module 10 Flashcards

1
Q

question: how is phosphorylation mediated?

A
  • MPF
  • bc MPF = heterodimer of mitotic cyclin and CDK
  • active MPF = promotes phosphorylation
  • inactive MPF = reverses phosphorylation
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2
Q

question: what events in prophase are mediated by MPF phosphorylation (what gets phosphorylated for each one)? (5)

A
  • active MPF
  1. formation of mitotic spindle
    - phosphorylate microtubule assoc. prot.
    ⤷ bc they promote microtubule instability
  2. condensation of chromo.
    - phosphorylate condensins and histone prot.
  3. preparation for sister chromatid separation
    - phosphorylate cohesins
  4. break down of nuclear envelope
    - phosphorylate nuclear lamins
  5. fragmentation of golgi and ER
    - phosphorylate GM130
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3
Q

question: what events in telophase are mediated by MPF dephosphorylation? (4)

A
  • inactive MPF
  1. nuclear envelope reassembly
  2. chromo. decondensation
  3. mitotic spindle disassembly
  4. golgi and ER mem. reassemble
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4
Q

explain: histone prot. role in chromo. condensation

A
  • 5 types of histones
  • H1 and H3 = phosphorylated by Aurora B kinase during chromo. condensation
  • H3 forms prot. core for nucleosome
  • H1 links nucleosomes
  • get packed tighter during condensation
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5
Q

explain: cohesin prot. role in chromo. organization

A
  • form cohesin complex
    ⤷ holds sister chromatids together until anaphase
  • releasing them = 2 steps
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6
Q

question: how does the release of cohesins happen?

A
  1. release from chromo. arms
    - keep cohesins in middle (centromere)
    ⤷ protected from phosphorylation by phosphotases
    - makes the x shape
    - release by phosphorylation (cyclin B-CDK, Aurora B)
  2. release from centromere
    - cleaved by separase
    - in anaphase
    - allows chromatid separation
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7
Q

explain: condensin role in chromo. condensation

A
  • condensins get phosphorylated by cyclin B-CDK
  • allow assembly and chromo. condensation
  • MPF phosphorylation sites are on XCAP-D2 domain of condensins
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8
Q

question: how do chromo. decondense?

A
  • dephosphorylate condensins and histones
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9
Q

question: what happens of the nuclear envelope throughout mitosis (nuclear envelope disassembly at interphase, prometaphase, metaphase)

A
  • interphase = intact mem.
  • prometaphase = chromo. condense and envelope fragments
  • metaphase = no envelope
    ⤷ frag. into small vesicles and dist. throughout sytosol
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10
Q

explain: struc. of nuclear envelope

A
  • 2 lipid bilayers
  • outer = cont.d w/ rough ER
  • inner = assoc. w/ IF called nuclear lamina
  • nuclear pore complexes everywhere to allow transport
  • lamina = lamin A, B, C
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11
Q

explain: phosphorylation of lamin prot.

A
  • phosphorylated at serine by cyclin B-CDK
  • initiates envelope disassembly
  • only lamin B stays assoc. w/ nuclear mem.
    ⤷ A and C are dispersed
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12
Q

question: what happens when lamin A doesn’t get phosphorylated (explain w/ hamster exp.)?

A

HAMSTER + HUMAN LAMIN A
- interphase = intact envelope
- prophase = lamina breaking down
⤷ can see lamin A diffusing into cytosol
- metaphase = lamin no longer organized + chromo. condensed

HAMSTER + VARIANT OF HUMAN LAMIN A
- lamin A couldn’t be phosphorylated
⤷ serine became alanine
- interphase = same (intact lamina)
- prophase = lamin A not diffusing into cytosol
- metaphase = chromo. condensed but still has ring of lamin A

**lamin B and C could still be phosphorylated
⤷ so lamina intact in metaphase means lamin A needs to be phosphorylated to break down lamina

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13
Q

question: how does the nuclear envelope reassemble?

A
  • inactivation of cyclin B-CDK + phosphatase activity
  • dephosphorylation of lamins A, B, C
  • lamins reassemble and reform lamina
  • B still assoc. w/ vesicles from before
    ⤷ so it brings vesicles to lamina to form inner nuclear envelope
  • nuclear pore complexes dephosphorylated
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14
Q

explain: golgi fragmentation

A
  • before separation, golgi = fragmented to each pole of spindle
  • GM130 (golgi prot.) = phosphorylated by cyclin B-CDK
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15
Q

question: what is the purpose of golgi and mitochondria fragmentation?

A
  • to ensure organelles are distributed to both daughter cells
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16
Q

question: what are the cyclins that control each part of the cell cycle for vertebrates?

A

EARLY G1
- D type cyclins
- CDK4 or 6

S PHASE (trigger)
- cyclin E-CDK2

S PHASE (completion)
- cyclin A-CDK2
- cyclin A-CDK1

MITOSIS
- cyclin B CDK1

G0
- none

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17
Q

question: what is the restriction point?

A
  • time late in G1 when passage through cell cycle = indep. of presence of the mitogen
  • cell continues into S phase even w/out mitogen
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18
Q

question: what are mitogens?

A
  • sig. molecules that induce cell div.
  • cause expression of G1 cyclin-CDK
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19
Q

question: what is the diff. between early and delayed resp. genes in re-entry to the cell cycle?

A
  • adding mitogen starts early gene expression
  • peaks at 1 hour and declines
  • delayed starts when early declines
20
Q

question: what regulates early resp. gene expression?

A
  • transcription factors activated by MAP kinase
    ⤷ SRF
    ⤷ TCF
  • already in cell so only need to be phosphorylated
    ⤷ also means its not affected by inhibitors
21
Q

question: what do the early resp. genes code for?

A
  • c-Fos
  • c-Jun
    (transcription factors)

^these activate delayed resp. genes

22
Q

question: what do the delayed resp. genes code for?

A
  • cyclin D
  • cyclin E
  • CDK2
  • CDK4
  • CDK6
23
Q

question: how does c-Fos activate delayed gene resp.?

A
  • c-Fos = early resp. gene
  • induces exp. of CDKs needed for cell division
24
Q

question: what happens if mitogens and inhibitors of prot. synthesis are added into cell?

A
  • translation inhibitors have no effect on early resp. gene exp bc already in cell (SGF, TCF)
  • but affects c-Fos and C-Jun -> affects delayed resp. gene
25
Q

question: how do you turn off early resp. genes?

A
  • expression and translation of transcriptional inhibitors encoded by early resp. genes
  • they turn themselves off
26
Q

question: what happens when early genes turn off?

A
  • early gene mRNA lvls stay high
  • no translation for early gene
  • delayed genes = never transcribed bc dep. on early genes
27
Q

question: what happens when mitogen is added and removed before and after RP?

A
  • adding growth factor/mitogen induces exit from G0 and entry into G1
  • removing mitogen before RP passes -> decrease in cyclin D/CDK4-6 -> failure to proceed to S phase
    ⤷ retreat back to G0
  • removing mitogen after RP passes -> decrease in cyclin D/CDK4-6 has no effect -> progresses to S phase
    ⤷ no effect bc cyclin E/CDJ2 is high enough
28
Q

question: why can cell progress to S phase if mitogen removed after RP?

A
  • E2F = regulates exp. of genes needed in S-phase
  • initially, E2f = inactive bc inhibitory prot. Rb present
  • cyclin D-CDK can phosphorylate Rb
  • if mitogen removed before RP, cyclin D lvls aren’t high enough
  • but E2f also induces cyclin E/CDK which can also target Rb
  • if enough E2F is activated, induces exp. of E2f
    ⤷ +ive feedback loop
  • even if cyclin D decreases, cyclin E is self-sustaining and cell proceeds to S-phase
29
Q

explain: functions of checkpoints

A
  • recog. error and delay progression until its fixed
  • look for:
    ⤷ damaged DNA
    ⤷ unreplicated DNA
    ⤷ assembly of spindle
    ⤷ chromo. attachment during metaphase
    ⤷ completion of anaphase
  • if can’t fix, cell does apoptosis
30
Q

question: what are the types of damage found at damage checkpoints? (2)

A
  1. ionizing radiation
    - creates double-stranded DNA breaks
  2. ultraviolet radiation
    - creates thymine nucleotide dimers
31
Q

question: what prot. recog. which types of damage? (2)

A
  • ATR recog. UV damage (thymine dimers)
  • ATM recog. double strand breaks
32
Q

question: how does ATR recog. + fix damage?

A
  • targets Chk1
  • Chk1 targets cdc25
    **cdc25 regulates MPF between G2 to M-phase (reverses inhibitory phosphorylation)
  • Chk1 phosphorylates cdc25
  • inactive cdc25 -> no MPF
  • arrests cell at G2
    ⤷ gives time for cell to fix problem
  • when repaired, ATR dissociates
    ⤷ reverses everything

^^works for thymine dimers but also DNA replication checkpoints

33
Q

question: how does ATM recog. + fix damage?

A
  • targets Chk2
  • Chk2 targets p53 prot.
  • p53 usually unstable but if phosphorylated, becomes stable
  • p53 activates p21 (CIP)
    ⤷ cyclin inhibitor
  • p21 binds to G1 cyclin-CDK to inhibit activity
  • cell stalls in G1
  • when repaired, ATM dissociates
    ⤷ reverses everything
34
Q

question: what happens if p53 can’t fix the damage?

A
  • constantly activated
  • induces pro-apoptotic genes to kill cell
35
Q

question: what does spindle assembly checkpoint do?

A
  • prevents entry into anaphase if chromo. aren’t assoc. properly to spindle
  • delays cell in metaphase
36
Q

question: how does cell fix error at spindle assembly checkpoint?

A
  • wildtype cell reassembles the spindle when cell is arrested
37
Q

question: what happens if SAC not functioning

A
  • cell proceeds to anaphase even if chromo. aren’t attached to spindle
  • chromatids don’t get segregated to separate poles
  • nondisjunction and aneuploidy
  • one daughter cell has an extra chromo.
  • other cell missing a homologue
38
Q

question: what regulates SAC?

A
  • Mad2
  • inactivates APC-Cdc20
    ⤷ securins can stay
    ⤷ prevents separase from working
  • chromatids can’t separate
  • loss of func. mut. in Mad2 -> cells proceed to anaphase early
39
Q

question: what is Mad2 (what is it regulated by?)?

A
  • can be open or close conformation
  • open Mad2 assoc. w/ kinetochores of chromo. that aren’t on microtubules
  • Mad1 binding to Mad2 makes it close
  • closed Mad2 leaves chromo. and interacts w/ cdc20
    ⤷ blocks cdc20 from associating with APC
  • keeps cell in metaphase
40
Q

question: what happens when SAC error is fixed?

A
  • Mad1 and Mad2 release
  • Mad2 back to open
    ⤷ releases the cdc20
  • APC binds to cdc20
  • APC-cdc20 reactivates
    ⤷ targets securin
    ⤷ separase can work
  • allows anaphase
41
Q

question: what does mitotic exit network do?

A
  • monitor completion of anaphase
  • activates cdc14
    ⤷ to dephosphorylate cdh1 so it can bind to APC
  • activate APC-cdh1
    ⤷ to inactivate MPF
42
Q

question: where is cdc14?

A
  • in nucleolus
  • can’t reach it unless sister chromatids separate
    ⤷ means anaphase needs to happen
43
Q

question: what happens in metaphase vs anaphase of budding yeast (tem1, cdc14)?

A

METAPHASE
- Tem1 = GTPase
- Tem1-GAP = GAP
⤷ keeps Tem1 in GDP bound form (inactive)
- Tem1-GEF = on mem. (far)
- when Tem1-GDP is inactive, cdc14 is hidden in nucleolus

ANAPHASE
- spindle gets longer
- Tem1 gets closer to Tem1-GEF
⤷ exchanges GDP for GTP in Tem1
- allows passage through MEN checkpoint
- allows release and activation od cdc14

44
Q

question: what happens when cdc14 is released at anaphase?

A
  • cdc14 dephosphorylates cdh1
  • cdh1 activates APC
  • APC-cdh1 inhibits MPF
  • exit from mitosis can occur
45
Q

question: what happens if chromo. segregation and anaphase don’t happen?

A
  • can’t pass MEN
  • Tem1 stays inactive
  • cdc14 never gets released
  • MPF stays active
  • cell never exits mitosis
46
Q

question: what does cdc14 do to inhibit S-phase?

A
  • targets cdh1 (dephosphorylates)
  • inactivates MPF (degrades cyclin B)
  • keeps Sic1 unphosphorylated
  • Sic1 binds to S-phase cyclin-CDK
  • inhibits progression into S-phase

**opposite can allow progression to S-phase if cdc14 is phosphorylated by G1 cyclin-CDK