
Airport operators must take into account how to provide for the needs of stranded passengers during __________
Irregular operations (IROPS)
431
Irregular operations (IROPS) events are termed what? (4)
1. Surge
2. Capacity
3. After-Hours
4. Extended Stay
432
A(n) ________ Irregular operations (IROPS) occurs when an aircraft lands with passengers that need to deplane at irregular hours
After-Hours
433
A(n) ________ Irregular operations (IROPS) occurs when passengers and aircraft may be stuck at the airport for a day or more
Extended Stay
434
A(n) ________ Irregular operations (IROPS) occurs when a high level of aircraft and passengers flow into the airport
Surge
435
A(n) ________ Irregular operations (IROPS) occurs when all gates become full with aircraft
Capacity
436
Airport operators are required to submit a plan regarding lengthy tarmac delays that includes:
1. Provides for deplanement of passengers
2. Provide for sharing of facilities and making gates available at airports
3. Provide facility constraints
4. Provide a sterile area for those who have not cleared customs
437
To enhance taxiing capabilities in low visibility conditions and to reduce possible runway incursions you may have a ____________ at your airport
Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)
438
A Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) is required at any airport that has scheduled air carrier takeoff in visibility less than _______ feet RVR
1200'
439
Painted taxiway markings that complement light guidance and informational signs is included as part of ____________
Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)
440
A Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) is required at any airport that has________ takeoff in visibility less than 1200 feet RVR
Scheduled Air Carrier
441
A Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) requires what items (6)
1. In pavement runway guard lights
2. Green Centerline and lead on lights
3. Taxiway clearance bar lights
4. Gate designator/hold postion marking
5. Yellow Elevated runway guard lights (wig-wags)
6. In Pavement lights
442
___________ are designed to facilitate the pilot's transition from instrument flying to visual identification of the landing runway
Approach Lighting Systems (ALS)
443
An Approach Lighting Systems (ALS) typically consists of what 5 components?
1. Sequence Flashing Lights
2. Approach Lights
3. Crossbar Lights
4. Runway End Identifier Lights
5. Visual Glidescope
444
What color approach lights indicate an undershoot zone?
Red
445
__________ is a series of five lights that extend past the 1,000' mark of the approach lights
Sequence Flashing
446
___________ is a series of lights positioned perpendicularly to both sides of the primary approach lights. They are used as a pilot aid in leveling an aircraft's wings
Crossbar
447
The Crossbar provide two services what are they
1. Visual guide to level the planes wings
| 2. Distance information
448
Which kind of approach light is know as the rabbit?
Sequence Flashing Lights
449
How long is a Medium Intensity Approach Light System with RAIL (MALSF)
1,400' in length with sequence flashing
450
What are Runway Alignment Indicator Lights?
Sequence Flashers installed in combination with other light systems
451
If a plane sees 4 red on a PAPI what does that mean
Too low
452
_________ indicators are available to assist pilots as they approach the runway for landing and provide vertical height information on both visual and instrument approaches
Visual Glidescope
453
How far from a runway centerline in parallel is a VASI?
250'
454
Where are the two VASI units?
One is at 800' from the threshold the other is at 1200'
455
What is less costly VASI or PAPI
PAPI
456
Explain the difference between a PAPI and VASI
a VASI has two units spread at 800' and 1200' paralled to the runway 250' away. A PAPI is installed all in a row perpendicular to the runway
457
What visual glidescope indicator is typically used for helicopters?
Pulsed Light Visual Approach Slope Indicator (PVASI)
458
The three basic plans the Part 139 requires are what?
1. Snow and Ice Control Plan
2. Wildlife Hazard Management Plan
3. Airport Emergency Plan
459
The Stafford Act states what?
To qualify for federal aid, you must develop an emergency preparedness plan
460
What are the 4 separate but related actions of Comprehensive Emergency Management?
1. Preparedness
2. Response
3. Recovery
4. Mitigation
461
An Airport Emergency Plan concentrates on what two phases of the Comprehensive Emergency Management chart?
Response and Recovery
462
The primary purpose of an Airport Emergency Plan are to provide for what 4 things?
1. Delegation of authority
2. Assignment of responsibilities
3. Coordination of efforts by responding personnel
4. Orderly transition between normal and emergency operations
463
A _____________ must be conducted to identify other emergencies that should be addressed in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP)
Hazard/Risk Analysis
464
What areas are required to be covered in an Airport Emergency Plan under Part 139? (9)
1. Aircraft incidents
2. Bomb
3. Structural Fires
4. Fires at Fuel Farms
5. Natural Disasters
6. Hazardous materials incidents
7. Hijackings
8. Power Failures
9. Water Rescues
465
In an Airport Emergency Plan (AEP all existing plans and agreements such as __________ and the airport security program should be reviewed
Memorandums of Understanding (MOU)
466
What are the ARFF requirements for the first responding ARFF equipment?
Reach the midpoint of the furthest air carrier runway and begin applying firefighting agent within 3 minutes from the time of the alarm with all required onboard personnel in full protective gear
467
What are the ARFF requirements for all other vehicles beyond the first?
Must reach the midpoint of the furthest air carrier runway within 4 minutes.
468
Safety oversight is best provided through an organization wide _____________
Safety Management System
469
Where is Safety Management Systems (SMS) required?
1. Small, Medium, Large Hub airports in NPIAS
2. Identified by customs as a port of entry or international airport
3. > 100,000 total annual operations
470
___________ are airline employees assigned to manage security functions for each passenger and cargo flight
Ground Security Coordinators
471
What are the primary responsibilities of the Ground Security Coordinators (4)
1. Resolve conflicts between gate agents and passengers
2. Intervene with disruptive passengers
3. Act as a point of contact for bomb threats and hijackings until relieved by higher authority
4. Oversee cargo and baggage acceptance procedures
472
Are GA airports required to follow the requirements of Title 49 CFR 1542?
No
473
What airports does Title 49 CFR 1542 cover?
Commercial service airports in the US including those with service by aircraft operators, public and private charters
474
What specific role is called out in Title 49 CFR 1542?
Airport Security Coordinator
475
What is included in Title 49 CFR 1542? (4)
1. Access control
2. Personnel ID systems
3. Contingency Planning
4. Incident Response
476
The ____________ is the designated individual responsible for the implementation and oversight of the Safety Management System (SMS) processes at an airport from the policy perspective.
Accountable Executive (AE)
477
Are the Accountable Executive and SMS program manager the same?
No
478
What is the SMS Program Manager's role?
Plans and implements the SMS programs and is an expert on SMS
479
Who reports to whom in the SMS?
The SMS Program Manager reports to the Accountable Executive
480
The vast amount of bird strikes occur below what level?
600'
481
What makes wildlife a hazard at an airport? (2)
1. When the potential for damaging aircraft on or near the airport exist
2. When certain conditions attracting wildlife to the vicinity of the airport exist
482
What does Part 139 require to show regarding wildlife?
Instructions and procedures for the prevention and removal of factors that attract or may attract wildlife
483
A ___________ is any man-made structure, land use practice, geomorphic feature that might attract or sustain hazardous wildlife within the landing or departure airspace, aircraft movement area, loading ramps or parking areas
Wildlife Attractant
484
How often should a wildlife inspection occur?
Daily
485
What should you do if you find dead wildlife on an airport?
Report it to the FAA with Form 5200-7
486
What two reasons would you fill out an FAA Form 5200-7
1. Dead wildlife found
| 2. A wildlife aircraft strike occurs
487
When must a Wildlife Hazard Assessment occur? (4)
1. Air carrier aircraft experiences multiple bird strikes
2. Air carrier aircraft experiences substantial damage from striking wildlife
3. Air carrier aircraft has an engine ingestion of wildlife
4. Wildlife large enough or enough of that are capable for causing an accident are observed
488
Since the US Airways "Sully" incident what has happened?
All Part 139 airports have conducted or are conducting a Wildlife Hazard Assessment
489
Who must conduct a Wildlife Hazard Assessment? (WHA) (2)
1. A wildlife damage biologist
| 2. Someone working under the above
490
What does a Wildlife Hazard Assessment? (WHA) consist of? (5)
1. Analyzing the events or circumstances that prompted the research
2. Identifying species, numbers, locations of wildlife
3. Identifying wildlife attractants near the airport
4. Describing wildlife hazards to air carrier operations
5. Recommendation Actions
491
What happens upon completion of a Wildlife Hazard Assesment?
the document is submitted to the FAA for APPROVAL
492
Who determines the need for a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan?
The FAA Administrator
493
In addressing wildlife hazards at a Part 139 airport, what are the 3 entries that can be made?
1. statement of negative activity
2. Brief statement of no-hazard findings during the wildlife hazard assessment (WHA)
3. Wildlife Hazard Management Plan
494
What document should provide instructions for reporting observed wildlife activity?
The Airport Certification Manual
495
What document does a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan become part of?
The Airport Certification Manual
496
What two requirements are put on the airport operator if a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan (WHMP) is mandated by the FAA?
1. A qualified biologist must conduct a training for airport personnel
2. The Wildlife Hazard Management Plan must be reviewed annually by a biologist
497
What are the two approaches wildlife control is based on?
1. Habitat Modification
| 2. Active Control
498
Scaring, Dispersing, Trapping, and killing animals causing problems is considered ____________
Active Control
499
To control animals through lethal methods what does it require?
A depredation permit from a state or federal fish and wildlife service
500
Can AIP funds be used for wildlife control?
Yes, because grant assurances and certification are affected by this
501
What US organization has expertise in the management of wildlife problems?
US Department of Agriculture
502
If an existing land-use practice creates a wildlife hazard that cannot be immediately eliminated, airport management is obligated to issue a __________
NOTAM
503
If a NOTAM regarding Wildlife hazards is expected to continue an entry needs to be made in the ____________ and be accompanied by a(n) ______________________
Airport Facility Directory
| Wildlife Hazard Assessment
504
A(n) _____________ includes elements such as computer-aided dispatch for police and fire personnel, coordination of airside and landside emergencies as well as others and fulfills the requirements for Part 139 for Airport Emergency Plans
Airports Communication Center
505
An _______________ must include procedures for prompt response to emergencies and notification to both the public and response agencies
Airport Emergency Plans
506
An Airport Emergency Plan must include procedures for prompt response to emergencies and ____________ to both the public and response agencies
Notification
507
The function of the ___________ is to provide support to Incident Command personnel and coordinate other necessary support functions, which may also include assistance to the airport operator in keeping the airport open (if possible).
Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
508
In response to an aircraft emergency, the airport Airport Certification Manual and Airport Emergency Plan require that there be what?
1. Emergency Alert System
2. A means of emergency notification
3. a pre-set determination of the type of initial response
509
An ____________ is the method or means for notifying airport emergency response personnel of an emergency
Emergency Alerting System
510
What advisory circular establishes minimum criteria for emergency communication?
AC 5270-7D Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting Communications
511
The objective of the _______________ should be to provide effective primary and alternate means for direct communication between the air traffic control tower, Airport Executive, and airport rescue and firefighting assets
Airport emergency communications system
512
What two separate groups directly involved in an emergency must have the ability to communicate with one another?
1. Aircraft in the emergency w/Incident Commander
| 2. Incident Commander w/local aid organization, ARFF vehicles, and dispatch
513
The objective of an Airport emergency communications system is for a primary and alternate means for direct communication between what 3 entities?
1. ATCT
2. Airport Executive
3. ARFF assets
514
What are the aspects of aviation security that are also related to airport communications? (4)
1. Monitoring restricted areas
2. Alarm notification of a breach of sterile area
3. Recording/viewing events on CCTV
4. Responding with law enforcement to incidents
515
For aviation security and airport communications, the TSA encourages what sort of area to fulfill requirements?
Security Operations Center
516
For resiliency, the communications center should have
1. Redundant systems
2. Generators for backup power
3. Security
4. Protected from natural disasters
517
In case an on airport communications center is unavailable, what should an airport do
An offsite communications center location should be identified that can provide minimal operational capacity
518
What are 3 technological features that Airport Communications Centers may use?
1. Computer Aided Dispatching
2. Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf (TDD)
3. National Crime Information Center (NCIC) System
519
The ______________ receives and processes emergency and nonemergency calls from the public requesting assistance, and transmits and coordinates the dispatching of appropriate service providers.
Airport Communications Dispatcher (ACD)
520
According to the National Academies of Emergency Dispatch, an emergency telecommunication involves six basic components:
1. Telephone interrogation
2. Resource Allocation
3. Coordination of Logistics
4. Call prioritization
5. Impacting lives
6. Resource Networking
521
With regards to dispatchers and Sensitive Security Information, confidential matters can include
1. Suspect/Victim ID
2. Criminal History
3. Infectious disease info
4. ID of juvenile offenders
5. Victims of sexual crimes
522
In 2002, the ____________ assembled a homeland security task force and published a paper claiming that dispatchers and call takers need to receive training in analyzing emergency information
Association of Public Safety Communications Officials
