Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Lab Modules > Module 2 - Hematology > Flashcards

Module 2 - Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Life span:

RBC

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Life span:

Platelets

A

10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Life span:

Macrophages

A

months-years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Life span:

Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)

A

3-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Life span:

Lymphocytes

A

100-300 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cells involved in innate immunity?

A

complement, NK cells, neutrophils and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Innate immunity has ___ response

A

fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ immunity contains and limits spread of infection (SWAT team)

A

Innate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cells involved in acquired immunity?

A

lymphocytes (B and T cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acquired immunity has ______ response

A

slower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

______ immunity seeks out foreign invaders and destroys them (Spies)

A

Acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes inflammation?

A

neutrophils and macrophages eat or engulf foreign invaders and recruit more to injured site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are interferons?

A

triggers production of virus-blocking enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are NK (natural killer) cells?

A

non-specifically destroy virus and cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the complement system do?

A

punches holes in the plasma membrane of non-self cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 2 branches of acquired immunity?

A

1) humoral

2) cell-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

B cells are part of ______ immunity

A

humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T cells are part of ________ immunity

A

cell-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the RBC count?

A

the amount of red blood cells per litre of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why do women have less RBC than men after puberty?

A
  • menstrual blood loss
  • lower androgen levels than men (androgens are erythropoietic)
  • erythropoesis is the process of making red blood cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Reasons for RBC being high?

A
  • steroid use/blood doping
  • high altitude
  • renal carcinoma, renal transplant
  • polycythemia vera, leukemias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Are reticulocytes part of a CBC?

A

NO WAY MAN

*must order separately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Reticulocytes also known as ______

A

retics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are reticulocytes?

A

immature red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe reticulocytes

A

are larger than red blood cells; become mature in about 1 day after release into the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are reticulocytes an indication of?

A

new RBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Reticulocytes are increased in?

A
  • acute blood loss
  • hemolysis
  • treated anemias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Reticulocytes are decreased in?

A

-untreated iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

The amount of metalloporphyrin-protein contained in one litre of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does hemoglobin tell us about?

A

the oxygen-transport capacity of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What could cause hemoglobin to be low?

A
  • anemia
  • blood loss
  • drugs
  • nutritional deficiency
  • bone marrow disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What could cause hemoglobin to be high?

A
  • blood doping (erythropoietin use)
  • high altitude
  • dehydration
  • polycythemia
  • bone marrow disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

-The percentage amount of blood that is composed of erythrocytes; also known as packed cell volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why might HCT (hematocrit) be altered?

A

if the size or shape of RBCs is not normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the formula for Hct?

A

Hct = (length of packed RBCs)/(Length of whole blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the MCV (mean corpuscular volume)

A

The average volume of the RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the MCV used to determine?

A

size of the RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Normal Hct = ?

A

normocytic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Low Hct = ?

A

microcytic cells (small) - iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

High Hct = ?

A

microcytic cells (large) - folate/ vit B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What can falsely elevate MCV?

A
  • reticulocytosis (larger than mature RBCs) can increase MCV

- hyperglycemia (diluent is hypotonic = cells swell) can increase MCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin)?

A

the average weight of hemoglobin per RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the formula for MCH

A

MCH = Hgb/RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

low MCH = ?

A

iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why is MCH used alone not that clinically significant?

A

alone cannot distinguish between microcytosis and hypochromia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What can falsely elevate MCH?

A

hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration) ??

A

The average hemoglobin concentration in the RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is MCHC used to determine?

A

color of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does Low MCHC indicate?

A 
hypo chromic (pale) cells
AND
iron deficiency anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Formula for MCHC?

A

MCHC = Hgb/Hct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What can falsely elevate MCHC?

A

hyperlipidemia (sample turbid which looks like higher hemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Can MCHC distinguish between microcytosis (normal MCHC) and hypochromia (low MCHC) ?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does RDW (red cell distribution width) measure?

A

measures the variability in size of the RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

high RDW value = RBCs are of unequal size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does anisocytosis with microcytosis (small) indicate?

A
  • iron deficiency anemia

- sickle cell anemia

56
Q

What does anisocytosis with macrocytosis (large) indicate?

A
  • folate/B12 deficiency
  • chronic liver disease
  • hemolytic anemia
  • chemotherapy
57
Q

Thrombocytosis = ?

A

high platelet count

58
Q

Thrombocytopenia = ?

A

low platelet count

59
Q

What could cause thrombocytosis (high platelet count)?

A
  • trauma/acute blood loss

- splenectomy

60
Q

What could cause thrombocytopenia (low platelet count)?

A

Drugs such as:

  • amphotericin B
  • penicillins, cephalosporins
  • heparin
  • antineoplastics
61
Q

What is the mean platelet volume?

A
  • reflects the average size of platelets

- inverse relationship with platelet count

62
Q

Low Mean Platelet Volume = ?

A

impaired platelet production

63
Q

High Mean Platelet Volume = ?

A

increased destruction of platelets

64
Q

When are WBC elevated?

A

during an infection or inflammatory process

65
Q

See the assessing anemia chart

A

otay

66
Q

Not enough iron causes _______ anemia

A

microcytic (small cells)

67
Q

Who is at risk of iron deficiency anemia?

A
  • blood loss
  • heavy menstruation
  • altered absorption
  • pregnancy/lactation
  • vegetarians or vegans
  • more on slide 25
68
Q

What does serum iron measure?

A

the amount of iron bound to transferrin

69
Q

Serum iron will be ____ in iron deficiency anemia

A

LOW

70
Q

Why is serum iron not very useful on its own?

A

because it can fluctuate during the day

71
Q

What is TIBC (total iron binding concentration)

A

TIBC measures the iron binding capacity of transferrin protein (how much total iron can bind?)

72
Q

In iron deficiency anemia, TIBC is _______

A

increased

  • synthesis of transferrin goes up
  • low iron = more binding capacity
73
Q

What does ferritin reflect?

A

-reflects total body iron stores (storage iron)

74
Q

What is ferritin?

A

an iron-protein complex (ionized iron can cause oxidative damage)

75
Q

About _________ mg or iron is stored as ferritin

A

500-1500mg

76
Q

What is low ferritin an indicator of?

A

iron deficiency anemia

77
Q

Ferrous gluconate 300mg tab has ____ elemental iron

A

35mg (11.6%)

78
Q

Ferrous sulfate 300mg tab has ____ elemental iron

A

60mg (20%)

79
Q

Ferrous fumarate 300mg tab has ____ elemental iron

A

99mg (33%)

80
Q

What is the dose of iron for iron deficiency anemia treatment?

A

2-3mg/kg/day elemental iron

81
Q

________ will increase by day 3-4, peak at day 7-10 then normalize by 2 weeks of iron therapy

A

Reticulocytes

82
Q

Monitor ____ in 2-3 weeks, increase by 10g/L

A

hemoglobin

83
Q

Monitor ______ in 2-3 weeks, increase by 6%

A

hematocrit

84
Q

Monitor ______ in 1-2 months

A

ferritin

85
Q

All labs related to anemia should normalize by ______ months of therapy

A

1-2

86
Q

Patients should be treated for ___ months to build up iron stores

A

3-6

87
Q

List a few drugs that can cause macrocytic anemia

A
  • H2 blockers
  • Proton Pump Inhibitors
  • ASA
  • oral contraceptives
  • metformin
  • slide 33
88
Q

What is vitamin B12 important for?

A

proper formation of red blood cells and the maintenance of the central nervous system (myelination)

89
Q

Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

A

parenthesis, poor concentration, irritability, painful tongue, loss of appetite, diarrrhea/constipation, microcytic anemia

90
Q

Who is at risk of vit B12 deficiency anemia?

A
  • elderly
  • vegans
  • patients with defective intrinsic factor
91
Q

What labs need to be monitored for vitamin B12 deficiency anemia?

A
  • Vit B12 levels
  • RBC folate ?
  • CBC
  • K+ (rapid production of reticulocytes use up potassium)
92
Q

Decreased white blood cell count is called ________

A

leukopenia

93
Q

Increased white blood cell count is called ________

A

leukocytosis

94
Q

What can cause leukopenia (decreased WBC)?

A
  • severe infection (sepsis)

- chemotherapy or other drug causes

95
Q

What can cause leukocytosis (increased WBC)?

A
  • acute infection
  • inflammatory processes
  • leukemia
96
Q

Neutrophils are also called ???

A

“polys”
“segs”
“PMNs”

97
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

most abundant, act as phagocytes to digest foreign bacteria and fungi

98
Q

________ = increased neutrophils

A

demargination

99
Q

Low neutrophil count = ________

A

neutropenia

100
Q

High neutrophil count = ___________

A

neutrophilia

101
Q

What can cause a high neutrophil count (neutrophilia)?

A
  • bacterial infection

- chronic inflammation

102
Q

What kind of drugs can cause a low neutrophil count (neutropenia)?

A
  • clozapine

- cancer chemotherapy - direct toxic effects on bone marrow

103
Q

Clozapine requires regular blood work to monitor for ________

A

agranulocytosis

104
Q

What else requires close monitoring of white blood cells?

A

cancer chemotherapies

105
Q

What is the formula for ANC?

A

ANC = [(WBC x 1000) x (%PMN + % bands)] / 100

106
Q

What does a left band shift indicate?

A

an infection is occurring

107
Q

Where are eosinophils found?

A

In large numbers in the intestinal mucosa and lungs

108
Q

What can eosinophils do?

A

phagocytize, kill and digest bacteria and yeast

109
Q

What can elevate eosinophils?

A
  • allergic reactions (IgG, IgE surface receptors)
  • asthma/eczema
  • parasitic infections
  • malignancies
110
Q

Describe basophils

A

similar to mast cells and can release heparin, histamine, prostaglandins and leukotrienes

111
Q

What can elevate basophils?

A

1) Allergies
- Anaphylactic reactions (immediate hypersensitivity)
- Delayed hypersensitivity reactions

2) Leukemia

112
Q

Monocytes/Macrophages leave the circulation in _____ hours then mature into macrophages in the tissues

A

16-36

113
Q

Monocytes/Macrophages are known as ??

A

garbage collectors - they destroy old RBCs, denatured proteins, and plasma lipids

114
Q

What are a few reasons for elevated monocytes (monocytosis)

A
  • recovery from bacterial infection
  • endocarditis
  • tuberculosis
  • rickettsial or protozoa infection
  • leukemia
115
Q

_________ = T-cells, B-cells, and NK cells

A

Lymphocytes

116
Q

Lymphocytes are important for proper functioning of the _________ immune response

A

adaptive

117
Q

What do lymphocytes attack?

A

Mostly intracellular invaders:

  • Viruses (including mononucleosis)
  • Bacteria (tuberculosis, syphilis, pertussis (toxin)
118
Q

What will cause increased lymphocytes (lymphocytosis) ?

A
  • viral infection
  • some bacterial infections
  • lymphoma
119
Q

What will cause decreased lymphocytes (lymphophenia)?

A
  • HIV type 1
  • radiation
  • glucocorticoids
  • lymphoma
120
Q

When should a WBC start to decline after initiating antibiotic therapy?

A

should start to decline in 24-48 hours

121
Q

What is aPTT test?

A

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time:
-used to screen for deficiencies and inhibitors of factors within the intrinsic pathway (8, 9, 11, 12) and for the final common pathway (2, 5, 10)

122
Q

What is added to the patient’s blood to do a aPTT test?

A

A reagent and calcium are added to the patient’s blood to see how fast it clots

123
Q

What does a lower aPTT indicate?

A

risk of clotting

124
Q

What does a higher aPTT indicate?

A

risk of bleeding

125
Q

What is PT and INR?

A 
PT = prothrombin time
INR = International Normalized Ratio
126
Q

What is PT and INR used to screen?

A

used to screen for deficiencies in the extrinsic and common pathways (factors 2, 5, 7, and 10)

127
Q

What is the difference between PT and INR?

A

PT is in seconds

INR is unit-less

128
Q

Higher INR = ?

A

greater risk of BLEEDING

129
Q

Lower INR = ?

A

greater risk of CLOTTING

130
Q

What is the formula for INR?

A

INR = patient PT/mean normal PT

131
Q

What does heparin do?

A

Potentiates the action of Antithrombin 3 (inactivates thrombin), prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and deactivates Factors 9, 10, 11, and 12

132
Q

What do LMWH inhibit?

A

Factors Xa and IIa

133
Q

What does warfarin inhibit?

A

inhibits the synthesis of Factors 2, 7, 9 and 10

134
Q 
Which factor (2, 7, 9, or 10) has the shortest half life?
**need to know this for Clinical as well
A

factor 7

135
Q

When starting warfarin therapy, wait at least _____ before measuring INR

A

3 days

136
Q

What is the antidote for warfarin?

A

vitamin K

137
Q

What is the target INR for most patients on warfarin?

A

2.0 - 3.0

Lab Modules (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions