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Foundation Insurance Test > Module 10 > Flashcards

Module 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Which insurance industry associations is described here?

This association is the largest of the market associations and represents the collective interests of over 200 member companies in the UK insurance market.

Their role is to:

  • be the voice of the UK insurance industry, leading debate and speaking up for insurers.
  • represent the UK insurance industry to the Government, regulators and policy makers, driving effective public policy and regulation.
  • advocate high standards of customer service within the industry and provide useful information to the public about insurance.

Their work falls under two councils: the General Insurance Council and the Life Insurance Council.

A. BIBA
B. ABI

A

B. ABI

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2
Q

Which insurance industry associations is described here?

This association is the major trade association for insurance brokers (membership is also open to other independent intermediaries) and performs a similar role to the ABI in protecting and promoting the interests of its approximately 2,000 members.

They seek to maintain and improve standards of business behaviour among its members for the benefit of the general public. Their activities include:

  • promoting members’ views on proposed legislation;
    encouraging and providing training and facilities within the broking profession;
  • nominating members to sit on joint committees;
    encouraging links with partner members from the leading insurance companies; and
  • liaising with outside bodies, including regulators, the Government etc.

A. BIBA
B. ABI

A

A. BIBA

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3
Q

Which insurance industry regulator is described here?

This regulator is the part of the Bank of England responsible for the micro prudential regulation of systemically important firms (principally banks and insurers).

They have a primary objective to ‘promote the safety and soundness of regulated persons’.

They also have three secondary objectives:

  • a general objective to promote the safety and soundness of the firms it regulates;
  • an objective specific to insurance firms to contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for those who are or may become insurance policyholders; and
  • a secondary objective to facilitate effective competition.

A. Financial policy committee (FPC)
B. Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)
C. Financial Conduct authority (FCA)

A

B. Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)

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4
Q

Which insurance industry regulator is described here?

This regulator is responsible for conduct of business regulation across the financial services industry and the prudential regulation of small firms (such as insurance brokers and IFAs).

It has an overall strategic objective of ensuring that the relevant markets function well. This is underpinned by three operational objectives:

  • consumer protection − securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers;
  • integrity − protecting and enhancing the integrity of the UK financial system; and
  • competition − promoting effective competition in the interests of consumers in the markets for regulated financial services and services provided by a recognised investment exchange.

A. Financial policy committee (FPC)
B. Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)
C. Financial Conduct authority (FCA)

A

C. Financial Conduct authority (FCA)

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5
Q

Which insurance industry regulator is described here?

This regulator within the Bank of England is responsible for macroprudential regulation and watching for emerging risks to the UK’s financial system

A. Financial policy committee (FPC)
B. Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA)
C. Financial Conduct authority (FCA)

A

A. Financial policy committee (FPC)

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6
Q

Brian is an independent insurance broker, who works alone. Which of these insurance covers do you think it is compulsory for him to take out?

A. Public liability

B. Professional indemnity

C. Personal accident

D. Employers’ liability

A

B. Professional indemnity

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7
Q

Professional indemnity insurance is compulsory for which occupations?

(Select all that apply)

A. Dog Walkers
B. Solicitors
C. Insurance intermediaries
D. Accountants
E. Doctors

A

B. Solicitors
C. Insurance intermediaries
D. Accountants

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8
Q

How is the Financial Services Compensation Scheme (FSCS) funded?

A. By the government
B. By a levy paid on all authorised firms
C. By a percentage of all insurance premiums

A

B. By a levy paid on all authorised firms

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9
Q

What category of data is being described here?

This is available to anyone requiring it; e.g. information held in a library.

A. Public data
B. Personal Data
C. Corporate Data

A

A. Public data

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10
Q

What category of data is being described here?

This includes relevant details of customers, suppliers, products, payments made to employees and financial information on the company itself. This data must be protected from malicious alteration, deliberate destructive acts and industrial espionage.

A. Public data
B. Personal Data
C. Corporate Data

A

C. Corporate Data

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11
Q

What category of data is being described here?

Information about living, identifiable individuals who can be identified from that information. This data may include name, address, salary, insurance or medical history, criminal record and details of dependants.

Statements of fact and expressions of opinion about an individual are considered to fall into this category of data, as is an indication of the intentions of the data controller or data processor towards an individual.

This data must be protected from being used for blackmail and unauthorised disclosure.

A. Public data
B. Personal Data
C. Corporate Data

A

B. Personal Data

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12
Q

What do you think the main purpose of data protection regulation is?

A. Prohibiting the storage of personal information on computers

B. Regulating the use of computers, automatic data processing equipment and relevant filing systems

C. Making the pirating of computer software illegal

D. Making it illegal to hack in to an individual’s private data

E. Preventing firms selling private information about an individual

A

B. Regulating the use of computers, automatic data processing equipment and relevant filing systems

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13
Q

Which of these three types of data do you think the GDPR and DPA 2018 are most concerned with?

A. Public Data

B. Corporate Data

C. Personal Data

A

C. Personal Data

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14
Q

Who Maintains the public register of data controllers?

A. BIBA
B. The ABI
C. The ICO

A

C. The ICO - Stands for information commissioner’s Office

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15
Q

What is the maximum fine for certain data breaches?

A. £17.5m or 4% of global annual turnover
B. £20.5m or 5% of global annual turnover
C. 10% of global annual turnover

A

A. £17.5m or 4% of global annual turnover

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16
Q

The following rights are given to individuals under what legislation?

  • The right to be informed.
  • The right of access.
  • The right to rectification.
  • The right to erasure.
  • The right to restrict processing.
  • The right to data portability.
  • The right to object.
  • Rights in relation to automated decision making and profiling.

A. The general data protection regulation
B. The data protection act
C. The insurance data act

A

A. The general data protection regulation

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17
Q

What principle of document storage is described here?

Access to confidential information must be restricted to allow only authorised personnel to access, amend or dispose of it. It is necessary to have sophisticated access controls for each user.

A. File saving and back-up
B. Protection against theft
C. File disposal
D. Source documentation retention
E. Copyright
F. Restricted access
G. Use of passwords

A

F. Restricted access

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18
Q

What principle of document storage is described here?

Each member of staff should be aware of their own responsibility for file saving. Back-up copies should be made and stored in fire-proof cabinets, with one copy kept away from the business premises.

A. File saving and back-up
B. Protection against theft
C. File disposal
D. Source documentation retention
E. Copyright
F. Restricted access
G. Use of passwords

A

A. File saving and back-up

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19
Q

What principle of document storage is described here?

For critical information requiring additional security, the original source data should be stored in a separate secure building.

A. File saving and back-up
B. Protection against theft
C. File disposal
D. Source documentation retention
E. Copyright
F. Restricted access
G. Use of passwords

A

D. Source documentation retention

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20
Q

What principle of document storage is described here?

Software requires protection against theft. It can be protected by physical security as well as by restriction of access.

A. File saving and back-up
B. Protection against theft
C. File disposal
D. Source documentation retention
E. Copyright
F. Restricted access
G. Use of passwords

A

B. Protection against theft

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21
Q

What principle of document storage is described here?

Electronic data originated by an organisation is entitled to legal protection in the form of copyright.

A. File saving and back-up
B. Protection against theft
C. File disposal
D. Source documentation retention
E. Copyright
F. Restricted access
G. Use of passwords

A

E. Copyright

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22
Q

What principle of document storage is described here?

It’s generally very easy for any serious hacker to determine an individual’s password, if that individual has not been guided in the techniques of using passwords as a serious security device. An ongoing security awareness programme within the business can help overcome these failings.

A. File saving and back-up
B. Protection against theft
C. File disposal
D. Source documentation retention
E. Copyright
F. Restricted access
G. Use of passwords

A

G. Use of passwords

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23
Q

What principle of document storage is described here?

Only authorised personnel should be allowed to dispose of files. For written or printed confidential information, a paper shredder system may be operational.

A. File saving and back-up
B. Protection against theft
C. File disposal
D. Source documentation retention
E. Copyright
F. Restricted access
G. Use of passwords

A

C. File disposal

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24
Q

What is the correct order for the 3 stages of money laundering

A. Integration, Placement, Layering
B. Placement, Layering, Integration
C. Integration, Layering, Placement

A

B. Placement, Layering, Integration

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25
Q

What stage of money laundering is described here?

This step involves a series of transactions intended to conceal the origins of the illicit money. For example, the money put into a bank or building society account at an earlier stage stage, could be used to purchase an insurance policy. The policy is then surrendered early and the proceeds from the surrender might then be used to purchase bonds to provide security for a legitimate loan from a reputable bank.

A. Placement
B. Layering
C. Integration

A

B. Layering

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26
Q

What stage of money laundering is described here?

The process by which laundered money is converted into what appear to be legitimate proceeds for example by setting up a business and drawing a salary on it.

A. Placement
B. Layering
C. Integration

A

C. Integration

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27
Q

What stage of money laundering is described here?

In this stage illicit cash is put, for example, into a bank or building society account.

A. Placement
B. Layering
C. Integration

A

A. Placement

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28
Q

Raj, an independent insurance broker, suspects that a new client is laundering stolen money through his company. However, he does not want to lose the client’s business, so he does nothing about it. Would you consider that Raj is committing a criminal offence by not reporting his suspicions?

A. Yes
B. No

A

A. Yes

29
Q

What anti money laundering act is being described here?

This Act made money laundering and activities associated with it (e.g. ‘tipping off’ a suspected person) a criminal offence. It also widened the scope of money laundering regulations to apply to activities other than drug trafficking and terrorism.

A. The criminal justice act 1993
B. The financial services act 2012
C. The proceeds of crime act 2002
D. The money laundering regulations 2017

A

A. The criminal justice act 1993

30
Q

What anti money laundering act is being described here?

The Act requires the FCA to ensure that firms have controls in place to prevent financial crime such as money laundering.

A. The criminal justice act 1993
B. The financial services act 2012
C. The proceeds of crime act 2002
D. The money laundering regulations 2017

A

B. The financial services act 2012

31
Q

What anti money laundering act is being described here?

This Act extended the range of money laundering offences to include: concealing, disguising, converting or transferring criminal property or removing it from the UK; acquiring, possessing or using criminal property; and failing to disclose that someone else is engaged in money laundering.

A. The criminal justice act 1993
B. The financial services act 2012
C. The proceeds of crime act 2002
D. The money laundering regulations 2017

A

C. The proceeds of crime act 2002

32
Q

What anti money laundering act is being described here?

These were created to ensure that systems are implemented and maintained to prevent and control money laundering. They provide a new approach to customer due diligence and the actions required to prevent new forms of terrorist financing (including the use of online transactions and prepaid cards).

Power is given to commissioners to enter and inspect premises and businesses can be fined if they fail to register with a supervisory authority.

Regulated firms must appoint a Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) to whom all suspicions must be reported, and who must judge whether these should be reported to the National Crime Agency.

Firms are required to take a risk based approach to their obligations; they must form a view on the risks presented by their customers and put in place procedures to deal with these. Relevant staff must receive training on the procedures and be updated regularly.

A. The criminal justice act 1993
B. The financial services act 2012
C. The proceeds of crime act 2002
D. The money laundering regulations 2017

A

D. The money laundering regulations 2017

33
Q

When she’s not in her studio, Millie works part-time in the accounts department of an insurance company. She reports suspicions of money laundering on the part of a customer to the company’s MLRO who in turn reports his suspicions to the National Crime Agency (NCA).

What level of protection, if any, do you think is afforded to Millie in these circumstances?

A. None, she can be called upon to testify in court

B. Her identity will be divulged to NCA who may need to obtain further information, but she will not be required to give evidence in any subsequent legal action

C. Absolute, her identity will not be revealed to NCA

A

B. Her identity will be divulged to NCA who may need to obtain further information, but she will not be required to give evidence in any subsequent legal action

34
Q

What Act created the following 4 new Criminal offences?

giving, promising or offering a bribe;

requesting, agreeing to receive or accepting a bribe;

bribing a foreign public official; and

failure by a commercial organisation to prevent active bribery being committed on its behalf.

A. Proceeds of crime act 2002
B. Financial services act 2012
C. Bribery act 2010

A

C. Bribery act 2010

35
Q

Which provision of the Insurance distribution directive (IDD) is being described here?

These have applied to firms since 1 October 2018.

The requirements include more enhanced knowledge and competence. Staff must complete at least 15 hours of professional training or development per year.

A. Commission disclosure
B. Professionalism
C. Products
D. Harmonisation

A

B. Professionalism

36
Q

Which provision of the Insurance distribution directive (IDD) is being described here?

These have applied to firms since 1 October 2018.

Pre-contractual disclosure of the intermediary and the nature, not amount, of their remuneration. This would be waived for contracts involving large risks or for professional customers.

A. Commission disclosure
B. Professionalism
C. Products
D. Harmonisation

A

A. Commission disclosure

37
Q

Which provision of the Insurance distribution directive (IDD) is being described here?

These have applied to firms since 1 October 2018.

The IDD is a minimum harmonisation directive, allowing Member States to set stricter requirements if they deem this necessary.

A. Commission disclosure
B. Professionalism
C. Products
D. Harmonisation

A

D. Harmonisation

38
Q

Which provision of the Insurance distribution directive (IDD) is being described here?

These have applied to firms since 1 October 2018.

New product governance requirements, which are largely in line with the FCA’s requirements. A requirement for all general insurance firms to provide consumers (but not commercial customers) with Insurance Product Information Documents ahead of closing a sale or renewal. The purpose is to allow customers at the quotation stage to compare similar products offered by different insurers in an easy-to-follow consistent way so that they can see at-a-glance the differences between products and make informed decisions.

A. Commission disclosure
B. Professionalism
C. Products
D. Harmonisation

A

C. Products

39
Q

How many principles for businesses are there?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 10
D. 11

A

D. 11

40
Q

The Principles for Businesses are:

Conduct business with integrity.

Conduct business with due skill, care and diligence.

Take reasonable care to organise and control business affairs responsibly and effectively, with adequate risk management systems.

Maintain adequate financial resources.

Observe proper standards of market conduct.

Pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly.

Pay due regard to the information needs of its clients and communicate information to them in a way that is clear, fair and not misleading.

Manage conflicts of interest fairly, both between itself and its customers and between a customer and another client.

Take reasonable care to ensure the suitability of its advice and discretionary decisions for any customer who is entitled to rely on its judgment.

Arrange adequate protection for clients’ assets when it is responsible for them.

Deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and disclose to the appropriate regulator anything relating to the firm of which that regulator would reasonably expect notice.

A
41
Q

Sales director Sarah has become aware that not all authorised personnel have undergone training or reviews in the last few years, and so may not meet adequate levels of competence to advise on or sell PMI. She isn’t going to tell the FCA.

Beth’s customer Paula tells her something that would greatly reduce the premium and her commission. Erica isn’t going to share this with her sales manager.

John works in the finance department of a PMI company. He has discovered that the company does not have enough money to meet their obligations.

Which of the ‘Principles for Businesses’ were being breached in the case studies above?

(Select all that apply)

A. Protection of clients’ assets

B. Relations with regulators

C. Paying due regard to customers’ interests

D. Being financially prudent

E. Clear communications with clients

A

A. Protection of clients’ assets

B. Relations with regulators

C. Paying due regard to customers’ interests

D. Being financially prudent

E. Clear communications with clients

42
Q

In what year did the Senior Managers and Certification Regime (SM&CR) come into effect for solo-regulated firms?

A. 2018
B. 2010
C. 2012
D. 2019

A

D. 2019

43
Q

Which of the 3 key elements of the Senior Managers and Certification Regime is being described here?

These set minimum standards for individual behaviour in financial services and apply to almost all employees who carry out financial services activities, or linked activities, in a firm. Some of these apply to all employees, while others only apply to senior managers.

A. Senior Management Regime
B. Certification Regime
C. Conduct rules

A

C. Conduct rules

44
Q

Which of the 3 key elements of the Senior Managers and Certification Regime is being described here?

Every senior manager must have a ‘Statement of Responsibilities’ that clearly says what they are responsible and accountable for.

A. Senior Management Regime
B. Certification Regime
C. Conduct rules

A

A. Senior Management Regime

45
Q

Which of the 3 key elements of the Senior Managers and Certification Regime is being described here?

This applies to employees whose role means it is possible for them to cause significant harm to the firm, its customers or the market more generally. These roles are called ‘Certification Functions’. Firms must check and certify individuals are fit and proper to perform their roles at least once a year.

A. Senior Management Regime
B. Certification Regime
C. Conduct rules

A

B. Certification Regime

46
Q

Which of the following people would be categorised as senior managers under SM&CR?

(Select all that apply)

A. Jude, the chief executive of an insurer selling healthcare insurance

B. David, a clerk in the finance department of a healthcare insurer

C. Helen, the finance director of a healthcare insurer

D. Layla, who meets clients and discusses their healthcare insurance with them

A

A. Jude, the chief executive of an insurer selling healthcare insurance

C. Helen, the finance director of a healthcare insurer

47
Q

What type of policy has a 30 day cooling off period?

A. Home
B. Travel
C. Payment protection indemnity
D. Professional indemnity

A

C. Payment protection indemnity

48
Q

The FCA expects those authorised to embed the fair treatment of customers in their corporate strategy and build it into the firm’s culture and day-to-day operations. They have defined this to mean addressing the fair treatment of customers throughout the product life cycle.

Which of these requirements would you expect to stem from this principle?

(Select all that apply)

A. Customised products for each customer

B. Explaining issues in greater detail to customers who are less knowledgeable

C. Understanding customer needs

D. Ensuring customers are not exposed to unsuitable risks with any newly developed products

A

B. Explaining issues in greater detail to customers who are less knowledgeable

C. Understanding customer needs

D. Ensuring customers are not exposed to unsuitable risks with any newly developed products

49
Q

consumers are provided with clear information and are kept appropriately informed before, during and after the point of sale;

where consumers receive advice, it is suitable and takes account of their circumstances;

products perform as firms have led customers to expect and the associated service is of an acceptable standard

What are these example of?

A. Consumer outcomes for the fair treatment of customers
B. ICOBS
C. Insurance rules

A

A. Consumer outcomes for the fair treatment of customers

50
Q

In which of these examples would you say that the subject is behaving unethically?

(Select all that apply)

A. An insurance broker leaves some confidential client files in an open reception area and they are stolen

B. A CII examinee copies from another student’s paper

C. A non-qualified CII member prints business cards that state she is a CII Diploma holder

D. A claims clerk fails to disclose a recent speeding offence to his employer

A

B. A CII examinee copies from another student’s paper

C. A non-qualified CII member prints business cards that state she is a CII Diploma holder

51
Q

Match each of the key questions that appear on this and the following exercises with the section of the CII Code to which they are most relevant.

Why am I being offered hospitality?

A. Provide a high standard of service

B. Act in the best interests of each client

C. Act with the highest ethical standards and integrity

A

C. Act with the highest ethical standards and integrity

52
Q

Match the question below with the section of the CII Code to which it is most relevant.

Do I provide clear information pre- and post-sale?

A. Provide a high standard of service

B. Act with the highest ethical standards and integrity

C. Act in the best interests of each client

A

C. Act in the best interests of each client

53
Q

Match the question that appears below with the section of the CII Code to which it is most relevant.

Can I improve my knowledge by additional training?

A. Act in the best interests of each client

B. Provide a high standard of service

C. Act with the highest ethical standards and integrity

A

B. Provide a high standard of service

54
Q

Someone who, due to their personal circumstances, is especially susceptible to detriment, particularly when a firm is not acting with appropriate levels of care

This is the FCA definition of which group of people?

A. The elderly
B. Vulnerable customers
C. People with disabilities

A

B. Vulnerable customers

55
Q

Dayna refuses to accept the settlement offer made by her household insurer in respect of a claim for fire damage to her sofa. She asks for the matter to be referred to arbitration in accordance with the arbitration clause in her policy.

Provided that liability is admitted under the policy, any dispute which arises between the insurer and insured over the amount to be paid (quantum) in respect of a claim is referred to an arbitrator to be appointed by the two parties in accordance with current statutory provisions.

Do you think that the insurer is required to comply with her request in these circumstances?

A. Yes
B. No

A

A. Yes

56
Q

Once internal complaints procedures with the authorised firm have been exhausted, where can the complaint be referred?

A. To the FOS
B. To BIBA
C. To the FCA

A

A. To the FOS

57
Q

Lenny is in dispute with his insurer about whether a claim is covered under his household policy. The case is referred to the Ombudsman, who finds in the insurer’s favour. What effect do you think this decision has on George?

A. He is legally bound to accept the settlement offer

B. He is free to reject the decision and issue legal proceedings

A

B. He is free to reject the decision and issue legal proceedings

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a regulatory body?

A. FCA

B. FPC

C. PRA

D. BIBA

A

D. BIBA

59
Q

Professional indemnity insurance is compulsory for which of the following industries?

A. Solicitors

B. Insurance Intermediaries

C. Accountants

A

A. Solicitors

B. Insurance Intermediaries

C. Accountants

60
Q

True or false: The financial services compensation scheme was set up to deal with situations where an insurer or intermediary goes into liquidation?

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

61
Q

Which of these is NOT a form of corporate data?

A. Payments made to employees

B. Financial information on the company

C. Information held in a library

A

C. Information held in a library

62
Q

How many data protection principles are there?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 12

D. 6

A

D. 6

63
Q

True or false: Under GDPR, organisations have a duty to report certain types of breaches to the relevant supervisory authority?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

64
Q

Select all legislation that relates to money laundering activities

A. The Criminal Justice Act 1993

B. The Financial Services Act 2012

C. Data Protection Act (DPA) 2018

D. The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

E. The Money Laundering Regulations 2017

A

A. The Criminal Justice Act 1993

B. The Financial Services Act 2012

D. The Proceeds of Crime Act 2002

E. The Money Laundering Regulations 2017

65
Q

True or false: The bribery act (2010) made failure by a commercial organisation to prevent active bribery being committed on its behalf a criminal offence?

A. True

B. False

A

A. True

66
Q

How many principles for businesses does the FCA handbook contain?

A. 5

B. 11

C. 10

D. 6

A

B. 11

67
Q

True or false: According to the FCA a customer needs to express dissatisfaction in writing for a firm to consider it a complaint?

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

68
Q

After a firm’s final complaint decision, how long does the complainant have to refer the matter to the FOS?

A. 6 months

B. 12 months

C. 18 months

D. 24 months

A

A. 6 months

Foundation Insurance Test (11 decks)

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