Module 14 Flashcards

1
Q

What does triage mean?

A

To sort and efficiently separate patients that are stable from those that require immediate attention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is telephone triage?

A

A process that assesses a patient’s condition based on questions regarding consciousness, difficulty breathing, mucous membrane color, seizures, bleeding, fractures, urination, and toxins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the traffic light system in the waiting room indicate?

A

Red for critical, amber for urgent, and green for stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does ABCDE stand for in the primary survey?

A

Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Demeanor, Entire body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is assessed under the ‘Airway’ component of ABCDE?

A

Patent airway, breathing, stridor/stertor, and obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What indicates hypoxemia?

A

SPO2 less than 95% or PaO2 less than 80mmHg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should be done if there is no patent airway?

A

Intubate or perform a tracheotomy and provide oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the normal lactate level?

A

Less than 2.5.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the shock dose for fluid challenges in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs: 10-20 mL/kg IV bolus; Cats: 5-10 mL/kg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is shock?

A

An imbalance between oxygen supply and demand leading to poor tissue perfusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the phases of shock?

A
  • Compensated
  • Decompensated
  • Terminal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the first signs of low oxygen in shock?

A

Changes in mentation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is hypovolemic shock?

A

Decreased intravascular volume, venous return to heart, and cardiac output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes distributive shock?

A

Sepsis, anaphylaxis, or neurogenic causes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Blood not moving because the heart is not functioning properly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of shock occurs when there is enough volume but not enough oxygen?

A

Hypoxic shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is metabolic shock?

A

Oxygen and volume are present, but cannot be used properly, such as in hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the consequences of shock?

A

Reperfusion injuries, SIRS, and MODS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the types of crystalloids used in fluid therapy?

A
  • Hypotonic
  • Isotonic
  • Hypertonic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the formula for calculating fluid deficit?

A

Fluid deficit (L) = body weight x (% dehydration ÷ 100).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale used for?

A

To assess consciousness, brain stem reflexes, and respiratory patterns in head injuries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the ASA Grading system used for?

A

To assess the physical status of patients prior to anesthesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the risk factor associated with increased mortality post-operation?

A

Obesity and age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the minimum oxygen requirement for gas delivery?

A

30% oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the purpose of the APL valve?
It serves as an escape route for excess gas.
26
What are Schedule 1 drugs?
Drugs with no therapeutic use, such as LSD and cannabis.
27
What are Schedule 2 drugs?
* Pethidine * Morphine * Methadone * Fentanyl * Ketamine
28
What is the validity period for Schedule 3 drug prescriptions?
28 days.
29
What is the primary treatment for traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
Reduce cerebral edema with hyperosmolar therapy.
30
What are the types of non-rebreathing systems?
* Lack System * Mini Lack * T-piece * Bain System
31
What is the difference between coaxial and parallel systems?
Coaxial systems have fresh gas flowing up the inner tube, while parallel systems run beside each other.
32
What is the main goal of fluid therapy in shock management?
To restore intravascular volume and deliver oxygen.
33
What does a lactate level greater than 2 or 2.5 mmol/L indicate?
Shock.
34
What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax?
Surgery.
35
What are the signs of traumatic hemothorax?
Dull ventral lung sounds.
36
What should be done for ocular decontamination?
Irrigate the eye for 15 minutes and use fluorescein to check for ulcers.
37
What information should be included on a label for animal use?
Name and form of drug, owner/animal, amount, strength, dose and route, vet's registration
38
What are examples of Schedule 3 drugs?
* Pentobarbitone * Midazolam * Buprenorphine * Tramadol * Gabapentin
39
What is the validity period for prescriptions of Schedule 3 drugs?
28 days
40
What are examples of Schedule 4 drugs?
* Benzodiazepines * Anabolic steroids * Androgenic steroids
41
What is the validity period for prescriptions of Schedule 4 drugs?
28 days
42
What are examples of Schedule 5 drugs?
* Codeine-containing preparations
43
What is the validity period for prescriptions of Schedule 5 drugs?
Up to 6 months
44
What is the mechanism of action for Propofol?
Potentiates GABA
45
What is a notable side effect of Propofol in cats?
Heinz body anemia
46
What is the mechanism of action for Alfaxalone?
Potentiates GABA
47
What is the mechanism of action for Ketamine?
NMDA receptor antagonist
48
True or False: Ketamine can be used as a sole agent for anesthesia.
False
49
What are the signs of cardiopulmonary arrest?
* No heart sound * Asystole/arrhythmia on ECG * No palpable pulse * Central eyes dilated pupils
50
What is the recommended rate of compressions during CPR?
100-120 bpm
51
What are the causes of protein energy malnutrition?
* Not enough protein * Not enough energy
52
What does a higher MAC value indicate about a drug's potency?
The drug is less potent
53
What does a high oil:gas partition coefficient indicate?
The drug is very potent
54
What is the purpose of nitrous oxide in anesthesia?
Promotes uptake of other drugs, speeds up onset
55
What is the main concern with nitrous oxide expansion?
Accumulates in gas-filled spaces
56
What are the components of maintaining an airway during anesthesia?
* Mask * Laryngeal mask/Supraglottic airway * Tracheal intubation
57
What is the primary method for equine recovery?
Head and tail rope
58
What are the phases of wound healing in equines?
* Inflammatory stage * Debridement phase * Repair phase * Maturation/remodeling phase
59
What factors inhibit wound healing?
* Infection * Foreign body * Necrotic tissue * Loss of blood supply * Poor tissue oxygenation
60
What is the definition of 'proud flesh' in equine wounds?
Excessive granulation tissue
61
What is the first phase of wound healing in small animals?
Hemostasis and inflammation
62
What are the three dimensions of pain?
* Sensory * Motivational * Cognitive
63
Fill in the blank: Pain is always _______.
[subjective]
64
What is the purpose of the CMPS-SF scale?
Acute pain measurement
65
What is the purpose of the CBPI scale?
Chronic pain measurement