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VetBloom > Module 1: Summative Assessment Pt. 1 > Flashcards

Module 1: Summative Assessment Pt. 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Clients may be emotional, stressed, or upset due to their pet’s condition. While the vast majority will behave appropriately, you may encounter an occasional client who is not as pleasant to deal with. If you are uncomfortable with how a client is acting you should

Select one:
a. excuse yourself and inform a supervisor or the doctor of the situation
b. tell the client to leave the hospital
c. do nothing, they will eventually leave
d. excuse yourself and go home

A

a. excuse yourself and inform a supervisor or the doctor of the situation Correct

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2
Q

There is never a situation where asking for help is unwarranted.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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3
Q

Allow the cleaning solution to sit on any affected area for a minimum of:

Select one:
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes

A

b. 10 minutes

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4
Q

Which of the following is not part of the abdominal cavity?

Select one:
a. Diaphragm
b. Liver
c. Spleen
d. Gallbladder
e. Pancreas
f. Esophagus

A

Esophagus

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5
Q

The cephalic vein is a branch of the

Select one:
a. External jugular vein
b. Lateral saphenous vein
c. Medial saphenous vein

A

a. External jugular vein

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6
Q

Palmar

A

The surface of the forepaw that contacts the ground

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7
Q

Plantar

A

The surface of the hind paw that contacts the ground

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8
Q

Proximal

A

The area of a body part that is relatively close to its origin

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9
Q

IV catheters should be rewrapped every _____ hours and anytime the bandage becomes soiled

Select one:
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 72

A

a. 24

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10
Q

If you suspect a client is neglecting or abusing a pet you should:

Select one:
a. contact HR
b. call the MSPCA
c. call the police
d. report your suspicions to the Medical Director of your hospital

A

d. report your suspicions to the Medical Director of your hospital

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11
Q

The red blood cells return from the body via the _____________ and enter the right atrium.

Select one:
a. vena cava
b. tricuspid valve
c. right ventricle

A

a. vena cava

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12
Q

Aseptic

A

Free from infection or septic material (pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins)

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13
Q

Caudal

A

Of, at or near the hind or back end of an object

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14
Q

Intravenous

A

Within a blood vessel

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15
Q

Dyspena

A

An increase in respiratory effort

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16
Q

Fomite

A

Animate or inanimate object on which disease-producing germs bay be carried

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17
Q

All of the following are zoonotic diseases except:

Select one:
a. Rabies
b. Ringworm
c. Leptospirosis
d. Parvo

A

d. Parvo

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18
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

First

A

Mouth

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19
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Second

A

Esophagus

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20
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Third

A

Lower Esophageal Sphincter

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21
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Fourth

A

Stomach

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22
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Fifth

A

Pyloric sphincter

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23
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Sixth

A

Duodenum

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24
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Seventh

A

Jejunum

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25
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Eighth

A

Ileum

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26
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Ninth

A

Ileocecal Valve

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27
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Tenth

A

Cecum

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28
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Eleventh

A

Ascending colon

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29
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Twelfth

A

Transverse colon

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30
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Thirteenth

A

Descending colon

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31
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Fourteenth

A

Rectum

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32
Q

Follow a piece of food as it travels into the mouth and label it’s path in the correct order (fifteen in total):

Fifteenth

A

Anus

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33
Q

Some commonly used disinfectants are not effective against leptospirosis and intestinal parasites and a 1:10 bleach solution can be used instead for cleaning.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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34
Q

Dogs on IV fluids should be walked every 4 hours

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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35
Q

All hospitalized patients should wear an ID collar, unless deemed contraindicated by the doctor.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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36
Q

Minimal restraint is the most successful way to examine most cats.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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37
Q

When restraining for placement of peripheral IV catheters, the handler controls the head with one arm and extends the leg with the other.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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38
Q

Bradycardia is defined as

Select one:
a. difficulty in swallowing
b. an increase in respiratory effort
c. decreased heart and pulse rate
d. increased heart and pulse rate

A

c. decreased heart and pulse rate

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39
Q

Debilitated cats

Select one:
a. can die from the stress of being restrained
b. never bite
c. should always be muzzled
d. should always be scruffed

A

a. can die from the stress of being restrained

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40
Q

Clipper blades

Select one:
a. should be snapped into place with the clipper motor turned off
b. should be snapped into place with the clipper motor running
c. should be brush with a wire brush under running water
d. are disposable

A

b. should be snapped into place with the clipper motor running

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41
Q

Puppies and kittens are considered neonates from birth until

Select one:
a. 12 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 2 weeks
d. 2 months

A

b. 4 weeks

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42
Q

Muzzles can be your best first defense however applying a muzzle is a prime time to get bitten

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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43
Q

Zoonotic

A

A disease that is spread from animal to human

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44
Q

Intramuscular

A

Within a muscle

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45
Q

Jaundice - (icterus)

A

A yellow tint to the mucous membrances caused by bilirubin

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46
Q

Hypothermia

A

A decrease in body temperature

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47
Q

Melena

A

Dark, tarry stool caused by digested blood

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48
Q

All dogs should be lifted by one technician

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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49
Q

What are two important reasons why understanding basic animal body language and communication in the veterinary setting is important? (select the best two)

Select one or more:
a. So we can maintain safety for ourselves and those around us
b. So we know if the animal wants to play
c. It helps us know when an animal is stressed, so we can do what we can to minimize that stress
d. So we know when an animal is hungry

A

a. So we can maintain safety for ourselves and those around us
c. It helps us know when an animal is stressed, so we can do what we can to minimize that stress

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50
Q

Animals communicate in which of the following ways.

Select one:
a. By body posture
b. With facial expressions
c. By vocalization
d. All of these
e. None of these

A

d. All of these

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51
Q

Is this true or false? Seeing a dog that has a wagging tail means it is friendly.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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52
Q

Is this true or false? When a dog snarls and growls it means it is aggressive.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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53
Q

An animal will display an appeasement signal because:

Select one:
a. It’s trying to please you
b. It wants to create space
c. It is tired and wants to sleep
d. To communicate that it’s mad

A

b. It wants to create space

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54
Q

When you see a dog display a lip lick, what is it trying to tell you?

Select one:
a. The dog is too hot.
b. That there is too much noise in the hospital.
c. It is hungry and would like to eat.
d. It is feeling anxious and uncomfortable.

A

d. It is feeling anxious and uncomfortable

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55
Q

Which statement about animal communication is false?

Select one:
a. Part of ensuring the animals comfort is by viewing the environment from their point of view
b. Our body language can affect the animal
c. Taking the entire body into account is important
d. A tucked tail and flattened ears indicate guilt

A

d. A tucked tail and flattened ears indicate guilt

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56
Q

lick all that apply. Which of the following are considered a colloid?

Select one or more:
a. VetStarch
b. Frozen plasma
c. Norm-R
d. NaCl

A

a. VetStarch
b. Frozen plasma

Colloids: Have a higher molecular weight and stay in vasculature longer.

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57
Q

The most effective way to medicate a patient is hiding medications in their food.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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58
Q

What medications, when added to a fluid bag, need to be protected from light at all times?

Select one:
a. Potassium Chloride/ Vitamin B Complex
b. Potassium Chloride/Dextrose
c. Vitamin B Complex/Valium
d. Dexmeditomidine/Potassium Chloride

A

c. Vitamin B Complex/Valium

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59
Q

Kittens are easy to sex before 8 weeks of age.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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60
Q

All patients admitted for surgery should never be given food and water unless instructed to by the patient’s doctor.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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61
Q

A patient with a resuscitation order of “DNR” means that in the event of an arrest, no medical intervention should be taken.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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62
Q

It is not necessary to clean the ears prior to initiating aural medication administration.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

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63
Q

Resuscitation may include: ventilation, chest compressions and administering various medications.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

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64
Q

Pet foods that are sold as complete and balanced must meet minimum ____________ standards

Select one:
a. AAFCO
b. FDA
c. CVM
d. USDA

A

a. AAFCO

AAFCO: The Associateion of American Feed Control Officials

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65
Q

Pet foods that are sold as complete and balanced must meet minimum ____________ standards

Select one:
a. AAFCO
b. FDA
c. CVM
d. USDA

A

a. AAFCO

AAFCO: The Associateion of American Feed Control Officials

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66
Q

Patients receiving TPN or PPN should always have these lines disconnected in order to be walked

Select one:
True
False

A

False

TPN: Total Parenteral Nutrition, PPN: Partial Parenteral Nutrition

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67
Q

What does DNR stand for?

Select one:
a. Don’t not resuscitate
b. Do not resuscitate
c. Danger non-resuscitation
d. Danger when resuscitating

A

b. Do not resuscitate

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68
Q

A cytologic exam of an ear swab helps to determine what type of medication is appropriate.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

Cytologic exam = analysis of cells from the body under a microscope.

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69
Q

What does PO stand for?

Select one:
a. Peace Offer
b. Per Oral
c. Poly Oral
d. Per Os

A

d. Per Os

70
Q

Medications added to the fluid bag need to be well mixed before priming the administration line.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

71
Q

Where should the patient be ideally disconnected from their fluid line prior to transport?

Select one:
a. The extension set.
b. The patient should never be transported while receiving IV fluids.
c. The t-piece
d. The catheter should be removed before transport.

A

c. The t-piece

72
Q

When applying aural medications, you should place the tip of the applicator as far as you can into the ear canal.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

73
Q

Liquid medications should be avoided in patients with swallowing disorders.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

74
Q

Any patient admitted into the hospital should have a cage card and a treatment plan (sheet) created.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

75
Q

How many kilograms is a patient weighing 50 pounds?

Select one:
a. 15 kg
b. 22.7 kg
c. 50 kg
d. 110 kg

A

b. 22.7 kg

76
Q

While assessing a patient’s respiratory rate, you count 10 breaths in a 15 second timeframe. What do you report as their respiratory rate?

Select one:
a. 20 bpm
b. 30 bpm
c. 40 bpm
d. 10 bpm

A

c. 40 bpm

77
Q

What is the normal rectal temperature of the canine and feline?

Select one:
a. 100 - 102.5 °F
b. 99 - 100 °F
c. 101 - 103 °F
d. 100 - 104 °F

A

a. 100 - 102.5 °F

78
Q

What artery is most commonly used to assess a patient’s pulse rate and quality?

Select one:
a. Carotid
b. Lingual
c. Jugular
d. Femoral

A

d. Femoral

79
Q

Which of the following is considered the preferred method to substantiate nutritional adequacy claims?

Select one:
a. Family method
b. Formula method
c. Feeding trial method

A

c. Feeding trial method

80
Q

Packed red blood cells are considered a colloid.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

81
Q

What is the term for a patient whose temperature is below the reference range?

Select one:
a. Hypotensive
b. Hypertensive
c. Hyperthermic
d. Hypothermic

A

d. Hypothermic

82
Q

A patient with hyperkinetic pulses has a difficult to palpate pulse.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

83
Q

A patient with a pneumothorax may show signs of orthopnea.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

84
Q

A stethoscope is only used to auscult a patient’s heart.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

85
Q

What is the term for a patient experiencing bloody diarrhea?

Select one:
a. Hematochezia
b. Hematuria
c. Hematoma
d. Hematemesis

A

a. Hematochezia

86
Q

What is the term for a patient experiencing bloody vomit?

Select one:
a. Hematochezia
b. Hematemesis
c. Hematuria
d. Hematoma

A

b. Hematemesis

87
Q

What does SOAP stand for?

Select one:
a. Speculative, Objective, Alternative, Plan
b. Super, Obsessive, Anxious, Patient
c. None of the above
d. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

A

d. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

88
Q

The abbreviation Rx can be used in reference to a prescription.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

89
Q

Nursing Notes are just a tool for the nursing staff and are not necessary to utilize as long as the nurse can remember all the information associated with their patient.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

90
Q

All Nursing Notes should be reviewed prior to performing a treatment on a patient for the first time.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

91
Q

What is the minimum amount of time you should wait between ocular medications?
Select one:
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 5 minutes

A

c. 5 minutes

92
Q

An ophthalmic exam should be performed by a veterinarian prior to initiating ocular medication administration.
Select one:
True
False

A

True

93
Q

Liquid ophthalmic solutions should be applied before ointments if they are due at the same time.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

94
Q

Never flush a nasal oxygen line.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

95
Q

Is this true or false? An otoscopic exam should be performed by a veterinarian prior to initiating aural medication administration.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

96
Q

Nursing notes are used to chart any findings which cannot be easily captured on the treatment sheet.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

97
Q

Dysphagia

A

Difficulty in swallowing

98
Q

Aspirate

A

Inhaling of fluid or foreign material the larynx and trachea

99
Q

Caudal

A

At or near the hind or back end of an object

100
Q

What are the five vital assessments that should be documented in the medical record at every visit?

Select one:
a. Temperature, demeanor, respiratory rate, attitude, pain
b. Temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, pain, nutrition
c. Demeanor, pulse, pain, gait, nutrition
d. Pulse, pain, nutrition, attitude, gait

A

b. Temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, pain, nutrition

101
Q

AAFCO is a government agency that establishes the laws pertaining to pet food labels

Select one:
True
False

A

False

102
Q

All air should be removed from the intravenous fluid administration set prior to connecting it to the patient.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

103
Q

To convert a patient weight from pounds to kilograms

Select one:
a. divide by 2.2
b. multiple by 2.2
c. subtract 2.2
d. add 2.2

A

a. divide by 2.2

104
Q

Medical records are

Select one:
a. a matter of public record
b. online and can viewed by anyone
c. confidential and only be discussed with the patients other veterinary medical professionals and the owner
d. may be discussed with anyone that calls inquiring about a patient

A

c. confidential and only be discussed with the patients other veterinary medical professionals and the owner

105
Q

All entries made to a patient treatment sheet or nursing notes must be initialed by the charting technician or doctor at the time of entry.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

106
Q

Normosol-R, Lactated Ringers and Sodium Chloride are all examples of what type of intravenous fluid?

Select one:
a. Crystalloid
b. IV Fluid
c. Colloid
d. Plasma

A

a. Crystalloid

107
Q

In a normal, healthy animal, the heart rate and pulse rate are generally equal.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

108
Q

What is the manner in which the Doppler probe should be cleaned of ultrasonic gel?

Select one:
a. With chlorhexadine scrub.
b. With a kim-wipe or soft cloth.
c. With the towel that patient is laying on.
d. With an alcohol gauze to sanitize between patients.

A

b. With a kim-wipe or soft cloth.

109
Q

Which of the following are important questions to ask when taking a nutritional history?

Select one:
a. All of these
b. Any history of nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea? If so, how often?
c. Does the pet have any difficulty chewing or swallowing?
d. Has there been any recent history of involuntary weight gain or loss? period?
e. Any changes in the pet’s appetite, urination, or defecation?

A

a. All of these

110
Q

How long should most treatment shampoos be left on the skin before rinsing thoroughly?

Select one:
a. 10 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. All shampoos should be rinsed immediately to avoid skin irritation.

A

a. 10 minutes

111
Q

A __________ should be used to clean a patient’s ear if the doctor suspects a ruptured eardrum.

Select one:
a. veterinary based ear cleaner
b. sterile saline

A

b. sterile saline

112
Q

Subcutaneous fluids can be beneficial when administered to a severely dehydrated patient.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

113
Q

Anytime a medication is added to an fluid bag, the bag only needs to be labeled with the medication name and the technician’s name.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

114
Q

What percentage of a patient’s body weight can be attributed to water?

Select one:
a. None
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 60%

A

d. 60%

115
Q

Aseptic technique needs to be followed when preparing a bag of intravenous fluids for administration.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

116
Q

Nutritional support should be considered for pets that have not eaten for how many days?

Select one:
a. 2
b. 5
c. 7
d. 3

A

d. 3

117
Q

If an incision site is swollen, red, and has a discharge, you should remove the sutures.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

118
Q

Hyperalgesia

A

Increased sensitivity to pain

119
Q

Scald

A

Irritation of the skin caused by repeated contact with liquid

120
Q

Allodynia

A

Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain

121
Q

Dogs that have diarrhea should not be fed or be given water

Select one:
True
False

A

True

122
Q

Sanitary clips should be performed with which size blade?

Select one:
a. 40
b. 15
c. Razor blade
d. 10

A

d. 10

123
Q

Capillary tubes should be filled ¾ full with blood and plugged with clay at _______

Select one:
a. both ends of the tube
b. the red end of the tube
c. the clear end of the tube

A

b. the red end of the tube

124
Q

When spinning hematocrit tubes in the microcentrifuge the timer should be set to _____ minutes.

Select one:
a. 10
b. 15
c. 3
d. 7

A

c. 3

125
Q

Controlled substances must be kept in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet or safe.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

126
Q

The fastest way to get a drug into circulation is to inject it into the muscle.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

127
Q

The fastest way to get a drug into circulation is to give it IV.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

128
Q

Drugs given orally are taken into the gastrointestinal system and absorbed in the stomach and small intestine.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

129
Q

The fastest way to get a drug into circulation is to inject it into the subcutaneous connective tissue and fat

Select one:
True
False

A

False

130
Q

The guidelines for submitting rabies specimens differ between states.

Select one:
True
False

q

A

True

131
Q

Tapping the hematocrit tube on the refractometer will scratch the surface and interfere with reading the results.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

132
Q

How many pieces of information can be obtained from one hematocrit tube?

Select one:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4

A

d. 4

133
Q

What does PCV stand for?

Select one:
a. Percent Cell Volume
b. Packed Corpuscular Volume
c. Plasma Cell Volume
d. Packed Cell Volume

A

d. Packed Cell Volume

134
Q

A chemistry profile sample stored in a lithium heparin blood container must be run within 30 minutes from the time of collection.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

135
Q

At minimum, how many times should a sample be inverted to ensure proper suspension of cells before running a blood sample?

Select one:
a. 10
b. 1
c. 4
d. 8

A

a. 10

136
Q

A SNAP test must come to room temperature before being run.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

137
Q

How full should a hematocrit tube be filled?

Select one:
a. 1/4 full
b. 3/4 full
c. 1/2 full
d. All the way

A

b. 3/4 full

138
Q

If a necropsy is needed but delayed, the body must be stored in the freezer until the necropsy can take place.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

139
Q

What is the vector for Lyme disease?

Select one:
a. Mosquitos
b. Deer tick
c. Flies
d. Fleas

A

b. Deer tick

140
Q

Which of the following are benefits of vaccination? (check all that apply)

Select one or more:
a. Prevention of illness
b. Easier to train
c. Fewer disease related fatalities
d. A healthier pet population living longer than ever before

A

a. Prevention of illness
c. Fewer disease related fatalities
d. A healthier pet population living longer than ever before

141
Q

A reconstituted vaccine should be used within ___________ minutes of reconstitution.

Select one:
a. 30
b. 90
c. 15
d. 60

A

a. 30

142
Q

Scabies is caused by __________ mites.

Select one:
a. Demodex
b. Sarcoptes
c. Lice
d. Cuterebra

A

b. Sarcoptes

143
Q

Medications should be disposed of by flushing them down the toilet.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

144
Q

The results of a urinalysis can help us diagnose the following: (check all that apply)
Select one or more:
a. Urinary tract infection
b. Renal disease
c. Pneumonia
d. Diabetes

A

a. Urinary tract infection
b. Renal disease
d. Diabetes

145
Q

Sharps containers should be disposed of when they are roughly_________ full.

Select one:
a. 75%
b. 50%
c. 100%
d. 90%

A

a. 75%

146
Q

The FIV virus is primarily spread between cats via ____________.

Select one:
a. Fighting and bite wounds
b. Flea transmission
c. Fomite contamination
d. Fecal contamnination

A

a. Fighting and bite wounds

147
Q

A fecal flotation exam is utilized to test for intestinal parasites.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

148
Q

The core vaccinations for dogs are

Select one:
a. Distemper, adenovirus, parvo, parainfluenza, rabies
b. Distemper, parvo, lyme, rabies
c. Distemper, parvo, rabies, lepto
d. Distemper, parvo, adenovirus, bordetella, rabies

A

a. Distemper, adenovirus, parvo, parainfluenza, rabies

149
Q

Any fecal sample can be tested for intestinal parasites.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

150
Q

What order should a slide be stained using the Diffquick method?

Select one:
a. Light blue, purple, red
b. Red, purple, light blue
c. Purple, red, light blue
d. Light blue, red, purple

A

d. Light blue, red, purple

151
Q

Match the sample container to their purpose:

No Additive (plain red top)

A

Can be used for all samples that do not require anticoagulant

152
Q

Match the sample container to their purpose:

Jars with Formalin

A

Used for tissue biopsies

153
Q

Match the sample container to their purpose:

Slides

A

Used for cytology

154
Q

Match the sample container to their purpose:

Heparin

A

Anticoagulant used for chemistry profiles

155
Q

Match the sample container to their purpose:

Serum Separator (tiger top)

A

Used to separate serum from red blood cells, used for chemistry profiles

156
Q

Match the sample container to their purpose:

EDTA (purple top)

A

Anticoagulant used for CBC’s and ELISA tests

157
Q

Match the sample container to their purpose:

Citrate (blue top)

A

Anticoagulant used for coagulation testing

158
Q

Match the prescription abbreviation to the correct frequency:

TID
PRN
QUID
SID
BID

A

TID: Three times a day (every 8 hours)
PRN: As needed
QUID: Four times a day (every 6 hours)
SID: (Once a day (every 24 hours)
BID: Twice a day (every 12 hours)

159
Q

What diagnostic test determines the number of white blood cells?

Select one:
a. Biochemistry profile
b. CBC
c. Urinalysis
d. Fecal

A

b. CBC

160
Q

Heartworm is a parasite that is spread by

Select one:
a. Fecal contamination
b. Ticks
c. Mosquitos
d. Fleas

A

c. Mosquitos

161
Q

What color medical waste container is used for disposal of chemotherapy materials?

Select one:
a. Blue
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Green

A

c. Yellow

162
Q

Canine parvovirus may remain viable in the environment for up to _____________.

Select one:
a. 6 weeks
b. Years
c. 1 year
d. 3 weeks

A

b. Years

163
Q

Few cats with feline lymphoma will test positive for FeLV.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

164
Q

The controlled substances with the highest risk of abuse potential are classified by the DEA as schedule _____________.

Select one:
a. II
b. I
c. III
d. V
e. IV

A

b. I

165
Q

A drug’s expiration date must be included on take-home medication labels.

Select one:
True
False

A

True

166
Q

1 kg = how many g = how many mg?

A

1 kg = 1,000g = 1,000,000 mg

167
Q

1kg = how many lb?

A

1kg = 2.2 lb

168
Q

1g = how many mg = how many kg?

A

1 g = 1,000 mg = 0.001 kg

169
Q

1g = how many grains?

A

1g = 15.43 grains

170
Q

1grain = how many mg?

A

1 grain = 64.8 mg

171
Q

1lb = how many kg = how many oz?

A

1 lb = 0.454 kg = 16 oz

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