Module 1: Sources and Prevention of Infection Flashcards

1
Q

what is an endogenous infection?

A

infection gained from our own microbiota, common

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2
Q

what is an exogenous infection?

A

infection gained from another’s microbiota

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3
Q

what are fomites?

A

surfaces that can carry infectious organisms eg glass, door handles

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4
Q

what are zoonosis diseases?

A

infectious diseases that can be transmitted from animals to humans

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5
Q

what are some characteristics of the bacterial zoonotic infection Camplobacteriosis?

A
  • acute onset of cramping, nausea, watery diarrhoea

- either stool containing blood or very watery

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6
Q

what are the four main virulence factors of Campylobacter bacteria?

A
  • production of toxins that cause diarrhoea

- high mobility allows them to break through mucus layer of the gut

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7
Q

what does the cholera-like enterotoxin released from Campylobacter bacteria result in?

A

causes an overproduction of cAMP, leading to the efflux of sodium from intestinal cells, leading to watery diarrhoea

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8
Q

what does the cytolethal distending toxin released from Campylobacter bacteria result in?

A

produces DNase which eats DNA to cause cell death and leads to bloody diarrhoea

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9
Q

what do dermatophytes result in?

A

fungal infection that targets keratin stores in the human body (nails, hair, upper skin)

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10
Q

what is giardia?

A

intestinal protozoan parasite that can cause serious health issues

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11
Q

what are the two forms giardia can grow in?

A
  • trophozoite

- cyst

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12
Q

how many giardia cysts are required to cause infection in a normal gut compared to an immunocompromised gut?

A

10-25 cysts, compared to 1-2 in immunocompromised

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13
Q

what is one significant effect giardia has on the intestinal epithelium?

A

blunts epithelial villi to reduce absorption leading to malabsorption and malnutrition

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14
Q

what are environmental pathogens?

A

organisms hat spend most their life outside of a host, but will infect a host if it meets it (opportunistic)

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15
Q

what kind of infection is Pseudomonas aeuruginosa?

A

bacterial

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16
Q

what are the virulance factors of Pseudomonas aeuruginosa?

A
  • biofilms
  • phagocyte invasion
  • invasins
  • toxins
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17
Q

what bacteria can cause dermonecrosis in burn wounds, corneal damage in the eye and lung damage?

A

Pseudomonas aeuruginosa

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18
Q

how can you tell if you have Pseudomonas aeuruginosa infection?

A
  • blue pus in agar
  • fruity odour
  • beta hemolysis
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19
Q

how to treat a Pseudomonas aeuruginosa infection?

A

combination of broad antibacterial drugs

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20
Q

what kind of infection is Aspergillus?

A

fungal

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21
Q

what causes a Aspergillus infection?

A

the inhalation of spores leading to respiratory infections

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22
Q

what is Aspergillosis disease?

A

causes an allergy by the spores, causes bad skin reactions

23
Q

what is Aspergilloma disease?

A

a fungal ball grows in the lung

24
Q

what can Aspergillus do to your blood vessels?

A

cause them to erode

25
Q

how to treat Aspergilloma?

A

antifungals work 60% of the time, otherwise surgery

26
Q

how to treat Aspergillosis?

A

antifungals are ineffective, so surgery

27
Q

what kind of infection is Cryptosporidium?

A

parasite

28
Q

in mild cases, what can Cryptosporidium cause?

A

watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain and vomiting that lasts 2 weeks

29
Q

in immunocompromised people, what can Cryptosporidium cause?

A

chronic diarrhoea for months to years, rapid dehydration, malnutrition, imbalances, death

30
Q

how do TNFa and prostglandins cause diarrhoea in a Cryptosporidium infection?

A

increasing the intestinal permeability causing water loss

31
Q

what are the 6 chains that make up the ‘Chain of Infection’?

A
  • infectious agent
  • reservoir
  • portal of exit
  • means of transmission
  • portal of entry
  • susceptible host
32
Q

what is an infectious agent?

A

any organism that is capable of infection

33
Q

what is a reservoir?

A

any place an infectious agent can survive

34
Q

can humans be a reservoir?

A

yes

35
Q

what is a portal of exit?

A

any means through which an infection can leave a reservoir

36
Q

what is a mode of transmission?

A

how an infectious agent can get from an infectious agent to a susceptible host

37
Q

what are the 4 main kinds of transmission?

A

contact, droplet, airborne or common vehicle

38
Q

what is the contact form of transmission?

A

either direct or indirect contact with the infectious agent

39
Q

what is the droplet form of transmission?

A

contact with a droplet that is large and travels a short distance of the infectious agent eg sneezing, coughing, talking

40
Q

what is the airborne form of transmission?

A

small particles of the infectious agent that can travel a long way to infect people

41
Q

what is the common vehicle form of transmission?

A

infection to a susceptible host through the use of a commonly used thing eg food, water, medications, blood donations

42
Q

what is the portal of entry?

A

how an infectious agent gets into the host

43
Q

what is a susceptible host

A

a person with lacking immunity or resistance of a potential pathogen

44
Q

why do young kids get infections?

A

that have immunological immaturity

45
Q

why do old people get infections?

A

they have immunosenscence

46
Q

what is a hospital acquired infection (HAI)?

A

infections people gain after admission to the hospital that they showed no evidence of having before admission

47
Q

what causes 40% of HAIs?

A

UTIs

48
Q

what is the main cause of hospital-gained UTIs?

A

catheters

49
Q

what causes surgical site infections?

A

infection in a surgical wound depending on the contamination level of the wound

50
Q

what kind of infection is ventilator-associated pneumonia an example of?

A

lower respiratory tract infection

51
Q

what causes most hospital-related bloodstream infections (BSI)?

A

a central venous catheter

52
Q

what is a community acquired infection?`

A

infections contracted outside a healthcare setting or diagnosed BEFORE 48 hours of admission

53
Q

what are the 3 main antimicrobial HAI and CAI?

A
  • MRSA
  • ESBL
  • VRE