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Med 2061 > Module 1A Digestive and Urinary System > Flashcards

Module 1A Digestive and Urinary System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Cystitis?

A

Inflammation of the bladder

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2
Q

What are the causes of Cystitis?

A
  1. Irrigation of highly concentrated urine.
  2. Pathogenic bacteria
  3. Injury to the bladder
  4. Instillation of an irritating substance to the bladder
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3
Q

What is the definition of Polyuria?

A

Excessive urination (>1500 mL in 24 hours)

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4
Q

What is the definition of Oliguria?

A

Decreased urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours

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5
Q

What is the definition of Nocturia?

A

When a person has to get up more than twice in the night to void their bladder

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6
Q

What is the definition of Incontinence?

A

Involuntary release of urine

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7
Q

What is the definition of Dysuria?

A

Painful or difficult urination; maybe from infection or trauma

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8
Q

What is the definition of Anuria?

A

Voiding less than 100 mL of urine output in 24 hours

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9
Q

How much urine do females void in a day?

A

Females void 250 mL of urine a day

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10
Q

How much urine do males void in a day?

A

Males void 300 to 500 mL of urine a day

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11
Q

How often do adults void their urine in a day?

A

Adults void 5 to 10 times per day

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12
Q

How often do preschool children void their urine in a day?

A

Preschool children may void every 2 hours

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13
Q

How many times do infants void their urine in a day?

A

Infants void 5 to 40 times/day

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14
Q

What factors affect the urinary system?

A
  1. Age
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Diet
  4. Immobility
  5. Psychosocial Factors
  6. Pain
  7. Surgical Procedures
  8. Medications
  9. Illness/Injury
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15
Q

What are the symptoms of Cystitis?

A
  1. Frequency
  2. Urgency
  3. Dysuria (painful or difficult urination)
  4. Burning
  5. Malaise (a general feeling of discomfort, illness, or uneasiness)
  6. Foul-smelling urine
  7. Slight temperature elevation
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16
Q

What age factors affect the Urinary System?

A
  1. Loss of bladder control
  2. Prostate enlargement in men
  3. Weakened pelvic floor
  4. Loss of perineal tone in women
  5. Loss of bladder muscle tone.
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17
Q

What pregnancy factors affect the Urinary System?

A
  1. Growing fetus compresses the bladder
  2. 30 - 50% increase in circulatory volume
  3. Increased renal workload & urinary output
  4. Hormone relaxin causes relaxation of the sphincter.
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18
Q

What Dietary factors affect the Urinary System?

A
  • Excess sodium intake leads to lower urinary output
  • Impact of caffeine (caffeine is a diuretic that causes increased urinary output)
  • Impact of alcohol (Alcohol affects the ability to regulate fluid and electrolytes in the body. When alcohol dehydrates the body, the drying effect can affect the normal function of cells and organs)
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19
Q

What psychosocial factors affect the Urinary System?

A
  • Emotional stress and anxiety
  • Dislike of public toilets
  • Lack of privacy in patient settings
  • Not enough time to urinate (predetermined BR breaks in elementary school)
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20
Q

What are the pain factors that affect the Urinary System?

A
  • Pain in the urinary tract suppresses the urge to urinate
  • Obstruction in the ureter leading to renal colic
  • Arthritis or painful joints leads to immobility and delayed urination
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21
Q

What are the surgical procedure factors that affect the Urinary System?

A
  • Anesthesia and opioids alter glomerular filtration rate (GFR ) which leads to a decrease in urine output.
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22
Q

What are the medication factors that affect the Urinary System?

A
  • Diuretics preventing reabsorption of water
  • Antihistamines and anticholinergics cause urinary retention
  • Chemotherapy creates a toxic environment for the kidneys
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23
Q

What is bedside sonography with a bladder scanner?

A

Noninvasive portable ultrasound scanner for measuring bladder volume and residual volume after urination

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24
Q

What is (KUB)?

A

X-ray to determine the size, shape, and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.

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25
Q

What is an intravenous pyelogram?

A

Injection of contrast media (iodine) for viewing of ducts, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, and urethra

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26
Q

What is a renal scan?

A

View of renal blood flow and anatomy of the kidneys without contrast

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27
Q

What is a urinalysis?

A

A urinalysis is a physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine.

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28
Q

What is a bladder ultrasound used for?

A

assess the size, shape, location of the kidney

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29
Q

What is Glycosuria?

A

glucose in the urine

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30
Q

What causes Glycosuria?

A

Hyperglycemia or when the renal threshold of urine decreases for some reason

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31
Q

What is Proteinuria?

A

Protein in the urine

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32
Q

What causes Proteinuria?

A
  1. Infection 2. Strenuous exercise 3. Glomerular Disorder
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33
Q

What is Hematuria?

A

blood in the urine

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34
Q

What is Pyruia?

A

purulent exudate in the urine

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35
Q

What causes Hematuria?

A

Bleeding somewhere in the urinary system

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36
Q

What causes Pyruia?

A

Kidney or bladder bacterial infection

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37
Q

What is Ketonuria?

A

ketones in the urine

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38
Q

What causes Ketonouria?

A

Uncontrolled diabetes (ketoacidosis)

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39
Q

What are casts?

A

Occur in increased number in presence of bacteria or protein.

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40
Q

What does casts found in a Urinalysis mean?

A

Indicate urinary calculi (stone) or kidney disease

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41
Q

What do red blood cells found in a Urinalysis mean?

A

may indicate stone, tumor, glomerular disorder, cystitis (bladder inflammation), bleeding disorder

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42
Q

What do white blood cells found in a Urinalysis mean?

A

Infectious or inflammatory process somewhere in the urinary tract.

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43
Q

What does Bilirubin found in a Urinalysis mean?

A

Suggests liver disease or obstruction of bile duct

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44
Q

What are the nursing actions for a Urinalysis: random non-sterile specimen?

A
  • Explain the procedure.
  • Label the container with clients’ identifying information, and follow the facility’s policy for transporting the specimen to the laboratory.
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45
Q

What are the nursing actions for a Clean-catch midstream for culture and sensitivity?

A
  1. Teach the technique for obtaining the specimen.
  2. After a thorough cleansing of the urethral meatus, clients catch the urine sample midstream.
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46
Q

What are the nursing actions for a Catheter urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?

A

Obtain a sterile specimen from a straight or indwelling catheter using surgical asepsis (sterile technique).

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47
Q

What are the nursing actions for Timed Urine Specimens?

A
  1. Collect for 24 hr. or other duration.
  2. Discard the first voiding.
  3. Collect all other urine. Ask the client to void at the end of time include this in the collection
  4. Refrigerate, label, and transport the specimen.
  5. Follow specimen directions re need to keep bedside collection specimen in ice (e.g., if collecting via urinary drainage
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48
Q

What are the nursing actions for Dipstick Tests?

A
  1. Follow directions on side of the bottle of test strips
  2. Exact timing for each component essential for the accuracy of the test.
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49
Q

What is the usual size for a children’s catheter?

A

8 to 10 Fr for children

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50
Q

What is the usual size for an adult female catheter?

A

14 to 16 Fr for females

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51
Q

What is the usual size for an adult male catheter?

A

16 to 18 Fr for males

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52
Q

What are single lumen catheters used for?

A

Straight Catheterization

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53
Q

What are Malecot tip catheters used for?

A

Used following open renal or bladder surgeries (inserted using stylet by a urologist).

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54
Q

What are dePezzer catheters used for?

A

Used following open renal or bladder surgeries (inserted using stylet by a urologist)

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55
Q

What is the function of a urinalysis?

A

A urinalysis is used to detect signs of disease by focusing on the changes in the normal characteristics of urine. Changes are noticed primarily by the abnormal appearance of urine characteristics.

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56
Q

What is the function of the Urinary System?

A

The function of the Urinary System is to produce and excrete urine.

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57
Q

What is the Urinary System vital to?

A

The Urinary System is vital in maintaining homeostasis (fluid/electrolyte and acid-base balance).

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58
Q

What is the structure of the Urinary System?

A

The structure of the Urinary System is:

  • two kidneys
  • two ureters
  • one bladder
  • one urethra
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59
Q

What is the internal structure of the Kidneys?

A

The internal structure of the Kidneys is made up of the following:

  • renal cortex
  • renal medulla
  • renal pyramids
  • renal papilla
  • renal pelvis
  • calyx
60
Q

What is the Renal Cortex?

A

​the renal cortex is the outer part of the kidney (the word cortex comes from the Latin word for “bark,” so the cortex of an organ is its outer layer).

61
Q

What is the Renal Medulla?

A

​the Renal Medulla is the inner portion of the kidney.

62
Q

What are Renal Pyramids?

A

Renal Pyramids are ​the triangular divisions of the medulla of the kidney. Extensions of cortical tissue that dip down into the medulla between the renal pyramids are called renal columns.

63
Q

What is the Renal Papilla?

A

The Renal Papilla is the ​narrow, innermost end of a renal pyramid.

64
Q

What is the Renal Pelvis?

A

The Renal Pelvis is also called the kidney pelvis. The Renal Pelvis is an expansion of the upper end of a ureter (the tube that drains urine into the bladder).

65
Q

What is the Calyx?

A

​The Calyx is a division of the renal pelvis (the papilla of a pyramid opens into each calyx).

66
Q

What are Nephrons?

A

Nephrons are microscopic units of kidneys. Nephrons consist of the renal corpuscle and renal tubule.

67
Q

What is the Renal Corpusle made of?

A

The Renal Corpuscle is made of the:

  • Bowman Capsule
  • Glomerulus
68
Q

What is the Bowman Capsule?

A

The Bowman Capsule is the cup-shaped top of a nephron.

69
Q

What is the Glomerulus?

A

The Glomerulus is a network of blood capillaries tucked into the Bowman capsule.

70
Q

What is the structure of the Renal Tubule?

A

The Renal Tubule structure is made of the following:

  • Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
  • Nephron Loop (Henle Loop)
  • Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)
  • Collecting Duct (CD)
71
Q

What is the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)?

A

The Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is the first segment of the renal tubule.

72
Q

What is Nephron Loop (Henle Loop)?

A

The Nephron Loop (Henle Loop) is the extension of the proximal tubule; consists of a straight descending limb, hairpin turn, and straight ascending limb.

73
Q

What is the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT)?

A

The Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT) is part of the tubal distal to the ascending limb of the nephron loop.

74
Q

What is the Collecting Duct (CD)?

A

The Collecting Duct (CD) is the straight part of a renal tubule.

75
Q

What are the functions of the Kidneys?

A
  • Excretes toxins and nitrogenous wastes
  • Regulates levels of many chemicals in blood
  • Maintains water balance
  • Helps regulate blood pressure via secretion of renin
  • Secretes erythropoietin (EPO)
76
Q

What is the process for the formation or Urine?

A
  • Filtration
  • Reabsorption
  • Secretion
77
Q

What is the role of Filtration in the formation of urine?

A

Filtration of water and dissolved substances out of the blood in the glomeruli into the glomerular capsule.

78
Q

What is the role of Reabsorption in the formation of Urine?

A

Reabsorption of water and dissolved substances out of kidney tubules back into the blood.

79
Q

What is the role of Secretion in the formation of Urine?

A

Secretion of hydrogen ions, potassium ions, and certain drugs from blood into kidney tubules.

80
Q

What is Glycosuria?

A

Glycosuria is glucose in the urine.

81
Q

What is the role of the Glomerulus and Glomerular capsules in the formation of urination?

A
  • Filtration of water and solutes
  • Example: sodium, ions, glucose, and other nutrients.
82
Q

What is the role of the Proximal Tubule in forming urine?

A
  • Reabsorption of water and solutes (glucose, amino acids, and sodium ions)
  • Secretion of nitrogenous wastes and some drugs.
83
Q

What is the role that the Nephron Loop has in the formation of urine?

A
  • Reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions
84
Q

What is the role of the Distal Tubules and collecting ducts in the formation of urine?

A
  • Reabsorption of water, sodium, and chloride ions
  • Secretion of ammino, potassium ions, hydrogen ions, and some drugs.
85
Q

What is the Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

The Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. ADH decreases the amount of urine by collecting ducts permeable to water.

86
Q

What is Aldosterone?

A

Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone stimulates the tubules to reabsorb sodium at a faster rate.

87
Q

What is the Atrial Natriuretic Hormone (ANH)?

A

The Atrial Natriuretic Hormone (ANH) is secreted from the heart’s atrial wall. ANH stimulates the kidney tubules to secrete more sodium and thus lose more water.

88
Q

What are Ureters?

A

Ureters are narrow, long tubes with expanded upper end (renal pelvis) located inside the kidney and lined with mucous membrane

89
Q

What is the function of Ureters?

A

Ureters function is to drain urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder.

90
Q

What is the Bladder?

A

The Bladder is an elastic muscular organ, capable of great expansion. The Bladder is lined with mucous membrane arranged in rugae.

91
Q

What is the function of the Bladder?

A

The function of the Bladder is the storage of urine before voiding;

92
Q

What is the Urethra?

A

The Urethra is a narrow tube from the bladder to exterior; lined with mucous membrane.

93
Q

What is the function of the Urethra?

A

The Urethras functions are the passage of urine from bladder to exterior of body; passage of male reproductive fluid (semen) from body

94
Q

What is the Urinary Meatus?

A

The Urinary Meatus is an opening of the urethra to the exterior of the body.

95
Q

What are the Regulatory Sphincters?

A
  • Internal Urethral Sphincter (Involuntary)
  • External Urethral Sphincter (Voluntary)
96
Q

What is the process of Emptying a bladder?

A
  • Initiating the stretch reflex in bladder wall
  • Bladder wall contracts
  • Internal sphincter relaxes
  • External sphincter relaxes, and urination occurs.
97
Q

What is Urinary Retention?

A

Urinary Retention is when urine is produced but not voided.

98
Q

What is Urinary Suppression?

A

Urinary Suppression is when no urine is produced but the bladder is normal.

99
Q

What is Urinary Incontinence?

A
  • Urinary Incontinence is when urine is voided involuntarily from the bladder.
  • Urinary Incontinence is a common bladder control problem in elderly people.
  • Urinary Incontinence may be caused by spinal injury or stroke. Retention of urine may cause cystitis.
100
Q

What are the three accessory structures of the mouth?

A
  • Tongue
  • Salivary glands
  • Teeth
101
Q

Where does the stomach empty into first in the small intestine?

A
  • The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine.
  • The main role of the duodenum is to complete the first phase of digestion.
  • In this section of the intestine, food from the stomach is mixed with enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the gallbladder.
102
Q

What are the 3 accessory organs that empty into the duodenum?

A
  • Liver
  • Gallbladder
  • Pancreas
103
Q

What are the parts of the large intestine?

A
  • Cecum
  • Ascending Colon
  • Transverse Colon
  • Descending Colon
  • Sigmoid Colon
104
Q

What is Ingestion?

A

Ingestion is the process of taking food into the mouth, starting it on its journey through the digestive tract.

105
Q

What is Digestion?

A

Digestion is a group process that breaks complex nutrients into simpler ones, thus facilitating their absorption.

106
Q

What is mechanical digestion?

A

Mechanical Digestion is physically breaking large chunks of food into small bits.

107
Q

What is Chemical Digestion?

A

Chemical Digestion breaks molecules apart.

108
Q

What is Motility?

A

Motility is the movement by the muscular components of the digestive tube, including processes of mechanical digestion; examples include peristalsis and segmentation.

109
Q

What are Secretions?

A

Secretions are the release of digestive juices (containing enzymes, acids, bases, mucus, bile, or other products that facilitate digestion); some digestive organs also secrete endocrine hormones that regulate digestion or metabolism of nutrients.

110
Q

What is Absorption?

A

Absorption is the movement of digested nutrients through the gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa and into the internal environment.

111
Q

What is Elimination?

A

Elimination is the excretion of the residues of the digestive process (feces) from the rectum, through the anus; defecation.

112
Q

What is Regulation?

A

Regulation is the coordination of digestive activity (motility, secretion, etc)

113
Q

What is deciduous?

A

Deciduous is the set of 20 teeth commonly known as baby teeth.

114
Q

What are the different types of human teeth?

A
  • Incisors
  • Canines or cuspids
  • Premolars or bicuspids
  • Molars or tricuspids
115
Q

How many permanent teeth are in the human mouth?

A
  • 32 permanent teeth
  • Average age to cut the first permanent tooth 6 years old.
  • Set complete usually between 17 and 24 years old
116
Q

What are the different types of teeth in the human mouth?

A
  • Incisors - These are the front-most teeth used for cutting food
  • Canines or cuspids - Canine teeth are the slightly pointed teeth that sit on each side of the incisor teeth at the front of the mouth.
  • Premolars or bicuspids - Premolars, also called bicuspids, are the permanent teeth located between your molars in the back of your mouth and your canine teeth
  • Molars or tricuspids - The most posterior teeth in the mouth are the molars. They are designed to grind food.
117
Q

What are Salivary Glands?

A
  • Exocrine glands
  • 2 types of saliva: serous-type and mucous-type
118
Q

What is Serous - type saliva?

A
  • Serous-type saliva is watery and contains enzymes (salivary amylase) but no mucus
119
Q

What is Mucous type saliva?

A

Mucous-type saliva is thick, slippery, no enzymes; lubricates food during chewing

120
Q

What are Parotid glands?

A

Parotid glands are the largest glands; they produce serous saliva

  • Mumps is the infection of the parotid glands.
121
Q

What are Submandibular glands?

A

Submandibular glands are mixed glands. They produce both serous and mucous type saliva.

  • Located below mandibular angles
  • Ducts open on either side of lingual frenulum
122
Q

What are Sublingual Glands?

A

Sublingual glands produce mucous-type saliva.

  • Multiple ducts open into floor of mouth
123
Q

What are the anatomical components of the Pharynx?

A
  • Nasopharynx
  • Oropharynx
  • Laryngopharynx
124
Q

What is the segment most involved in the digestive process of swallowing (deglutition)?

A

oropharynx

125
Q

What are the voluntary and involuntary regulation of swallowing movements?

A

The preparatory/oral phase is voluntary.

The pharyngeal and esophageal phases are mediated by an involuntary reflex called the swallowing reflex.

126
Q

What is the Esophagus?

A
  • Esophagus is the dynamic passageway for food
  • The Esophagus connects the pharynx to the stomach.
127
Q

What is the Upper Esophageal Sphincter (UES)?

A
  • UES helps prevent air from entering the esophagus during respiration.
128
Q

What is the Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES)?

A
  • Food enters the stomach by passing through LES or cardiac sphincter
  • Normal LES function allows food transit from the esophagus into the stomach and prevents the reflux of gastric contents back into the esophagus
129
Q

Food enters the stomach via what sphincter?

A

Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES)

130
Q

Food leaves the stomach through what sphincter?

A

Pyloric Sphincter

131
Q

What are the four layers of the GI tract wall?

A
  • Mucosa or mucous membrane
  • Submucosa - connective tissue layer
  • Muscularis
  • Serosa
132
Q

What is Peristalsis?

A

Peristalsis is the involuntary constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the intestine or another canal, creating wave-like movements that push the contents of the canal forward.

133
Q

What is the structure of the small intestine?

A
  • Small intestine is 7 meters (20 feet) long but only 2 cm in diameter.
  • Divisions
    • Duodenum - 1 foot long
    • Jejunum - 3 feet to 6 feet long
    • Ileum - 6 feet to 12 feet long
134
Q

What is the structure of the Liver?

A
  • Liver is the largest gland; fills the upper right section of the abdominal cavity and extends over into the left side of the abdominal cavity.
  • The liver secretes bile into ducts therefore, the liver is an endocrine gland
135
Q

What is the function of Hepatic Ducts?

A

Hepatic Ducts drains bile from the liver

136
Q

What is the function of the Cystic Ducts?

A

Cystic Ducts are ducts by which bile enters and leaves the gallbladder.

137
Q

What is Common Bile?

A
  • Common Bile is formed by union of hepatic and cystic ducts
  • Common Bile drains bile from hepatic or cystic ducts into the duodenum
138
Q

What is the Pancreas?

A
  • Exocrine gland that lies behind the stomach
  • Pancreatic cells secrete pancreatic juice (most important digestive juice) into pancreatic ducts; the main duct empties into the duodenum
139
Q

What are Pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)?

A
  • Pancreatic islets are cells not connected with pancreatic ducts.
  • Pancreatic islets secrete hormones glucagon and insulin into the blood
140
Q

How does food enter and exit the large intestine?

A

Food enters through the ileocecal valve; an external opening called the anus.

141
Q

What is the Vermiform Appendix?

A
  • Vermiform appendix: Wormlike, tubular structure
  • Vermiform appendix directly attached to the back of the cecum. Contains blind, tube-like interior lumen that communicates with the lumen of the large intestine
  • Vermiform Appendix has no important digestive functions in humans. Breeding ground (incubator) for nonpathogenic intestinal bacteria
142
Q

What is the function of Carbohydrate Digestion?

A
  • Carbohydrate Digestion occurs mainly in the small intestine
  • Carbohydrate digestion is caused by the pancreatic enzyme amylase.
143
Q

What are the Intestinal Juice Enzymes?

A
  • Maltase - digests maltose (malt sugar)
  • Sucrase - digests sucrose (ordinary cane sugar)
  • Lactase - digests lactose (milk sugar)
144
Q

What are the enzymes used in Protein Digestion?

A
  • Pepsin - gastric juice enzyme that partially digests proteins
  • Trypsin - pancreatic enzyme that continues digestion of proteins
  • Peptidases -intestinal enzymes that complete digestion of partially digested proteins and convert them to amino acids
145
Q

What is the process for fat digestion?

A
  • Bile contains no enzymes but emulsifies fats (breaks fat droplets into very small droplets)
  • Pancreatic lipase changes emulsified fats to fatty acids and glycerol in the small intestine

Med 2061 (5 decks)

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