Module 2 Discussion Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 stages of alcohol withdrawal

A

minor withdrawal symptoms
hallucinosis
withdrawal seizures
tremens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when does minor withdrawal symptoms occur?

A

6-12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does minor alcohol withdrawal symptoms include

A

tremors, sweating, N/V, HTN, tachy, hypertehermia, tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when does alcholic hallucination occur or stage 2

A

12-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

when does stage 3 seizures occur

A

24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when does delirium trememns occur

A

48-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is included in delirium trememns

A

delirium, psychosis, hallucinations, hypertehermia, malignant hypertension siezures and coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what differentiates DTs from alcoholic hallucinsosi

A

presence of disorientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

out of lorazepam and diazepam which drug is favored for the elderly or pts with severe liver or respiratory failoure

A

lorazepam because it has fewer metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what can prevent DTs

A

early intervention of EtOH withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the benefit of diazepam

A

longer duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the LOU at minimum for acute withdarawl

A

potentially unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is mortalitly from regarding DTs

A

hyperthermia
severe HTN
cardiac arrhythmias
seizure complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what three things occur during anaphylaxis

A

capillary permeability
peripheral vasodilation
constricton of smooth muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how many systems must be included for anaphylaxis to be diagnosed

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is important regarding d/c of anaphylaxis patients

A

d/c teaching about possibility of reurrence of symptoms up to 3 days

17
Q

what are biphasic reactions in anaplhylaxis

A

occur 1-8 huours after risk 20%

18
Q

What effects does epinephrine have

A

alpah effects, beta 1 and 2

19
Q

what is a chronotrope

A

increased HR

20
Q

what is an inotrope

A

increased contractility

21
Q

what alpha effects does epi have

A

incresed vasoconstriction and peripheral vascularar resistance
decreased mucosal edema

22
Q

what beta one effects does epi have

A

increased HR and inotropic effects

23
Q

what beta 2 effects does epi have

A

bronchodilation and decreased histamine release from the mast cells and basophils

24
Q

where and how is epi administred

A
vastus lateralis (thigh)
IM
25
Q

what drugs are given in anaphylaxis

A

epi, antihistamines, corticosteroids,

26
Q

why are antihistamines given in anaphylaxis

A

help treat cutaneous symtpoms - hives/itchiness

27
Q

Interventions for sepsis

A

preload mamangement - 30cc.kg in first 3 hours
inotrope - norepi is first line amintain MAP above 65
cardiac monitor for dsyrhtmias associated with acidosis and shock
IV abx within 1 hour
high flow O2
frequent ABG
ecntral and arterial line
oactate within 30 mins

28
Q

if sepsis is showing signs of cardiogenic shock which drug should eb given

A

dobutamine

29
Q

when should a second lactate be done, which teim interval

A

within 30 mins repeat in 2-4 hours if intiial value greater or equal to 4mmol/L

30
Q

what does a high CD4 count mean

A

high viral load

31
Q

what CTAS score should be given witto a patient with a high CD4 coutn

A

2