Module 2 Flashcards

Debt Investments

1
Q

What are the categories of bonds based on the issuer of the debt obligation?

A

U.S. government or Treasury securities, municipal obligations, corporate debt

Categories include Treasury notes, Treasury bonds, general obligation bonds, and debentures.

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2
Q

What type of bonds are issued by the U.S. government?

A

Treasury securities

Examples include Treasury notes and Treasury bonds.

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3
Q

What are municipal obligations?

A

Bonds issued by local or state governments

An example is general obligation bonds.

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4
Q

What is corporate debt?

A

Debt issued by corporations

An example is debentures.

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5
Q

What type of debt obligations can government agencies issue?

A

Debt obligations that are sometimes backed or guaranteed by the U.S. government

Some agency obligations involve mortgages.

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6
Q

What are asset-backed securities?

A

Securities created by pooling or collateralizing certain debt obligations

Often involves agency obligations related to mortgages.

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7
Q

Fill in the blank: U.S. government securities include Treasury notes and _______.

A

Treasury bonds

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8
Q

True or False: Corporate debt includes general obligation bonds.

A

False

General obligation bonds are a type of municipal obligation.

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9
Q

What is a debenture?

A

A type of corporate debt instrument

It is generally unsecured and relies on the creditworthiness of the issuer.

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10
Q

What is a bond?

A

A debt security obligating the issuer to make periodic interest payments and to repay the principal at maturity.

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11
Q

What are the three ways a bond can be issued?

A
  • Registered form
  • Bearer form
  • Book-entry form
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12
Q

In which form of bond are payments made to the owner of record?

A

Registered form

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13
Q

In which form of bond are payments made to whoever holds or possesses the bond?

A

Bearer form

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14
Q

What is the characteristic of a bond held in book-entry form?

A

Ownership record is held electronically in a central depository.

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15
Q

What is a bond indenture?

A

The formal agreement or contract between the issuer and the bondholder.

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16
Q

What are the provisions in the bond indenture known as?

A

Covenants

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17
Q

What do covenants in a bond indenture include?

A
  • Prohibitions on the borrower
  • Actions the borrower promises to perform
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18
Q

What is a sinking fund?

A

A separate fund established and funded each year by the bond issuer to accumulate an amount required to pay off the debt at maturity.

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19
Q

What is the purpose of a sinking fund?

A

To reduce the default risk associated with some bonds.

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20
Q

What is the par value of a bond?

A

The amount of principal that the bond owner will receive at maturity.

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21
Q

True or False: A bondholder receives interest payments only at maturity.

A

False

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22
Q

Fill in the blank: The amount that the bond owner will receive at maturity is known as the _______.

A

par value

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23
Q

What is the coupon rate of a bond?

A

The stated annual interest rate that will be paid each period for the term of the bond, expressed as a percentage of the par value of the bond.

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24
Q

If a bond has a par value of $1,000 and a coupon rate of 4%, what is the annual interest payment?

A

$40

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25
Q

The annual interest payment of a bond with a coupon rate of 4% and a par value of $1,000 is _______.

A

$40

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26
Q

How much will a bond with a 4% coupon rate pay semiannually?

A

$20

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27
Q

What is the relationship between the coupon rate and the par value of a bond?

A

The coupon rate is stated as a percentage of the par value of the bond.

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28
Q

True or False: The coupon rate is the same as the yield to maturity.

A

False

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29
Q

A bond with a $1,000 par value and a 4% coupon rate will return interest payments of _______ annually.

A

$40

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30
Q

What does a coupon rate of 4% indicate about the bond’s interest payments?

A

It indicates that the bond will pay 4% of its par value in interest each year.

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31
Q

What is a basis point?

A

A measurement of a bond’s yield equal to 1/100 of 1% of yield

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32
Q

How many basis points are in a 2% increase in bond yield?

A

200 basis points

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33
Q

What does it mean when a bond is selling at a discount?

A

Its price in the secondary market is less than the bond’s par value

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34
Q

What is an original issue discount (OID) bond?

A

A bond that is issued at a discount

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35
Q

What does it mean when a bond is selling at a premium?

A

Its price in the secondary market is greater than the bond’s par value

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36
Q

What is a call provision in a bond indenture?

A

It allows the issuer to pay off the bond principal after a specified period at a stipulated price higher than par value

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37
Q

When is an issuer most likely to call a bond?

A

When market interest rates have declined

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38
Q

What is a secured bond?

A

A bond that pledges specific assets that may be sold if the issuer defaults

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39
Q

What is a debenture?

A

A bond that promises payments of interest and principal but pledges no specific assets

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40
Q

How does the yield of a debenture compare to a secured bond?

A

A debenture will have a higher yield due to greater default risk

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41
Q

What is an investment-grade bond?

A

A bond rated BBB– or higher by Standard & Poor’s, indicating little risk of default

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42
Q

What is a high-yield bond?

A

A bond rated BB+ or lower by Standard & Poor’s, indicating higher risk of default

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43
Q

True or False: High-yield securities correlate more highly with common stocks than other bonds.

A

True

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44
Q

What increases the possibility of default for high-yield bonds?

A

Poor business prospects of the issuer

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45
Q

Fill in the blank: A high-yield bond is sometimes referred to as a _______.

A

junk bond

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46
Q

What is the general quality of an investment-grade bond?

A

High-quality with little risk of default

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47
Q

What is the maturity date of a bond?

A

The date when the principal of the bond will be repaid

It is also referred to as the bond’s maturity or term.

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48
Q

What does the term to maturity refer to?

A

The number of years over which the issuer has promised to meet the conditions of the debt obligation

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49
Q

What is the most prominent condition of a debt obligation?

A

Making interest payments

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50
Q

What is a term bond?

A

A bond that has a single maturity date

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51
Q

What is a serial obligation bond?

A

A bond that has a series of maturity dates, each being a subset of the original issue

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52
Q

Give an example of maturity dates for a serial obligation bond.

A

2024, 2025, 2026, …, 2034

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53
Q

Who are the largest issuers of serial bonds?

A

Municipalities

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54
Q

What are debt securities with maturities under one year referred to as?

A

Cash equivalents or money market instruments

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55
Q

What is an example of a money market instrument that sells at par?

A

Negotiable certificates of deposit

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56
Q

True or False: T-bills are traded at a premium.

57
Q

What do T-bills sell for compared to their principal?

A

Less than their principal

58
Q

Fill in the blank: Issues that have been outstanding in the secondary market will move from long term to _______ to short term.

A

Intermediate term

59
Q

What happens to the price volatility of an issue as it moves from long term to short term?

A

It will decline

60
Q

What is the relationship between the maturity of debt securities and their price volatility?

A

As maturity decreases, price volatility declines

61
Q

What do bond rating agencies analyze to determine credit ratings?

A

The financial information of thousands of bond issuers

Examples of bond rating agencies include Standard & Poor’s and Moody’s.

62
Q

What are the two main categories of bonds based on quality?

A
  • Investment-grade bonds
  • Noninvestment-grade bonds

Noninvestment-grade bonds are also known as high-yield or junk bonds.

63
Q

Why do noninvestment-grade bonds typically have higher yields?

A

They carry higher default risk than investment-grade bonds.

64
Q

What is the role of bond rating agencies in the market?

A

To inform the market of their analyses through ratings.

65
Q

Fill in the blank: Bonds are categorized as investment-grade or _______.

A

noninvestment-grade bonds.

66
Q

True or False: All bonds are evaluated the same way regardless of their quality.

67
Q

What is the fundamental analysis provided by bond rating agencies used to determine?

A

The probability of default.

68
Q

What is considered a noninvestment-grade (junk) bond according to Standard & Poor’s and Moody’s?

A

Anything below BBB– (Standard & Poor’s) and Baa (Moody’s)

Noninvestment-grade bonds are typically associated with higher risk and potential for default.

69
Q

What factors are positively related to bond ratings?

A

Profitability, lack of other debt issues, cash-flow coverage of the issuer

Higher profitability and lower debt levels generally lead to better bond ratings.

70
Q

What contributes to lower bond ratings?

A

Excessive financial leverage and earnings instability

These factors increase the risk associated with the issuer’s ability to meet debt obligations.

71
Q

What happens to bond ratings after they are issued?

A

They can go up or down depending on the creditworthiness of the issuer

Ratings are dynamic and can change based on the issuer’s financial situation.

72
Q

How do changes in bond ratings affect yields?

A

Yields will decrease with an upward revision and increase with a downward revision

This reflects the bond’s quality change as perceived by the market.

73
Q

What is the effect of an upward revision in bond rating?

A

Market yield on the bond will decline

This indicates an improvement in the bond’s quality.

74
Q

What is the effect of a downward revision in bond rating?

A

Market yield on the bond will increase

This reflects a decline in the bond’s quality.

75
Q

Fill in the blank: The greater the profitability of the company, the ______ the rating.

A

higher

Profitability is a key determinant in the bond rating process.

76
Q

Fill in the blank: As the price of bonds increases, their yields will ______.

A

decrease

This is an inverse relationship commonly observed in bond markets.

77
Q

True or False: Investors often change bond prices faster than rating agencies change ratings.

A

True

This can lead to changes in yields before official rating updates occur.

78
Q

What is interest rate risk?

A

The risk associated with a decline in the price of a bond as market interest rates rise.

79
Q

What happens to the price of a bond as market interest rates decline?

A

The price of a bond rises.

80
Q

Why do changes in market yield affect the price of a bond?

A

Because a typical bond has a fixed coupon.

81
Q

What is a bond’s value equal to?

A

The present value of its interest payments plus the present value of its maturity value.

82
Q

What occurs when market rates increase in relation to bond value?

A

Discounting cash flows by higher market rates results in a lower bond value.

83
Q

What effect does a lower bond value have on the bond’s yield?

A

It pushes the bond’s yield up to market rates.

84
Q

What is the fundamental principle of bond investing regarding interest rates?

A

The inverse relationship between changes in interest rates and changes in bond prices.

85
Q

Fill in the blank: A bond’s value is equal to the _______ of its interest payments plus the present value of its maturity value.

A

present value

86
Q

True or False: A bond’s price increases when market interest rates rise.

87
Q

What is the additional income from reinvesting coupon payments called?

A

interest-on-interest

It depends on the prevailing interest rates at the time of reinvestment.

88
Q

What happens if a bond pays 5% interest but current interest rates are at 3%?

A

There is a risk of reinvesting interest payments at the current lower rates.

89
Q

What is the term for variability in the rate at which reinvestments are made?

A

reinvestment rate risk

90
Q

What must occur for a bond to earn its promised yield to maturity (YTM)?

A

Coupon payments must be reinvested at the promised yield.

91
Q

What happens to reinvestment income if prevailing interest rates decline?

A

Reinvestment income may decline as well.

92
Q

What must happen to a bond’s principal when it is received by an investor?

A

It must be reinvested either at the bond’s maturity or at its sale.

93
Q

Fill in the blank: Variability in the rate at which reinvestments are made is called _______.

A

reinvestment rate risk

94
Q

True or False: Reinvestment rate risk only applies to coupon payments.

95
Q

What is a potential strategy to address declining reinvestment income?

A

Pursuing a more aggressive (and riskier) strategy.

96
Q

What is call risk?

A

Call risk is the risk that an issuer will exercise a call option on a bond.

97
Q

When will an issuer typically call a bond?

A

An issuer will call a bond when interest rates have fallen.

98
Q

What is one reason an issuer calls a bond?

A

To save money by refinancing the bonds.

99
Q

What is the first disadvantage to the bondholder of a callable bond?

A

The full cash-flow pattern of a callable bond is not known with certainty.

100
Q

What is the second disadvantage to the bondholder of a callable bond?

A

The investor is exposed to reinvestment rate risk.

101
Q

What is the third disadvantage to the bondholder of a callable bond?

A

The capital gains potential of a callable bond is reduced.

102
Q

Why is the capital gains potential of a callable bond reduced?

A

The price of the bond may not rise much above the call price if investors anticipate the bond being called.

103
Q

What is financial risk?

A

The risk associated with the level of debt an issuer has outstanding.

104
Q

What legal obligation does a firm have regarding its debts?

A

To repay the interest and principal of its debts.

105
Q

How does high debt levels affect bondholders?

A

It increases the risk that the firm will not generate sufficient cash flow to meet its obligations.

106
Q

What can lead to insufficient cash flow for a firm?

A

A deterioration in the company’s business prospects.

107
Q

Fill in the blank: High debt levels increase the risk to bondholders that the firm will not generate sufficient _______ to meet its obligations.

108
Q

True or False: A firm has no obligation to repay its debts.

109
Q

What is a potential consequence of a firm not generating sufficient cash flow?

A

Inability to repay interest or principal when due.

110
Q

What is default risk?

A

The risk that an issuer may not be able to make principal and interest payments when due on a bond.

111
Q

How are bonds classified based on credit ratings?

A

Bonds may be considered investment grade or noninvestment grade depending on the credit rating given to the issuer by the rating agencies.

112
Q

What factors do credit ratings affect in bonds?

A

They affect both the spread of interest rates among bonds with different ratings and the bid-ask spread of individual issues.

113
Q

What is true about lower rated bonds?

A

They have wider bid-ask spreads.

114
Q

Are U.S. Treasury securities considered free of default risk?

A

Yes, they are considered to be free of default risk.

115
Q

Are Treasury securities risk-free?

A

No, they are not risk-free securities.

116
Q

What types of risks do Treasury securities have?

A

They have interest rate risk, reinvestment rate risk, and purchasing power risk.

117
Q

What is purchasing power risk?

A

The risk associated with the devaluation of cash flows from inflation, measured in terms of purchasing power.

118
Q

Who is exposed to inflation risk?

A

The bond investor.

119
Q

Why are bond investors exposed to inflation risk?

A

Because the coupon payment is fixed for the life of the issue.

120
Q

What happens to fixed interest payments during inflation?

A

They lose purchasing power.

121
Q

What is the effect of inflation on the fixed principal amount of bonds?

A

It loses purchasing power.

122
Q

What is the relationship between inflation and fixed-income securities?

A

Inflation is the enemy of fixed-income securities.

123
Q

How does the expectation of increased inflation affect fixed-income securities?

A

It typically has a negative effect on their prices.

124
Q

Fill in the blank: Inflation is the enemy of _______.

A

fixed-income securities.

125
Q

True or False: Fixed coupon payments remain unaffected by inflation.

126
Q

What does liquidity risk depend on?

A

The ease with which an issue can be sold at or near its current market value.

127
Q

What is the primary measure of liquidity?

A

The size of the spread between the bid price and the ask price quoted by a dealer.

128
Q

What happens to liquidity risk when the dealer spread is wider?

A

The more the liquidity risk.

129
Q

When are spreads typically wider?

A

For small issues that are less often traded and small dollar trades.

130
Q

How does liquidity risk affect a bondholder planning to hold the bond until maturity?

A

Liquidity risk is less important.

131
Q

What is event risk?

A

The possibility that a bond issue will be affected by an unanticipated and damaging event.

132
Q

What are some forms that an event risk may take? List at least two.

A
  • Major tax or regulatory change
  • Change in a company’s capital structure due to a merger or buyout
133
Q

True or False: Event risk can include negative media attention to a particular product.

134
Q

Fill in the blank: The disclosure of _______ or other significant misdeeds can constitute event risk.

135
Q

What type of events contribute to event risk?

A

Major, unexpected events.

136
Q

What type of securities is the market for fixed-income securities larger than?

A

The market for common stock

This is due to various factors including corporate preferences and investor behavior.

137
Q

Why do corporations prefer issuing debt over common equity?

A

Corporations prefer issuing debt rather than common equity

This preference influences the size of the fixed-income securities market.

138
Q

What type of securities do governments issue?

A

Governments only issue debt securities

This contributes to the larger market for fixed-income securities.

139
Q

What do many investors prefer regarding fixed-income securities?

A

Many investors prefer the risk/return characteristics of bonds

This preference plays a role in the market size for fixed-income securities.