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AAAE CM > Module 3 > Flashcards

Module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Unmanned Aerial Systems are licensed under what FAR part? (1 answer)

A

Part 107

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2
Q

FAA’s Unmanned Aerial Systems Integration Office predicts how many licensed operators by 2020?

A

400k - 2.3 Mil

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3
Q

Unmanned Aerial Systems describe all the components required to operate a UAV, name them (4 answers)

A

Ground control station
payload
data link
vehicle itself

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4
Q

What is the difference between a Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) and Remotely Piloted Vehicle (RPV)?

A
  • The definition of an RPV is when an operator at a remote site actually pilots a “true” RPV
  • UAV may be either piloted or programmed to fly autonomous missions
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5
Q

What is the purist definition of a “Drone”

A

Something that flies in a dull monotonous, and indifferent manner

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6
Q

What are the three classes of unmanned aerial systems (UAS)?

A

1) Public
2) Civil
3) Model Aircraft

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7
Q

Define a Public UAS

A

Aircraft operated by the US Government or another entity authorized to operate on the governments’ behalf

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8
Q

Define a Civil UAS

A

Aircraft that does not qualify as public and may be used to perform commercial or other non-hobby operations in low-risk controlled environments

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9
Q

Define a Model Aircraft

A

Drones weighing 55 lbs or less and used by hobbyist

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10
Q

Model Aircraft and Part 107 operators must fly below what ceiling height?

A

400’

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11
Q

Model aircraft operators must not fly how close to an airport?

A

5 miles

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12
Q

What exception do model aircraft operators have to fly closer to an airport than what is allowed?

A

Contact the airport and ATCT

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13
Q

What FAR Part refers to model aircraft hobbyists?

A

Part 101

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14
Q

Part 107 is for which of the 3 classes of Unmanned Aerial Systems?

A

Civil

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15
Q

If you want to operate a drone that does not fit into Part 101 or Part 107 you must apply for what?

A

Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA)

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16
Q

What must an operator have to operate a UAV under Part 107? (1 item)

A

Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate

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17
Q

To receive a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate the applicant must do what?

A

Pass an aeronautical knowledge test

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18
Q

What is the maximum speed a drone can fly with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

A

100 MPH

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19
Q

What visibility distance is required to operate a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

A

3 miles or greater from the control station

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20
Q

What times of day are you allowed to operate a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107

A

30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset with appropriate anti-collision lighting

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21
Q

What is the line of sight requirement to operate a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

A

Drone is operated Line of Sight or first person view with a LOS observer

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22
Q

UAV cannot operate where with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107? 3 answers

A
  1. Over anyone not participating in the operation
  2. Under a covered structure
  3. Inside a covered vehicle
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23
Q

Can UAV operate from a moving vehicle with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

A

No unless it’s flying in a sparsely populated area

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24
Q

What airspace can a UAV operate without contacting ATC for approval with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

A

Class G Airspace

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25
Q

What airspace can a UAV operate ONLY WITH contacting ATC for approval with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

A

Class B,C,D,E

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26
Q

What are the restrictions on carrying an external load by a UAV with a Remote Pilot Airmen Certificate under Part 107?

A
  1. Total weight must remain below 55 lbs

2. Stay within state boundaries

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27
Q

Can a UAV carry a load for compensation or hire?

A

Yes, as long as they stay within the external load restrictions

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28
Q

UAVs with an N-number and designated as a public aircraft must be authorized through what?

A

Certificate of Authority

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29
Q

What airspace can a certificate of authority UAV fly in?

A

Operations can be technically granted outside of Class B airspace, but most public organizations are limited to D,E, and G

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30
Q

Operation of a UAV with a certificate of authority typically takes 3 people, name them

A
  1. Pilot in Command
  2. Visual Observer
  3. Ground Control Operator
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31
Q

All COA programs must incorporate what outlined in which AC?

A

a Safety Management System

AC 120-92

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32
Q

6 test sites were selected for UAV research at GA facilities. What 5 things were they researching?

A
  1. Standards for unmanned aircraft categories
  2. traffic control procedures with NextGen
  3. sense and avoid technologies
  4. differing climates, airworthiness, and reliable data links
  5. UAS Failure mode testing
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33
Q

What are some uses of UAVs that the Mesa County Sheriff’s department uses it for? 3 uses

A
  1. Search and Rescue operations
  2. Monitoring wild fires
  3. Broad area suspect searches
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34
Q

Part 139 places responsibility on _______ to exercise control over tenant fueling practices

A

Airport Management

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35
Q

Airport management must establish fueling practices and standards with regards to? (3 things)

A
  1. Facilities
  2. Procedures
  3. Training of fueling personnel
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36
Q

What are the four parts to the fire “tetrahedron”

A
  1. Combustible material
  2. Oxygen
  3. Heat or Ignition Source
  4. The chemical chain reaction
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37
Q

Which one of the four in the fire tetrahedron does foam remove to stop a fire?

A

Oxygen

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38
Q

The degree or ease of ignition with regards to a fire is known as ?

A

Flash Point

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39
Q

Which has more explosive potential - Avgas or Jet A?

A

Avgas

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40
Q

Where is the FAA’s major efforts made to reduce or eliminate fire or explosion risk?

A

Identifying and preventing ignition sources

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41
Q

Name sources of ignition (6)

A
  1. Lightning
  2. Open Flame
  3. electrical spark
  4. static discharge
  5. chemical reaction
  6. Any heat source that can raise/ignite the fuel-air vapor mix
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42
Q

Material with a flash point over 100 degrees is what?

A

Combustible

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43
Q

Avgas has a flash point below 100 degrees, it is considered what?

A

Flammable

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44
Q

Flammable material has a flash point and vapor pressure of what

A

Below 100 F and/or a vapor pressure below 40 psi

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45
Q

What is the primary role of terminal operations?

A

To keep people and vehicles moving safely and efficiently

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46
Q

What programs have been shown to be effective in improving the passenger experience in terminals?

A

Airport Ambassador Programs

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47
Q

What do airport ambassadors typically provide in a terminal?

A

Information and assistance to passengers

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48
Q

What significant challenges have hampered the ability of the Airport Executive to provide a positive customer experience to passengers? (3 answers)

A
  1. Airline Pricing
  2. Staffing
  3. Operational Models
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49
Q

What have many airports done to counter the issues of travel experience for passengers? (5 answers)

A
  1. Hired their own customer service personnel
  2. Created information booths
  3. Hired contractors to manage line queues
  4. Brought in therapy dogs
  5. Play calming music throughout the the terminal
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50
Q

What does a good experience at an airport lead to? ( 3 answers)

A
  1. Customer Loyalty
  2. Positive word of mouth marketing
  3. Increased non-aeronautical revenue
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51
Q

What is a second hand effect of Airport Executives managing the customer satisfaction process?

A
  1. More safety and security because passengers are more orderly
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52
Q

What terminal process consists of touch-screen monitors at the counters or kiosks set up in the terminal which allow a passenger to complete the functions that a ticket agent would normally perform?

A

Self Ticketing

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53
Q

What does self ticketing do to help airlines?

A

It helps the airline reduce labor requirements

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54
Q

Efforts to reduce congestion at the ticket counter have resulted in an increased use of what outside the terminal?

A

curbside check-in

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55
Q

Ticketing congestion has been reduced my placing what computerized mechanism throughout terminals?

A

Flight Information Display Systems (FIDS)

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56
Q

What do Flight Information Display Systems (FIDS) typically display? ( 2 answers)

A

Information regarding

1) Airlines
2) the Airport

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57
Q

What is the name of the system to reduce ticketing congestion with computerized mechanisms throughout the terminal hosted by the airport and not a single airline?

A

Multi-User Flight Information Display Systems (FIDS)

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58
Q

What are the five essential customer touch points Airport Executives can use to positively influence the passenger experience?

A
  1. Physical
  2. Subliminal
  3. Communicative
  4. Procedural
  5. Human
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59
Q

The essential customer touch point that one might experience by visiting an airport website is?

A

Communicative

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60
Q

The essential customer touch point that one might experience by the where the restrooms are located in an airport is

A

Physical

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61
Q

The essential customer touch point that one might experience when going through the security checkpoint is?

A

Procedural

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62
Q

The essential customer touch point that one might experience by the overall atmosphere of an airport is?

A

Subliminal

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63
Q

The essential customer touch point that one might experience when they have an interaction with the ground based flight crew is

A

Human

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64
Q

An airport employee who purchases food at the airport is considered what kind of airport customer?

A

External Customer

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65
Q

An airline employee purchasing a reduced fare flight ticket from their own airline is considered what kind of customer at the airport?

A

Internal Customer

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66
Q

What are some examples of an external customer?

A
  1. Passengers
  2. Visitors (meeters-greeters)
  3. Airport Employees buying food at the airport
  4. People doing business at the airport
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67
Q

What is the definition of an internal customer?

A

Internal customers are employees or business departments who receive services from other employees or business departments of the same organization

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68
Q

At any given time it is estimated that what % of the airport passenger population has a special or functional need?

A

15%

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69
Q

What do customers expect of terminal facilities? (6 items)

A
  1. Clean
  2. Short Lines
  3. Clear wayfinding
  4. Friendly Staff
  5. Ease of access
  6. Comfortable Gate waiting areas
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70
Q

What do airport customers expect with concessions?

3 items

A
  1. Good Food
  2. Good Value (not too much above street pricing)
  3. Relaxed open airport ambience
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71
Q

The airport can set the level of customer service for the airport, communicate the airport brand, ensure a reliable level of performance, and manage customer expectations by publishing what?

A

Airport Customer Service Standards

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72
Q

What should Airport Customer Service Standards focus on? (5)

A
  1. Condition/Cleanliness
  2. Efficiency
  3. Employee Behavior and knowledge
  4. Wayfinding
  5. Ways to minimize construction effects on customers
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73
Q

One use what to size food and beverage services?

A

Applying Use Factors

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74
Q

How does one determine a Use Factor with regards to sizing a food and beverage service?

A

Divide daily average transactions by the average daily enplanements

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75
Q

What are some examples of specialty retail kiosks in a terminal? (3 examples)

A
  1. ATM
  2. Foreign Exchange Services
  3. Internet Kiosks
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76
Q

What is the definition of a concessionaire?

A

Companies that have been granted a contract to provide goods or services at the airport

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77
Q

What are some examples of concession minimum operating requirements at an airport? (3 answers)

A
  1. Hours of operation
  2. cleanliness
  3. other standards of customer service performance
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78
Q

A robust concession program can increase what two things at an airport?

A
  1. Internal Revenue

2. Customer Satisfaction

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79
Q

The success of a concessionaire is based on what factors? (5 factors)

A
  1. Passenger Volume
  2. Quality/Variety of concessions
  3. Amount of Intl. traffic
  4. Terminal Configuration
  5. Customer Dwell time
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80
Q

Recent trends regarding terminal concessions show that passengers are looking for what kind of food options?

A

Healthier options

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81
Q

Effective concession placement can also assist with ________ by locating Flight Information Display Screens (FIDS) close to concessions and gate areas

A

Airport operational efficiencies

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82
Q

The timely collection and dissemination of airport condition information to air carriers especially relating to unsafe conditions or nonconformance with FAA standards or the Airport Certification Manual is required under what FAR?

A

Part 139

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83
Q

The primary system to convey safety information to airport users is known as what?

A

NOTAMs

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84
Q

Define a NOTAM

A

A notice containing information that is not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means about the establishment, condition, or change in component the timely knowledge in which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operation.

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85
Q

A notice containing information that is not known sufficiently in advance to publicize by other means about the establishment, condition, or change in component the timely knowledge in which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operation is what?

A

NOTAM

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86
Q

NOTAMs are used to disseminate information of unanticipated or temporary changes to components or hazards in the National Airspace System (NAS) until what publications can be ammended?

A

Aeronautical Charts

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87
Q

Airport operators have a duty to put out NOTAMs regarding what at an airport? (2 answers)

A

Changes in

  1. Airport Procedures
  2. Physical Facilities
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88
Q

According to Part 139.343 Noncomplying conditions what happens if an element of Part 139 is no longer met?

A

Air carrier activity in that area must be halted

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89
Q

Due to construction, Runway 15/33 of the airfield is no longer accessible by the ARFF facility. A private pilot is flying in and requests use of Runway 15/33 what happens?

A

He is allowed. Part 139 only refers to air carrier operations

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90
Q

Due to construction, Runway 15/33 of the airfield is no longer accessible by the ARFF facility. An airliner is flying in and requests use of Runway 15/33 what happens?

A

This is not allowed. Due to noncomplying conditions, Air carrier activity in that area must be halted

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91
Q

Who has overall national management responsibility for the NOTAM system?

A

National Flight Data Center (NFDC)

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92
Q

Any NOTAM that is not part of the military system is considered what kind of NOTAM?

A

Civil

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93
Q

Chilicothe Municipal Airport in Missouri has some snow on the runway. What kind of NOTAM does the airport manager issue?

A

Field Condition (FICON) NOTAM

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94
Q

The Cleveland ARTCC has issued a NOTAM regarding a Temporary Flight Restriction affecting 12 of the areas airports. What kind of NOTAM is this?

A

Center Area NOTAM

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95
Q

There is a Navy fighter pilot exercise going on overhead, what type of NOTAM is issued

A

Military NOTAM

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96
Q

Farmington Regional Airport allows pilots to call in their own NOTAMs regarding field conditions under a Letter of Agreement. Until the NOTAM is confirmed by airport management, this kind of NOTAM is considered what?

A

A (U) NOTAM

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97
Q

On September 11, 2001 a NOTAM was issued which called all flight operations to cease. What kind of NOTAM was this?

A

FDC NOTAM

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98
Q

What kind of NOTAM is issued locally and/or beyond the area of responsibility of a Flight Service Station?

A

NOTAM (D)

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99
Q

At Cape Girardeau airport there was a change in Instrument Approach procedure and it has not been updated in the aeronautical charts yet. What needs to be issued?

A

An FDC NOTAM

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100
Q

Lee’s Summit airport just had a construction project temporarily disable the runway High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL) what needs to be issued?

A

A NOTAM (D)

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101
Q

An airport is permitted to notify air carrier offices and tenants by telephone, fax, computer, etc. as long as these alternative methods are identified and approved in what?

A

Airport Certification Manual (ACM)

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102
Q

FICON Notam issuance is whose responsibility?

A

Airport Management is responsible for field condition notification

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103
Q

If a Letter of Agreement exists, who besides Airport Management can issue a FICON NOTAM?

A

ATCT

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104
Q

A NOTAM includes what information? 5 Items

A
  1. Affected Airport facility and component
  2. Description of the affected component that prompted the NOTAM
  3. The period of time the component will be affected
  4. Name, Address, Phone # of person issuing the NOTAM
  5. Who will be receiving copies of the NOTAM
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105
Q

NOTAM issuance procedures at an airport with air carrier service are required documentation in what document?

A

Airport Certification Manual (ACM)

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106
Q

Airports certificated under Part 139 must describe what regarding NOTAMs in their Airport Certification Manual (ACM)? (2 answers)

A
  1. NOTAM issuance procedures

2. A list of personnel authorized to issue NOTAMs for the Airport

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107
Q

What is required so that an airport manager can quickly access NOTAMs that are in effect and those that are not?

A

a NOTAM log

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108
Q

Who disseminates an FDC NOTAM?

A

National Flight Data Center (NFDC)

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109
Q

Most airports use a software called NOTAM manager, which provides a tie in to what system?

A

FAA’s Digital NOTAM system

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110
Q

Who approves NOTAMs and posts them electronically within seconds?

A

Flight Service Specialists

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111
Q

What is the core of the Part 139 FAA overview process? (3 Things)

A
  1. FAA Certifies a commercial service Airport
  2. FAA approves the standards for which the airport will be operated through the Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
  3. FAA periodically checks for compliance
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112
Q

Whose primary responsibility is it to ensure compliance with the Airport Certification Manual?

A

Airport Operator through the inspection process

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113
Q

Title 14 Part 139 requires the airport operator to have an airport safety ____________ program that monitors specific airport conditions in order to identify when prompt corrective actions must be taken

A

Self-inspection

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114
Q

An effective __________ program enables the airport operator to conduct uninterrupted day-to-day operations in compliance with _________ standards

A

Self Inspection

Part 139

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115
Q

Primary attention in self inspection is given to what operational items? (12)

A
  1. Pavement Areas
  2. Safety Areas
  3. Signs, Marking, Lights
  4. Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting
  5. Fueling Operations
  6. Navaids
  7. Ground Vehicles
  8. Obstructions
  9. Public Protection
  10. Wildlife Hazard Management
  11. Construction
  12. Snow and Ice Control
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116
Q

Who has overall supervision and responsibility of an air carrier apron with regard to Part 139 inspection?

A

Airport Management

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117
Q

What are the 4 components of safety self-inspection

A
  1. Regularly Scheduled Inspection
  2. Periodic Inspection
  3. Continuous Surveillance Inspection
  4. Special Inspection
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118
Q

This type of inspection is made after an unusual event or complaint.

A

Special Inspection

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119
Q

What kind of inspection is made based on airport conditions that develop gradually

A

Periodic Inspection

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120
Q

Airport Fueling operations should be inspected in what way?

A

Continuous Inspection

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121
Q

At what times should regularly scheduled inspections occur?

A
  1. 1 inspection before the beginning of air carrier flight operations during the day.
  2. At least one at night if night air carrier operations are to be conducted
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122
Q

An inspection that occurs after a thunderstorm would be considered what kind of inspection?

A

Special Inspection

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123
Q

Inspection of FOD is considered what kind of inspection?

A

Continuous Inspection

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124
Q

What 3 items should a Part 139 Inspector Carry

A
  1. VHF Radio
  2. Checklist of items to inspect
  3. Airport Layout Map
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125
Q

Inspection of suveying pavement for rubber build up is considered what kind of inspection?

A

Periodic Inspection

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126
Q

At the end of construction activity to ensure no unsafe conditions remain is considered what kind of inspection

A

Special Inspection

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127
Q

Checking navigational aids is considered what kind of inspection

A

Periodic Inspection

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128
Q

When is best practice times to conduct regularly scheduled inspections?

A

During times when aircraft activity is minimal to create the least impact on operations

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129
Q

Surveillance of Wildlife activities is considered what kind of inspection

A

Continuous

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130
Q

Surveying for faded signs is considered what kind of inspection

A

Periodic

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131
Q

Where should special inspections be documented?

A

On the appropriate portions of the regularly scheduled inspection check list

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132
Q

An effective safety self inspection program includes procedures for what?

A

Reporting and correcting deficiencies

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133
Q

Why is it important to use a safety self-inspection checklist?

A

Because it

1) constitutes as a written record of conditions noted
2) acts as a check on follow up actions taken

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134
Q

What should the operator do to report conditions that could have an immediate and critical impact on safety of aircraft operations

A

Issue a NOTAM

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135
Q

Regularly Scheduled inspection Checklists must be retained for Part 139 airports for how long?

A

12 Consecutive Calendar Months

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136
Q

A regularly schedule inspection checklist is made on 10/14/2017. When must it be retained until?

A

10/31/2018

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137
Q

A regularly scheduled inspection checklist is made on 3/2/2018. When must it be retained until

A

3/31/2019

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138
Q

Airport personnel that conduct self safety inspections should receive training in the following areas? (6)

A
  1. Airport Familiarization
  2. Airport Emergency Plan
  3. NOTAM Procedures
  4. Procedures for handling pedestrians and ground vehicles in the movement area
  5. Airport inspection procedures and discrepancy reporting
  6. Knowledge and use of correct radio communication phraseology as specified in the Aeronautic Information Manual
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139
Q

If construction is in progress inspectors should be familiar with what document?

A

Construction Safety Plan

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140
Q

Sufficiently Qualified Personnel Exist if ________

A

All the requirements of the Airport Certification Manual (ACM) are properly performed

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141
Q

If all the requirements of the Airport Certification Manual (ACM) are properly performed then _________ exist.

A

Sufficiently Qualified Personnel

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142
Q

Personnel with routine access and necessity to the movement area must receive _________

A

Initial Training

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143
Q

After receiving initial training, personnel with routine access and necessity to the movement area must receive recurrent training every __________

A

12 months

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144
Q

Recurrent training for personnel with routine access and necessity to the movement area happens every 12 months on what?

A

Operations and safety measures withing the Airport Movement Area (AMA)

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145
Q

Part 139 requires airports to keep and maintain records on what data? (4)

A
  1. Training
  2. Inspection
  3. Incident
  4. Condition
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146
Q

Records of training for personnel who are allowed to operate in the movement area and individuals trained as inspectors under the self-inspection program are required to be kept for?

A

24 CCM

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147
Q

What programs provide record keeping functions for Part 139 compliance?

A

AAAE’s Interactive Employee Training (IET) learning management system

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148
Q

As part of Part 139 the following records must be kept for 12 consecutive calendar months? (4)

A
  1. Airfield Inspection Reports
  2. NOTAMs
  3. Fueling Inspections
  4. Accident and Incident Reports
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149
Q

Which kinds of runway lights have steps in intensity?

A

High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL)

Medium Intensity Runway Lights (MIRL)

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150
Q

Which number is typically the highest intensity for runway lights?

A

7

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151
Q

Many airports that are not staffed 24 hours install what kind of lighting?

A

Pilot Controlled Lighting

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152
Q

How does Pilot Controlled Lighting Work?

A

The pilot keys the aircraft’s radio microphone with a switch a predetermined number of times

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153
Q

What are 2 pros for Pilot Controlled Lighting?

A
  1. Safer for pilots

2. Reduce’s airports operating and maintenance costs

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154
Q

What color are runway edge lights typically?

A

White

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155
Q

When are runway edge lights not white?

A

1) on instrument runways when:

2) yellow edge lights replace the white the last 2,000 feet or 1/2 the runway length whichever is less

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156
Q

What color are runway centerline lights typically?

A

White in the direction of landing

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157
Q

When are runway centerline lights not white?

A

If the following are true

1) On a precision runway
2) 3000’ left on the runway to 1000’ left on the runway alternates red/white
3) At 1000’ left, turns all red

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158
Q

What color are taxiway centerline lights?

A

Green

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159
Q

What color are taxiway edge lights?

A

Blue

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160
Q

Fergus Falls airport has a 3,000’ instrument runway. What color are the runway edge lights in the direction of landing with 1,700’ left to go before the end of the runway?

A

White

yellow edge lights replace the white the last 2,000 feet or 1/2 the runway length whichever is less

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161
Q

New Ulm airport has a 5,000’ precision approach runway. What color are the runway edge lights and centerline lights in the direction of landing with 1,200’ left to go before the end of the runway?

A

Edge: Yellow
Centerline: Alternating Red/White

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162
Q

What color are taxiway lead on/lead off lights?

A

Alternate Yellow and Green

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163
Q

What color are threshold lights?

A

Split lens

1) In the direction of the end of the runway to departing aircraft they are red
2) In the direction of the beginning of the runway to arriving aircraft they are green

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164
Q

American Airlines flight 181 is arriving at Duluth Airport. What color are the threshold lights as it approaches the runway?

A

Green

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165
Q

Where are tolerance for lighting outages listed?

A

Airport Certification Manual (ACM)

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166
Q

What is required whenever lighting system standards are not met?

A

NOTAM

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167
Q

What is Runway Visual Range (RVR) and Surface Movement Guidance and Control Systems? (SMGCS)

A

A system of guidance, control, and regulation of all aircraft, ground vehicles, and personnel on the movement areas during low visibility conditions

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168
Q

The intent of _________ is to prevent collisions and to ensure traffic flows smoothly and freely in low visibility conditions

A

Surface Movement Guidance and Control Systems (SMGCS)

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169
Q

How are guidance and regulation of aircraft with regards to Surface Movement Guidance and Control Systems? (SMGCS) accomplished? (6)

A
  1. Surface Markings
  2. Stop Bar lights
  3. Runway status lights
  4. clearance bar lights
  5. hold-position lights
  6. Training
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170
Q

What item on the airport helps to identify the airport location and area to the pilot?

A

Rotating Beacon

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171
Q

What is the angle of a rotating beacon?

A

2-10 degrees above the horizon

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172
Q

What color is a civil land airport beacon?

A

Green and White

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173
Q

What does a beacon on during the day mean?

A

It represents conditions below visual flight rules

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174
Q

Where must changes regarding a light system be updated?

A

Airport Facility Directory (A/FD)

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175
Q

What color are the stop bar lights for an airport that require a Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)

A

Red

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176
Q

Under title 1542, all commercial service airports must designate whom?

A

An Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)

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177
Q

The Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) is the ______________________ for federal government security issues?

A

Primary Contact

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178
Q

Where is the scope of the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) responsibilities found?

A

Part 1542

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179
Q

Who is the primary contact for federal government security issues?

A

Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)

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180
Q

What are the roles played by the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) (9)

A
  1. Ensures compliance with federal regulations
  2. Develops and seeks approval for the Airport Security Program (ASP)
  3. Responsible for enforcing the ASP
  4. In charge of the airport access control system
  5. In charge of airport perimeter security
  6. In charge of credentialing
  7. Personnel identification system
    8 Manager of the air carrier and tenant security programs
  8. Ensures security contingency plans are drafted
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181
Q

What specific security role is not led by the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)

A

Security Screening Process

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182
Q

Who processes applications from individuals seeking access to secure areas of the airport

A

Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)

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183
Q

Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) develops and seeks approval of what document?

A

Airport Security Program (ASP)

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184
Q

The Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) immediately correct conditions that do not comply with which FAR PART?

A

1542

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185
Q

Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) immediately applies what documents from the TSA?

A

Security Directives

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186
Q

Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) serves as a liaison between what two groups regarding sharing information about security issues

A

Air Carrier Station Manager

Foreign Air Carrier Operator

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187
Q

How often does an established Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) need to undergo training?

A

Never as long as it is continuous service

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188
Q

John Adams was the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) from 2011-2016. He took a year break and resumed his role in 2017. Does Mr. Adams need retraining?

A

No. Once trained the ASC does not need to undergo retraining (except for site specific information if they change airports), unless there has been a two or more year break in service as an active and designated ASC.

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189
Q

No airport operator may use or designate any person as an Airport Security Coordinator (ASC) unless that individual has completed

A

Training to prepare the individual to perform the duties of the position

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190
Q

What does the “A” in ARFF stand for?

A

Aircraft

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191
Q

The ARFF Index is based on what?

A

Longest Air Carrier aircraft serving five or more average daily departures

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192
Q

ARFF Index A is how long of an aircraft?

A

<90’

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193
Q

ARFF Index B is how long of an aircraft?

A

90’ - 125’

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194
Q

ARFF Index C is how long of an aircraft?

A

126’ - 159’

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195
Q

ARFF Index D is how long of an aircraft?

A

160’ - 200’

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196
Q

ARFF Index E is how long of an aircraft?

A

> 200’

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197
Q

Lawton Airport has 2 Index D aircrafts daily, 4 Index C aircrafts daily, 20 Index B. What is the appropriate ARFF index for this facility?

A

Index C. If there are fewer than five average daily departures, the next lower index applies

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198
Q

Stillwater Airport is a part 139 airport with 3 daily Index A aircrafts. What is the ARFF index for this facility?

A

Index A. For Part 139 certificated airports, the minimum index level is Index A.

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199
Q

What 2 criteria are used to calculate ARFF index

A

Aircraft Length and frequency of service

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200
Q

Aircraft Length and Frequency are used to calculate ARFF index and __________________

A

The # of ARFF vehicles required

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201
Q

What is #1 ARFF priority

A

Saving Lives

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202
Q

Whats is #2 ARFF priority

A

Extinguish the fire

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203
Q

What is the performance requirement for the first ARFF vehicle?

A

from its assigned post, the first responding ARFF equipment must reach the mid-point of the furthest air carrier runway and begin to apply the firefighting agent within three minutes from the time the alarm sounds with all required onboard personnel in full protective gear?

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204
Q

What is the performance requirement for the all other ARFF vehicles after the first?

A

They must reach the same point within 4 minutes

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205
Q

How long is the survivability window after a fuselage fire?

A

3 minutes

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206
Q

How long does it take to burn a fuselage skin?

A

90 seconds

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207
Q

When the cabin reaches what temperature is it no longer considered survivable?

A

400 degrees

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208
Q

How many ARFF personnel on duty must be trained in basic medical care?

A

1

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209
Q

What agency the airport liaison agent work for

A

FBI

210
Q

What does the airport liaison agent do?

A
  1. Gives info to the airport

2. Serves on airport security consortium

211
Q

What personnel are charged with protecting federal facilities like courthouses and federal buildings.

A

Federal Protective Services

212
Q

Transportation Security Requirements are under what code?

A

Title 49 Part 1500 series

213
Q

What is Title 49 Part 1542

A

Airport Security

214
Q

What is Title 49 Part 1544

A

Domestic Aircraft Security

215
Q

What does Title 49 Part 1542 cover?

A

Security at commercial service airports

216
Q

Who is the primary contact for the federal government for security issues at the airport?

A

Airport Security Coordinator

217
Q

What is the primary job for the Airport Security Coordinator (ASC)?

A

Primary Contact for the federal government on security issues at the airport

218
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Managing Queues at screening checkpoints?

A

ASC

219
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Security Staffing?

A

FSD

220
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Seeks approval from TSA for the Airport Security Program (ASP)?

A

ASC

221
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Approval of the Airport Security Program (ASP)?

A

FSD

222
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Screening of checked baggage?

A

FSD

223
Q

Whose responsibility? Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Airport Access Control System

A

ASC

224
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……management of air carrier and tenant security program?

A

ASC

225
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
…..Aircraft operator compliance inspections?

A

FSD

226
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Develops the Airport Security Program (ASP)?

A

ASC

227
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Screening of passengers?

A

FSD

228
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Airport Perimeter Security?

A

ASC

229
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Credentialing Program?

A

ASC

230
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Oversight of the Canine Program?

A

FSD

231
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Ensuring contingency plans are drafted and can be implemented?

A

ASC

232
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Screening of carry-on baggage?

A

FSD

233
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
……Security of sterile area exits?

A

ASC

234
Q

Whose responsibility?Airport Security Coordinator or Federal Security Director? ASC or FSD?
…..24 hour contact for communications with the TSA?

A

ASC

235
Q

What title is directly responsible for the collection and processing of personally identifiable information and sensitive information?

A

Trusted Agent

236
Q

What four things make airport police airport police

A
  1. Arrest Authority
  2. Carry a weapon
  3. Trained
  4. Identifiable (uniform, badge)
237
Q

What one area of security holds police to a maximum response time?

A

Alarm at a screening checkpoint

238
Q

The Gerardo Hernandez act required airport operators to have:

A

Active shooter response plans

239
Q

Airports are expected to have an effective _____, _____, and _____ plan for hijackings and bombings

A

mitigation, response, recovery

240
Q

Safety conscious organization actively utilizes 4 different items

A
  1. Set of Standards
  2. Investigations and resolutions of incidents
  3. Internal Reporting System
  4. Individuals trained to recognize unsafe conditions
241
Q

Hazards eliminated or reduced means:

A

A good airport operation

242
Q

users informed of non-compliant conditions means:

A

A good airport operation

243
Q

records properly maintained means:

A

A good airport operation

244
Q

What involves identifying hazards and eliminating them specifically or the chain of elements leading to the hazard?

A

Accident Prevention

245
Q

What three items make up the chain of events that cause an accident?

A
  1. Improper design of a component
  2. Safeguards
  3. Employee decision making
246
Q

If an airport has how many total operations does it require SMS?

A

100,000

247
Q

What size airports are required to use SMS?

A

Large, Medium, Small Hub Airports

248
Q

What are the four elements of SMS?

A
  1. Safety Policy
  2. Safety Promotion
  3. Safety Risk Management
  4. Safety Assurance
249
Q

Which Safety Management System (SMS) element includes training and communication?

A

Safety Promotion

250
Q

Which Safety Management System (SMS) element establishes senior management’s commitment to continually improve safety?

A

Safety Policy

251
Q

Which Safety Management System (SMS) element determines the need for and adequacy of new or revised risk controls

A

Safety Risk Management

252
Q

Which Safety Management System (SMS) element includes creating a positive safety culture within all levels of the workforce

A

Safety Promotion

253
Q

Which Safety Management System (SMS) element evaluates the continued effectiveness of implemented risk control strategies

A

Safety Assurance

254
Q

Which Safety Management System (SMS) element defines the methods processes and organizational structures needed to meet safety goals?

A

Safety Policy

255
Q

Which Safety Management System (SMS) element supports the identification of new hazards?

A

Safety Assurance

256
Q

If an Airport Certification Manual (ACM) is approved by the FAA what is issued

A

Airport Operating Certificate (AOC)

257
Q

FAA issues Airport Operating Certificates to what two kinds of airport

A
  1. Scheduled and Unscheduled air carrier >30 Seats

2. Scheduled air carrier between 9-30 seats

258
Q

How many seats are on a scheduled small air carrier aircraft?

A

9-30

259
Q

A Class IV airport serves what sort of aircraft?

A

Large Unscheduled Air Carrier Aircraft

260
Q

A Class II Airport serves what sort of aircraft?

A

Small scheduled

Large Unscheduled

261
Q

A Class I Airport serves what sort of aircraft?

A

Large Scheduled
Small Scheduled
Large Unscheduled

262
Q

A Class III Airport serves what sort of Aircraft?

A

Small Scheduled

263
Q

A Joint Use Airport means what?

A

The military owns the airport and has leased a portion of the airport

264
Q

On a Joint Use Airport where does Part 139 apply?

A

Wherever air carriers operate

265
Q

With regards to Part 139, what is the term that typically identify unusual operational characteristics like when operations can only happen on specific runways due to pavement strength?

A

Limitations

266
Q

With regards to Part 139, what is the term for relief to an airport operator for a particular requirement of Part 139?

A

Exemptions

267
Q

With regards to Part 139, what is the term for when an airport must violate Part 139 due to an emergency condition?

A

Deviation

268
Q

With regards to Part 139, which term is a used when there is a legal document granting an airport relief from a regulatory requirement of Part 139?

A

Exemption

269
Q

A request from an airport manager for an exemption becomes a ____________ and necessitates review by ____________

A

Rule Making Action

FAA Legal Staff

270
Q

What happens when a requirement in Part 139, Subpart D - operations can’t be met so uncorrected and unsafe conditions exist on the airport?

A

Certificate holder must confine operations to the portion of the airfield not rendered unsafe

271
Q

What is term in Part 139 that discusses when operations can’t be met so uncorrected and unsafe conditions exist on the airport?

A

Noncomplying Conditions

272
Q

At Texarkana Airport, due to old pavement, a plane tonnage limit has been put on Taxiway C. What is the term with regards to Part 139 that describes this tonnage limit?

A

A limitation

273
Q

How soon must an airport operator notify the FAA of a deviation?

A

14 days

274
Q

At Fort Smith Airport, a Part 139 certificated Non Hub Primary airport, their ARFF responded to an emergency off airport and was not sufficiently staffed as commercial aircraft continued to land. Is this a deviation?

A

No. This is a violation of Part 139

275
Q

What does a violation of Part 139 result in? (3)

A
  1. FAA Administrative Action
  2. Civil Penalty
  3. Suspension/Revocation of the Airport Operating Certification (AOC)
276
Q

How often does Part 139 allow the FAA to inspect a facility?

A

At Any time

277
Q

What branch of the FAA inspects Part 139 airport annually?

A

Airport Certification Branch

278
Q

Part 139 requires airports to keep and maintain records on what data? (5)

A
  1. Training
  2. Inspection
  3. Condition
  4. Incident
  5. Accident
279
Q

What records need to be maintained for 24 consecutive calendar months?

A
  1. Training of personnel allowed in the movement areas

2. Individuals trained as inspectors for self inspection

280
Q

According to the FAA $1 spent on preventative maintenance early in the life of pavement is….

A

$4-5 in repairs later in the life of the pavement

281
Q

Airports should have a comprehensive ______________ to ensure that pavement issues are addressed as soon as possible and that there is a long-term strategic plan for the ongoing maintenance and replacement of paved surfaces.

A

Airfield Pavement Management System (APMS)

282
Q

What are the 4 categories of pavement markings?

A
  1. Runway
  2. Taxiway
  3. Hold Positions
  4. Others
283
Q

What 3 pavement markings are common to every runway?

A
  1. Centerline
  2. Designator
  3. Hold Markings
284
Q

What 5 pavement markings are common to Non-Precision Approach Runways

A
  1. Centerline
  2. Designator
  3. Hold Markings
  4. Aiming Points
  5. Threshold
285
Q

What 7 pavement markings are common to Precision Approach Runways

A
  1. Centerline
  2. Designator
  3. Hold Markings
  4. Aiming Points
  5. Threshold
  6. Touchdown Zone Stripes
  7. Runway Side Stripes
286
Q

What color are the markings for runways and helicopter landing areas?

A

White

287
Q

What color are the markings for hospital helicopter pads?

A

Red

288
Q

What color are Taxiway centerlines and holdpositions?

A

Yellow

289
Q

What Advisory Circular has information on Pavement Markings?

A

AC 5340-1

290
Q

Certain Airfield Markings require what two extra items?

A
  1. Black Outlines

2. Glass Beads

291
Q

How far down past the approach end of the runway are aiming points located

A

1,000’

292
Q

How far spaced are Touchdown Zone Markings?

A

500’ Intervals

293
Q

Aiming points are required on Instrument approach runways what distance or greater?

A

4,200’

294
Q

_____________ Are a number of longitudinal lines that identify the beginning of the runway

A

Runway Threshold Bars

295
Q

What are the reasons for a displaced threshold? (4)

A
  1. Obstacle Clearance
  2. Obstruction in the runway approach
  3. Noise Abatement
  4. Construction
296
Q

What are the requirements to have aiming points on a visual approach runway? (2)

A
  1. Greater than 4,200’ long

2. Serves airplane approach category (AAC) C or D

297
Q

Arrows and arrowheads help to identify and locate a ________________________

A

Displaced Threshold

298
Q

Describe the physical marking difference between a demarcation bar and a displaced threshold

A

Displaced Threshold - 10’ Wide White Bar

Demarcation Bar- 3’ Wide Painted Yellow

299
Q

Chevrons indicate the unusable area preceding what marking?

A

Demarcation Bar

300
Q

Demarcation bars distinguish the difference between the runway and what 3 things?

A
  1. Taxiway
  2. Blast Pad
  3. Stopway
301
Q

Thick Dashed Yellow Lines denote what kind of pavement marking?

A

Taxiway Holding Position

302
Q

A yellow solid line and a dashed marking adjacent to each other denote what kind of pavement marking?

A

Non-Movement Area Boundary

303
Q

An enhanced taxiway marking are installed how many feet prior to the hold marking?

A

150’

304
Q

Yellow solid double line defines what?

A
  1. Edge of usable, full strength taxiway

2. Adjoining pavement is not intended for use by aircraft

305
Q

A VOR Ground Marking Sign is what color?

A

Black letters on a yellow background

306
Q

Where is a common application for a yellow dashed double line?

A

Taxi route along the outer edge of a terminal apron

307
Q

Describe A VOR ground checkpoint marking. (4)

A
  1. 2 Concentric Circles
  2. Outside circle - white
  3. Inside Circle -yellow
  4. Yellow Arrow
308
Q

What two markings are required on taxiways at public use airports?

A
  1. Taxiway Centerline

2. Hold Markings

309
Q

When are shoulder stripe markings required on visual and non-precision runways?

A

When the full runway pavement is not available for use as a runway

310
Q

What is required to cross a runway hold-position marking onto a runway?

A
  1. Authorization from ATCT if it’s in operation
311
Q

When does the pilot announce he is clear of the runway?

A

After they have crossed the dashed and solid lines of the runway hold position marking

312
Q

What does a Yellow-Ladder type surface marking indicate?

A

The boundaries of certain navigational equipment sensitive areas. Aircraft and vehicles should be kept clear during IFR conditions

313
Q

This pavement marking is two concentric circles - outside white and inside yellow - with a yellow arrow

A

VOR Ground Checkpoint marking

314
Q

This line is a continuous white line and is required on precision instrument runways

A

Shoulder Stripe Markings

315
Q

Yellow dashed double line defines what?

A
  1. Edge where adjoining pavement is USABLE
316
Q

A __________, typically a surface painted marking, is located in an area large enough for an aircraft to maneuver and align to the different magnetic headings indicated on the pavement.

A

Compass rose

317
Q

When is a segmented circle required?

A

At airports serving air carrier operations and when no control tower is in operation

318
Q

What is a compass rose used for?

A

To help calibrate the aircraft magnetic compass

319
Q

What is at the middle of a segmented circle?

A

Surface wind indicator

320
Q

A wind indicator can be one of 2 things

A
  1. Wind sock

2. Wind Tee

321
Q

What are the two colors a segmented circle can be?

A
  1. White

2. Yellow

322
Q

What extends from a segmented circle?

A

Landing Strip indicator

323
Q

How many landing strip indicators are there per segmented circle

A

As many as there are runways

324
Q

Wind socks typically have a minimum opening diameter of how many inches?

A

18”

325
Q

What wind speeds does the wind sock indicate?

A

5-50 MPH

326
Q

What is the typical color of a wind cone? (3)

A

White, yellow, or orange

327
Q

What color is the support structure of a wind cone?

A

Orange

328
Q

How many wind cones are required at an airport used for Part 139?

A

One for each runway available

329
Q

Where are supplemental wind cones installed?

A
  1. The end of each runway

Or 2. A point visible to the pilot while on final approach and prior to takeoff

330
Q

When must a windcone be lit? (2)

A
  1. Air carrier operating airports

2. during darkness

331
Q

The longevity of pavement is highly dependent on an airport pavement management system that focuses on _______________

A

Preventative Maintenance

332
Q

Airport pavement is engineered for a minimum of _______ years structural life

A

20 years

333
Q

To get 20 years of structural life out of pavement it is expected the airport performs ____________

A

Regular preventative maintenance

334
Q

The FAA requires a pavement maintenance program that includes (5)

A
  1. Pavement Inventory
  2. Annual Inspections
  3. Periodic Inspections
  4. Record Keeping system
  5. Identification of maintenance program funding
335
Q

What is the greatest single cause of pavement deterioration?

A

Lack of adequate maintenance

336
Q

Part 139 requires a __________ inspection of airport pavements in the movement area

A

Daily

337
Q

In addition to daily pavement inspections, _____________ inspections should be conducted ___________

A

Periodic Maintenance Inspections

Twice a year

338
Q

Whose obligation is it to prevent the over-stressing of airport pavements?

A

Airport Operator

339
Q

Which paved areas must be inspected daily before the beginning of commercial flight and again at night if night air carrier operations take place? (2)

A
  1. All paved areas that are the responsibility of the operator
  2. Or as specified in the Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
340
Q

Nantucket’s airport’s pavement is rated to handle up to 80,000 lbs. They just received service from Aeromass who wants to use 120,000 lb aircraft. The aircraft manager can’t turn down that opportunity and allows it, and the pavement starts to break down. What happens?

A

It is the airport operator’s responsibility to not overstress the pavement.
The cost to restore the pavement may not be eligible for Federal funding

341
Q

Worcester airport operates from 6 AM - 6 PM and has daily service to Boston and Hyannis. How often must they inspect the pavement

A

Once daily before commercial flight operations

342
Q

Vineyard Haven airport has flights to Boston, Hyannis, and Provincetown during the day with an overnight flight to JFK as well. How often must they inspect the pavement?

A

Twice.

Once daily before commercial flight operations and once at night

343
Q

What does the checklist for a daily pavement inspection include?

A
  1. Any pavement edges exceeding 3” as well as cracks and holes
  2. Cracks or surface deterioration that may cause FOD
  3. Pavement edge obstructions that may impede water
  4. Rubber deposits from aircraft tires
  5. Condition of Pavement Markings
  6. Loose joint seal material
344
Q

Define a hole (3)

A
  1. 5” in diamter
  2. 3” in depth
  3. Inside slope greater than 45 degrees
345
Q

Each FBI office that has an airport within its jurisdiction has an assigned agent to handle aviation security issues known as a(n) _____________

A

Airport Liaison Agent (ALA)

346
Q

What is an Airport Liaison Agent (ALA) responsible for?

A
  1. Disseminating relevant threat information to Airport operators and law enforcement personnel
  2. Serving on the airport’s security consortium
  3. Liaison to both commercial service and GA airports
347
Q

When a major plane crash occurs, what agency must be notified?

A

FBI

348
Q

Who takes over as lead in aircraft accident investigation?

A

NTSB

349
Q

If there is information that points the crash was possibly tied to terrorism or crime, who takes over as lead investigators?

A

FBI

350
Q

What agency operates the Joint Terrorism Task Force?

A

FBI

351
Q

What entity consists of FBI personnel, state and local police, and intelligence personnel focused on preventing terrorism and arresting terrorists?

A

Joint Terrorism Task Force

352
Q

What person from the FBI must be notified whenever there is an act or potential act of unlawful interference with aviation (including air rage)

A

Airport Liaison Agent (ALA)

353
Q

Airport Liaison Agent (ALA) should be contacted for any incidents such as (4)

A
  1. Air Rage
    2 Discovery of an explosive at the airport or on an aircraft
  2. Bomb threats
  3. Hijacking
354
Q

Who is designated lead agency at an airport in the case of a security related incident? FBI or TSA?

A

FBI

355
Q

Who is typically lead agency until the FBI can show up?

A

Airport Police

356
Q

By regulation who from TSA can take over as the incident commander?

A

Federal Security Director

357
Q

What is considered the security front door of an airport?

A

The security checkpoint

358
Q

What primarily addresses the security back door?

A

The Airport Security Program

359
Q

The four security areas of an airport are what?

A
  1. Secure Area
  2. Sterile Area
  3. SIDA
  4. Air Operations Area
360
Q

This security area must be visually identified (most often by signs). Access must be controlled through lock and key

A

Air Operations Area

361
Q

What is considered part of the Air Operations Area

A

The entire airfield except where secure areas are located

362
Q

This area begins at the security checkpoint and extends to the doors leading outside to the airfield

A

Sterile Area

363
Q

Who controls the sterile area? (3)

A
  1. TSA
  2. The airport operator (through employee credentials)
  3. Aircraft Operator
364
Q

This area can be part of a secured area or Air Operations Area

A

Security Identification Display Area (SIDA)

365
Q

Which security area has the lowest level of access control requirements?

A

The Air Operations Area

366
Q

Which area has the highest level of access controls?

A

Secured area

367
Q

What type of security system does the secured area require? (3)

A
  1. A system that can validate access
  2. Distinguish the individual’s access authority, and
  3. Deny access immediately
368
Q

What security does a SIDA need?

A

A SIDA doesn’t have access control requirements without being incorporated into the AOA or a secured area

369
Q

Where might a standalone SIDA be found?

A

Inside a cargo facility on commercial service airports.

370
Q

What makes a SIDA unique?

A

You must display an airport approved identification badge

371
Q

If aircraft operators want to control the access and movements of employees within leased areas they may be eligible to sign a(n) _____________

A

Exclusive Area Agreement

372
Q

What is a benefit of an exclusive area agreement (EAA)

A

It fees up resources and money for the airport

373
Q

What system is used to control the flow of authorized personnel but not passengers

A

Physical Access Control System (PACS)

374
Q

An Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA) means there is an amendment in what document?

A

Airport Security Program (ASP)

375
Q

Who must approve an Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA)?

A

TSA

376
Q

What program is similar to an Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA) but is for non air carrier users?

A

Airport Tenant Security Program (ATSP)

377
Q

To control access between the security areas and public areas of an airport what system might be used?

A

Physical Access Control System (PACS)

378
Q

Exclusive Area Agreements (EAA) apply to entities operating under __________

A

Title 49 CFR Part 1544 or 1546

379
Q

What are the 3 requirements of a Physical Access Control System (PACS)

A
  1. Monitor access to secured/sterile areas
  2. Record attempts to access the area
  3. Verify the holder of the ID is entitled to pass
  4. For AOA access airport operator must explain how the access control measure will deter, detect, allow the airport to respond to a breach
380
Q

San Francisco Airport has a PACS system at all locked doors to get from the sterile area to the secured area, but not in the air operations area. Is it required that a PACS monitor all access control points at the airport?

A

No. Less used access points can be controlled with a padlock and key

381
Q

What is the percentage performance requirement for a PACS system?

A

99.99% or higher

382
Q

A door that access security areas are know as ________ access points

A

Point of Denial

383
Q

Who must respond to all door/gate alarms on access points that access a security area?

A

Airport Operator

384
Q

Airport operators should require vehicles to have what to identify the vehicle on the airfield

A

Stickers or decals on BOTH sides

385
Q

An Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) has what four sections?

A
  1. Basic Plan
  2. Functional Annexes
  3. Hazard Specific Sections
  4. Standard Operating Procedures
386
Q

This section in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) are plans organized around the performance of broad tasks or wide-scale operations

A

Functional Annexes

387
Q

This section in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) provide detailed instructions needed by an individual or organization to fulfill responsibilities and perform tasks assigned.

A

Standard Operating Procedures or checklists

388
Q

This section in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) provides an overview of the airport’s emergency response organization and its policies

A

Basic Plan

389
Q

This section in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) provide additional information applicable to the performance of a function in a support of a particular item

A

Hazard Specific Sections

390
Q

What two sections of the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) are considered stand alone?

A

Hazard Specific Sections and Standard Operating Procedures

391
Q

What describes the FEMA comprehensive approach to emergency management?

A

National Incident Management Systems (NIMS)

392
Q

What 3 set of standardized organizational structures does National Incident Management Systems (NIMS) provide?

A
  1. Incident Command System
  2. Multiagency Coordination Systems
  3. Joint Public Information Systems
393
Q

What is a management system designed to enable effective and efficient domestic incident management by integrated a combination of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications within a common organizational structure?

A

Incident Command System (ICS)

394
Q

What are the 5 functional areas of Incident Command System (ICS)

A
  1. Command
  2. Operations
  3. Planning
  4. Logistics
  5. Finance/Administration
395
Q

The effectiveness of an emergency plan depends on what three critical elements?

A
  1. Command
  2. Control
  3. Communication
396
Q

Within the Incident Command System (ICS) what means that a procedure has been established that coordinates the activities of many participants so that the emergency is effectively resolved without duplication of resources?

A

Control

397
Q

Within the Incident Command System (ICS) _______ refers to the ability to act with clearly defined authority and to dominate the actions of the many elements involved so that the objective is accomplished

A

Command

398
Q

Within the Incident Command System (ICS) _______ acts as the “central nervous system” of the overall response

A

Communication

399
Q

Within the Incident Command System (ICS) _______ defines who will assume authority and accept responsibility at the scene of the incident

A

Command

400
Q

____________ is a structure where the main responding agency representatives work together to develop common incident goals and policies.

A

Unified Command

401
Q

in order to meet the NIMS ICS standards, they have made certain modifications such as changing the term Incident Commander to _____________

A

Incident Coordinator

402
Q

Is the airport executive always the incident coordinator?

A

No. Sometimes its best to let the airport executive concentrate on running an airport even during an emergency

403
Q

The ____________ is responsible for managing the equipment and personnel of all responding units

A

Incident Commander

404
Q

________________ command has proven to be the most effective use of decision making and delegation in intense situation

A

Single Command

405
Q

Does the person leading an emergency response always have to be the same person? (3)

A

No, the individual may change depending on

  1. scope
  2. intensity, and
  3. duration of the incident
406
Q

What 3 additional responsibilities in minor incidents does the incident commander have?

A
  1. Scene Safety
  2. Liaison
  3. Dissemination of information
407
Q

This function within Incident Command System (ICS) is responsible for tactical challenges at the incident site

A

Operations

408
Q

In incidents of long duration within the Incident Command System (ICS), the _________ function can be established

A

Planning

409
Q

The _______ of Incident Command System (ICS) is responsible for facilities, services, personnel, equipment, and material in support of the incident

A

Logistics

410
Q

In Incident Command System (ICS) ________ consist of those personnel that carry out the necessary actions to respond to an emergency.

A

Operations

411
Q

This element in Incident Command System (ICS) is responsible for tracking all incident costs, evaluation budget considerations, completing cost analysis, and assuring reimbursement

A

Finance/Administration

412
Q

________ phase of an emergency describes the relationship between the Airport Emergency Plan and other emergency response plans

A

Recovery Phase

413
Q

What are the three key phases of an emergency

A
  1. Response
  2. Investigatory
  3. Recovery
414
Q

________ phase of an emergency may require some type of activity to gather and analyze information and the drawing of conclusions including determination of cause

A

Investigatory Phase

415
Q

________ phase of an emergency are focused on the dispatch and arrival of emergency first responders

A

Response Phase

416
Q

________ phase of an emergency is focused on returning the airport back to normal operation as soon as possible

A

Recovery Phase

417
Q

In Incident Command System (ICS) this group of people include police, fire, ems, and airport maintenance personnel being used

A

Operations

418
Q

After an accident you may not move the wreckage until who arrives?

A

NTSB Accident Investigator

419
Q

Before NTSB arrives you may not move wreckage except for what 3 reasons

A
  1. Remove Trapped or injured people
  2. Protect wreckage from further damage
  3. Protect the public from injury
420
Q

If there is a significant accident the airport should immediately close and not reopen until? (4)

A
  1. Aircraft operating areas are secure
  2. Aircraft movement areas are properly inspected
  3. Adequate ARFF protection is available
  4. Public Safety is assured
421
Q

Upon initial alert the following information should be obtained (7)

A
  1. Aircraft ID
  2. Nature of emergency
  3. Quantity of fuel on board
  4. Runway to be used
  5. Number of occupants on board
  6. Presence of hazardous materials
    7 Location of aircraft
422
Q

A(n) ___________ happens after an aircraft incident has occurred on or near the airport.

A

Alert III

423
Q

A(n) ___________ happens if an aircraft is known or suspected to have an operational defect that should not normally cause serious difficulty in achieving a safe landing

A

Alert I

424
Q

A(n) ___________ happens if an aircraft that is known or suspected to have an operational defect that affect normal flight operations.

A

Alert II

425
Q

In this type of emergency alert, response units will be staffed and will stand by in quarters

A

Alert I

426
Q

In this type of emergency alert, All designated emergency response units proceed to the scene according to established plans and procedures

A

Alert III

427
Q

In this type of emergency alert, all units respond to pre-designated positions.

A

Alert II

428
Q

These are exceptional events that require actions and/or capabilities beyond those considered usual by an airport operator

A

Irregular operations (IROPS)

429
Q

What typically creates Irregular operations (IROPS)

A

Weather

430
Q

Airport operators must take into account how to provide for the needs of stranded passengers during __________

A

Irregular operations (IROPS)

431
Q

Irregular operations (IROPS) events are termed what? (4)

A
  1. Surge
  2. Capacity
  3. After-Hours
  4. Extended Stay
432
Q

A(n) ________ Irregular operations (IROPS) occurs when an aircraft lands with passengers that need to deplane at irregular hours

A

After-Hours

433
Q

A(n) ________ Irregular operations (IROPS) occurs when passengers and aircraft may be stuck at the airport for a day or more

A

Extended Stay

434
Q

A(n) ________ Irregular operations (IROPS) occurs when a high level of aircraft and passengers flow into the airport

A

Surge

435
Q

A(n) ________ Irregular operations (IROPS) occurs when all gates become full with aircraft

A

Capacity

436
Q

Airport operators are required to submit a plan regarding lengthy tarmac delays that includes:

A
  1. Provides for deplanement of passengers
  2. Provide for sharing of facilities and making gates available at airports
  3. Provide facility constraints
  4. Provide a sterile area for those who have not cleared customs
437
Q

To enhance taxiing capabilities in low visibility conditions and to reduce possible runway incursions you may have a ____________ at your airport

A

Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)

438
Q

A Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) is required at any airport that has scheduled air carrier takeoff in visibility less than _______ feet RVR

A

1200’

439
Q

Painted taxiway markings that complement light guidance and informational signs is included as part of ____________

A

Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)

440
Q

A Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) is required at any airport that has________ takeoff in visibility less than 1200 feet RVR

A

Scheduled Air Carrier

441
Q

A Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) requires what items (6)

A
  1. In pavement runway guard lights
  2. Green Centerline and lead on lights
  3. Taxiway clearance bar lights
  4. Gate designator/hold postion marking
  5. Yellow Elevated runway guard lights (wig-wags)
  6. In Pavement lights
442
Q

___________ are designed to facilitate the pilot’s transition from instrument flying to visual identification of the landing runway

A

Approach Lighting Systems (ALS)

443
Q

An Approach Lighting Systems (ALS) typically consists of what 5 components?

A
  1. Sequence Flashing Lights
  2. Approach Lights
  3. Crossbar Lights
  4. Runway End Identifier Lights
  5. Visual Glidescope
444
Q

What color approach lights indicate an undershoot zone?

A

Red

445
Q

__________ is a series of five lights that extend past the 1,000’ mark of the approach lights

A

Sequence Flashing

446
Q

___________ is a series of lights positioned perpendicularly to both sides of the primary approach lights. They are used as a pilot aid in leveling an aircraft’s wings

A

Crossbar

447
Q

The Crossbar provide two services what are they

A
  1. Visual guide to level the planes wings

2. Distance information

448
Q

Which kind of approach light is know as the rabbit?

A

Sequence Flashing Lights

449
Q

How long is a Medium Intensity Approach Light System with RAIL (MALSF)

A

1,400’ in length with sequence flashing

450
Q

What are Runway Alignment Indicator Lights?

A

Sequence Flashers installed in combination with other light systems

451
Q

If a plane sees 4 red on a PAPI what does that mean

A

Too low

452
Q

_________ indicators are available to assist pilots as they approach the runway for landing and provide vertical height information on both visual and instrument approaches

A

Visual Glidescope

453
Q

How far from a runway centerline in parallel is a VASI?

A

250’

454
Q

Where are the two VASI units?

A

One is at 800’ from the threshold the other is at 1200’

455
Q

What is less costly VASI or PAPI

A

PAPI

456
Q

Explain the difference between a PAPI and VASI

A

a VASI has two units spread at 800’ and 1200’ paralled to the runway 250’ away. A PAPI is installed all in a row perpendicular to the runway

457
Q

What visual glidescope indicator is typically used for helicopters?

A

Pulsed Light Visual Approach Slope Indicator (PVASI)

458
Q

The three basic plans the Part 139 requires are what?

A
  1. Snow and Ice Control Plan
  2. Wildlife Hazard Management Plan
  3. Airport Emergency Plan
459
Q

The Stafford Act states what?

A

To qualify for federal aid, you must develop an emergency preparedness plan

460
Q

What are the 4 separate but related actions of Comprehensive Emergency Management?

A
  1. Preparedness
  2. Response
  3. Recovery
  4. Mitigation
461
Q

An Airport Emergency Plan concentrates on what two phases of the Comprehensive Emergency Management chart?

A

Response and Recovery

462
Q

The primary purpose of an Airport Emergency Plan are to provide for what 4 things?

A
  1. Delegation of authority
  2. Assignment of responsibilities
  3. Coordination of efforts by responding personnel
  4. Orderly transition between normal and emergency operations
463
Q

A _____________ must be conducted to identify other emergencies that should be addressed in the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP)

A

Hazard/Risk Analysis

464
Q

What areas are required to be covered in an Airport Emergency Plan under Part 139? (9)

A
  1. Aircraft incidents
  2. Bomb
  3. Structural Fires
  4. Fires at Fuel Farms
  5. Natural Disasters
  6. Hazardous materials incidents
  7. Hijackings
  8. Power Failures
  9. Water Rescues
465
Q

In an Airport Emergency Plan (AEP all existing plans and agreements such as __________ and the airport security program should be reviewed

A

Memorandums of Understanding (MOU)

466
Q

What are the ARFF requirements for the first responding ARFF equipment?

A

Reach the midpoint of the furthest air carrier runway and begin applying firefighting agent within 3 minutes from the time of the alarm with all required onboard personnel in full protective gear

467
Q

What are the ARFF requirements for all other vehicles beyond the first?

A

Must reach the midpoint of the furthest air carrier runway within 4 minutes.

468
Q

Safety oversight is best provided through an organization wide _____________

A

Safety Management System

469
Q

Where is Safety Management Systems (SMS) required?

A
  1. Small, Medium, Large Hub airports in NPIAS
  2. Identified by customs as a port of entry or international airport
  3. > 100,000 total annual operations
470
Q

___________ are airline employees assigned to manage security functions for each passenger and cargo flight

A

Ground Security Coordinators

471
Q

What are the primary responsibilities of the Ground Security Coordinators (4)

A
  1. Resolve conflicts between gate agents and passengers
  2. Intervene with disruptive passengers
  3. Act as a point of contact for bomb threats and hijackings until relieved by higher authority
  4. Oversee cargo and baggage acceptance procedures
472
Q

Are GA airports required to follow the requirements of Title 49 CFR 1542?

A

No

473
Q

What airports does Title 49 CFR 1542 cover?

A

Commercial service airports in the US including those with service by aircraft operators, public and private charters

474
Q

What specific role is called out in Title 49 CFR 1542?

A

Airport Security Coordinator

475
Q

What is included in Title 49 CFR 1542? (4)

A
  1. Access control
  2. Personnel ID systems
  3. Contingency Planning
  4. Incident Response
476
Q

The ____________ is the designated individual responsible for the implementation and oversight of the Safety Management System (SMS) processes at an airport from the policy perspective.

A

Accountable Executive (AE)

477
Q

Are the Accountable Executive and SMS program manager the same?

A

No

478
Q

What is the SMS Program Manager’s role?

A

Plans and implements the SMS programs and is an expert on SMS

479
Q

Who reports to whom in the SMS?

A

The SMS Program Manager reports to the Accountable Executive

480
Q

The vast amount of bird strikes occur below what level?

A

600’

481
Q

What makes wildlife a hazard at an airport? (2)

A
  1. When the potential for damaging aircraft on or near the airport exist
  2. When certain conditions attracting wildlife to the vicinity of the airport exist
482
Q

What does Part 139 require to show regarding wildlife?

A

Instructions and procedures for the prevention and removal of factors that attract or may attract wildlife

483
Q

A ___________ is any man-made structure, land use practice, geomorphic feature that might attract or sustain hazardous wildlife within the landing or departure airspace, aircraft movement area, loading ramps or parking areas

A

Wildlife Attractant

484
Q

How often should a wildlife inspection occur?

A

Daily

485
Q

What should you do if you find dead wildlife on an airport?

A

Report it to the FAA with Form 5200-7

486
Q

What two reasons would you fill out an FAA Form 5200-7

A
  1. Dead wildlife found

2. A wildlife aircraft strike occurs

487
Q

When must a Wildlife Hazard Assessment occur? (4)

A
  1. Air carrier aircraft experiences multiple bird strikes
  2. Air carrier aircraft experiences substantial damage from striking wildlife
  3. Air carrier aircraft has an engine ingestion of wildlife
  4. Wildlife large enough or enough of that are capable for causing an accident are observed
488
Q

Since the US Airways “Sully” incident what has happened?

A

All Part 139 airports have conducted or are conducting a Wildlife Hazard Assessment

489
Q

Who must conduct a Wildlife Hazard Assessment? (WHA) (2)

A
  1. A wildlife damage biologist

2. Someone working under the above

490
Q

What does a Wildlife Hazard Assessment? (WHA) consist of? (5)

A
  1. Analyzing the events or circumstances that prompted the research
  2. Identifying species, numbers, locations of wildlife
  3. Identifying wildlife attractants near the airport
  4. Describing wildlife hazards to air carrier operations
  5. Recommendation Actions
491
Q

What happens upon completion of a Wildlife Hazard Assesment?

A

the document is submitted to the FAA for APPROVAL

492
Q

Who determines the need for a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan?

A

The FAA Administrator

493
Q

In addressing wildlife hazards at a Part 139 airport, what are the 3 entries that can be made?

A
  1. statement of negative activity
  2. Brief statement of no-hazard findings during the wildlife hazard assessment (WHA)
  3. Wildlife Hazard Management Plan
494
Q

What document should provide instructions for reporting observed wildlife activity?

A

The Airport Certification Manual

495
Q

What document does a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan become part of?

A

The Airport Certification Manual

496
Q

What two requirements are put on the airport operator if a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan (WHMP) is mandated by the FAA?

A
  1. A qualified biologist must conduct a training for airport personnel
  2. The Wildlife Hazard Management Plan must be reviewed annually by a biologist
497
Q

What are the two approaches wildlife control is based on?

A
  1. Habitat Modification

2. Active Control

498
Q

Scaring, Dispersing, Trapping, and killing animals causing problems is considered ____________

A

Active Control

499
Q

To control animals through lethal methods what does it require?

A

A depredation permit from a state or federal fish and wildlife service

500
Q

Can AIP funds be used for wildlife control?

A

Yes, because grant assurances and certification are affected by this

501
Q

What US organization has expertise in the management of wildlife problems?

A

US Department of Agriculture

502
Q

If an existing land-use practice creates a wildlife hazard that cannot be immediately eliminated, airport management is obligated to issue a __________

A

NOTAM

503
Q

If a NOTAM regarding Wildlife hazards is expected to continue an entry needs to be made in the ____________ and be accompanied by a(n) ______________________

A

Airport Facility Directory

Wildlife Hazard Assessment

504
Q

A(n) _____________ includes elements such as computer-aided dispatch for police and fire personnel, coordination of airside and landside emergencies as well as others and fulfills the requirements for Part 139 for Airport Emergency Plans

A

Airports Communication Center

505
Q

An _______________ must include procedures for prompt response to emergencies and notification to both the public and response agencies

A

Airport Emergency Plans

506
Q

An Airport Emergency Plan must include procedures for prompt response to emergencies and ____________ to both the public and response agencies

A

Notification

507
Q

The function of the ___________ is to provide support to Incident Command personnel and coordinate other necessary support functions, which may also include assistance to the airport operator in keeping the airport open (if possible).

A

Emergency Operations Center (EOC)

508
Q

In response to an aircraft emergency, the airport Airport Certification Manual and Airport Emergency Plan require that there be what?

A
  1. Emergency Alert System
  2. A means of emergency notification
  3. a pre-set determination of the type of initial response
509
Q

An ____________ is the method or means for notifying airport emergency response personnel of an emergency

A

Emergency Alerting System

510
Q

What advisory circular establishes minimum criteria for emergency communication?

A

AC 5270-7D Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting Communications

511
Q

The objective of the _______________ should be to provide effective primary and alternate means for direct communication between the air traffic control tower, Airport Executive, and airport rescue and firefighting assets

A

Airport emergency communications system

512
Q

What two separate groups directly involved in an emergency must have the ability to communicate with one another?

A
  1. Aircraft in the emergency w/Incident Commander

2. Incident Commander w/local aid organization, ARFF vehicles, and dispatch

513
Q

The objective of an Airport emergency communications system is for a primary and alternate means for direct communication between what 3 entities?

A
  1. ATCT
  2. Airport Executive
  3. ARFF assets
514
Q

What are the aspects of aviation security that are also related to airport communications? (4)

A
  1. Monitoring restricted areas
  2. Alarm notification of a breach of sterile area
  3. Recording/viewing events on CCTV
  4. Responding with law enforcement to incidents
515
Q

For aviation security and airport communications, the TSA encourages what sort of area to fulfill requirements?

A

Security Operations Center

516
Q

For resiliency, the communications center should have

A
  1. Redundant systems
  2. Generators for backup power
  3. Security
  4. Protected from natural disasters
517
Q

In case an on airport communications center is unavailable, what should an airport do

A

An offsite communications center location should be identified that can provide minimal operational capacity

518
Q

What are 3 technological features that Airport Communications Centers may use?

A
  1. Computer Aided Dispatching
  2. Telecommunication Devices for the Deaf (TDD)
  3. National Crime Information Center (NCIC) System
519
Q

The ______________ receives and processes emergency and nonemergency calls from the public requesting assistance, and transmits and coordinates the dispatching of appropriate service providers.

A

Airport Communications Dispatcher (ACD)

520
Q

According to the National Academies of Emergency Dispatch, an emergency telecommunication involves six basic components:

A
  1. Telephone interrogation
  2. Resource Allocation
  3. Coordination of Logistics
  4. Call prioritization
  5. Impacting lives
  6. Resource Networking
521
Q

With regards to dispatchers and Sensitive Security Information, confidential matters can include

A
  1. Suspect/Victim ID
  2. Criminal History
  3. Infectious disease info
  4. ID of juvenile offenders
  5. Victims of sexual crimes
522
Q

In 2002, the ____________ assembled a homeland security task force and published a paper claiming that dispatchers and call takers need to receive training in analyzing emergency information

A

Association of Public Safety Communications Officials

AAAE CM (5 decks)

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